Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CompTIA A+ 220-1001 & 220-1002_ > CompTIA A+ 1001: Weak Spots #1 - General > Flashcards

CompTIA A+ 1001: Weak Spots #1 - General Flashcards

1
Q

802.11a - Frequency & Speed?

A

5 GHz

54 Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

802.11b - Frequency & Speed?

A

2.4 GHz

11 Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

802.11g - Frequency & Speed?

A

2.4 GHz

54 Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

802.11n - Frequency & Speed?

A

WIFI4
2.4 GHz + 5 GHz
600 Mbps
MIMO = Multiple In/Multiple Out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

802.11ac - Frequency & Speed?

A

WIFI5
5 GHz
1 Gbps
Improves MIMO Technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ATX - Size?

A

12” x 9.6”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MTX (Micro-ATX) - Size?

A

9.6” x 9.6”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MITX (Mini-ITX) - Size?

A

6.7” x 6.7”

Used mostly in Small Home Theater Systems, Point of Sale Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

LCD - Lighting Type?

A

Liquid Crystal Display

Fluorescent Backlights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

LED - Lighting Type?

A

Monitor Backlight Technology

Light Emitting Diodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

OLED - Lighting Type?

A

Does not NEED Backlight-Self Illuminating.

Thus, it’s Smaller/Thinner, but more expensive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

RAID0 - Method, Min # of Drives, Common Usage?

A

Stripping = SPEED
Requires min of 2 Drives.
Heavy Read Operations

  • If 1 Drive fails, all Data Lost.

+ High Performance Speed
- Data is LOST if one disk fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

RAID1 - Method, Min # of Drives, Common Usage?

A

Mirroring = REDUNDANCY
Requires atleast 2 Drives

  • Primary Purpose of RAID1 is Redundancy - Slows things down because you’re Mirroring/Writing the Data Twice.

+ Fault Tolerance, High Read Performance
- LAG for Write Ops, Reduced Storage by 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

RAID5 - Method, Min # of Drives, Common Usage?

A

Stripping + Parity = SPEED + REDUNDANCY
Requires Minimum of 3 Drives.
Normal File Storage & App Servers

  • Stripping occurs with 2 of the 3 Drives, and the 3rd Drive does Parity.
  • If 1 Drive Fails, data can easily be recreated - Replace the Failed Drive and Rebuild the Array.
  • If more than 1 Drive Fails, you can’t rebuild the Array.

+ Speed and Fault Tolerance
- LAG for Write Ops, Reduced Storage by 33%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

RAID10 - Method, Min # of Drives, Common Usage?

A

Stripping & Mirroring = HIGH SPEED + HIGH REDUNDANCY
Requires Minimum of 4 Drives
Highly Utilized Database Servers

  • 2 of the Drives are RAID1 and Mirrored to the other 2 RAID1 Drives
  • If you lose a Mirrored PAIR, you are in trouble.
  • You can lose 2 Drives as long as they aren’t in the same Mirrored Pair.
  • Includes Stripping across two drives for faster performance and Mirroring of the Stripped Array for Safety.

+ Write Performance and Strong Fault Tolerance
- Reduced Storage by 50%, Limited Scalability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

RAID6 - Method, Min # of Drives, Common Usage?

A

Stripping + Double Parity
Requires 4 Drives Minimum
Large File Storage & App Servers

  • It’s like RAID5, Stripping with Parity, but instead of 1 Parity Drive you get 2 Parity Drives.
  • You can lose up to 2 Drives before Data Loss.

+ Extra Level of Redundancy, High Read Performance
- Low Write Performance, Reduced Storage by 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Virtualization Terms: The concept of creating an environment that Imitates full Hardware and Software without relying on the CPU, of one system onto another? Mimics the qualities and logic of one processor to run in another platform efficiently is _______?

A

Emulation

Emulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Virtualization Terms: Known as a VMM (Virtual Machine Monitor), which is a type of Virtualization Software that supports the creation and management of VMs by separating a Computer’s Software from it’s Hardware is ______ ?

A

Hypervisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Virtualization Terms: A complete model of various complex systems ___ ?

A

Simulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

VM Networking: ______ Network Connection type that will create a Switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the Switch to Communicate with the Host or the Internet?

LocalHost
Private
Internal
External

A

Private

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

VM Networking: ______ are Network Connection types where the VM’s would be able to communicate across the Internet?

LocalHost
Private
Internal
External

A

External

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

VM Networking: ______ Network Connection type where the VMs can only communicate with itself?

LocalHost
Private
Internal
External

A

LocalHost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

VM Networking: ______ Network Connection type where the VM’s are prevented from communicating across the Internet but are able to communicate with other VM’s on the Host and the Host itself?

LocalHost
Private
Internal
External

A

Internal

24
Q

Cloud Types: Outsourcing Hardware, Software, Storage, Data Centers, Servers, and Network Space, also known as Platform Virtualization is provided by what Cloud Service?

PaaS
SaaS
DaaS
VDI
IaaS
A

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

25
Q

Cloud Types: Provides Hardware and Software Tools, fully configured systems to Rent that are setup for specific purposes?

PaaS
SaaS
DaaS
VDI
IaaS
A

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

26
Q

Cloud Types: Applications distributed centrally hosted and licensed, also known as the Application Service Provider where Users can add new features or functionalities based on their use of the Application based on the agreement with the provider is what Cloud Service?

PaaS
SaaS
DaaS
VDI
IaaS
A

Software as a Service (SaaS)

27
Q

Cloud Types: Provides full virtualized environments from within a Cloud-Based Service? (Select Two)

PaaS
SaaS
DaaS
VDI
IaaS
A

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)

28
Q

RAM: DDR3-800 is also known as _____ ?

PC3-10600
PC3-8500
PC3-6400
PC3-12800

A

PC3-6400

29
Q

RAM: DDR3-1066 is also known as _____?

PC3-10600
PC3-8500
PC3-6400
PC3-12800

A

PC3-8500

30
Q

RAM: DDR3-1333 is also known as _____?

PC3-10600
PC3-8500
PC3-6400
PC3-12800

A

PC3-10600

31
Q

RAM: DDR3-1600 is also known as _____?

PC3-10600
PC3-8500
PC3-6400
PC3-12800

A

PC3-12800

32
Q

Storage Media: Records information in Tracks and Sectors containing 512 bytes each?

Optical
Magnetic
Flash

A

Magnetic

33
Q

Storage Media: Stores data in a continuous spiral?

Optical
Magnetic
Flash

A

Optical

34
Q

Storage Media: Used on Memory Cards?

Optical
Magnetic
Flash

A

Flash

35
Q

Storage Media: Records information in a Series of Lands and Pits?

Optical
Magnetic
Flash

A

Optical

36
Q

Storage Media: Uses a Laser Light to read data?

Optical
Magnetic
Flash

A

Optical

37
Q

Storage Media: Records information in concentric circles?

Optical
Magnetic
Flash

A

Optical

38
Q

Storage Media: Information is recorded from the Center outward?

Optical
Magnetic
Flash

A

Optical

39
Q

Storage Media: Stores data on double-sided platters?

Optical
Magnetic
Flash

A

Magnetic

40
Q

Storage Media: Information is recorded from the outer edge inward?

Optical
Magnetic
Flash

A

Magnetic

41
Q

Storage Media: Used in Solid State Drives?

Optical
Magnetic
Flash

A

Flash

42
Q

DLP - Lighting Type?

A

Moving Mirrors

43
Q

PBQ: Wireless Encryption Security Protocols - WEP?

IV
TKIP
PSK
AES

A

IV (Initialization Vector)

44
Q

PBQ: Wireless Encryption Security Protocols - WPA/WPA2?

IV
TKIP
PSK
AES

A

TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol)

45
Q

PBQ: Wireless Encryption Security Protocols - WPA?

IV
TKIP
PSK
AES

A

PSK (Pre-Shared Key)

46
Q

PBQ: Wireless Encryption Security Protocols - WPA2?

IV
TKIP
PSK
AES

A

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)

Strongest/Highest Level of Encryption on Wireless for A+ Exam

47
Q

RAM: DDR4-1600 - Transfer Rate and PC4 Name?

12,800 MB/s – PC4-12800
19,200 MB/s – PC4-19200
21,333 MB/s – PC4-21333
17,066 MB/s – PC4-17000

A

12,800 MB/s

PC4-12,800

48
Q

RAM: DDR4-2133 - Transfer Rate and PC4 Name?

12,800 MB/s – PC4-12800
19,200 MB/s – PC4-19200
21,333 MB/s – PC4-21333
17,066 MB/s – PC4-17000

A

17,066 MB/s

PC4-17000

49
Q

RAM: DDR4-2400 - Transfer Rate and PC4 Name?

12,800 MB/s – PC4-12800
19,200 MB/s – PC4-19200
21,333 MB/s – PC4-21333
17,066 MB/s – PC4-17000

A

19,200 MB/s

PC4-19200

50
Q

RAM: DDR4-2666 - Transfer Rate and PC4 Name?

12,800 MB/s – PC4-12800
19,200 MB/s – PC4-19200
21,333 MB/s – PC4-21333
17,066 MB/s – PC4-17000

A

21,333 MB/s

PC4-21333

51
Q

Troubleshooting Theory: Step 6?

A

Document your Findings, Actions, Outcomes, Lessons Learned

  1. Identify the Problem
  2. Establish a Theory of Probable Cause (Question the Obvious first.)
  3. Test the Theory to determine the Cause.
  4. Establish a Plan of Action to Resolve the Problem and Implement the Solution.
  5. Verify FULL System Functionality and, if applicable, Implement Preventative measures.
  6. Document Findings, Actions, Outcomes - Lessons Learned
52
Q

Troubleshooting Theory: Step 3?

A

Test the Theory to determine the Cause

  • If the Theory isn’t Confirmed, Re-Establish a New Theory
  • Escalate the Issue when necessary.
53
Q

Troubleshooting Theory: Step 1?

A

Identify the Problem
- Talk to the User

  1. Identify the Problem
  2. Establish a Theory of Probable Cause (Question the Obvious first.)
  3. Test the Theory to determine the Cause.
  4. Establish a Plan of Action to Resolve the Problem and Implement the Solution.
  5. Verify FULL System Functionality and, if applicable, Implement Preventative measures.
  6. Document Findings, Actions, Outcomes - Lessons Learned
54
Q

Troubleshooting Theory: Step 5?

A

Verify FULL System Functionality, and if applicable, implement Preventative Measures

  1. Identify the Problem
  2. Establish a Theory of Probable Cause (Question the Obvious first.)
  3. Test the Theory to determine the Cause.
  4. Establish a Plan of Action to Resolve the Problem and Implement the Solution.
  5. Verify FULL System Functionality and, if applicable, Implement Preventative measures.
  6. Document Findings, Actions, Outcomes - Lessons Learned
55
Q

Troubleshooting Theory: Step 2?

A

Establish a Theory of Probable Cause
- Question the Obvious FIRST

  1. Identify the Problem
  2. Establish a Theory of Probable Cause (Question the Obvious first.)
  3. Test the Theory to determine the Cause.
  4. Establish a Plan of Action to Resolve the Problem and Implement the Solution.
  5. Verify FULL System Functionality and, if applicable, Implement Preventative measures.
  6. Document Findings, Actions, Outcomes - Lessons Learned
56
Q

Troubleshooting Theory: Step 4?

A

Establish a Plan of Action to Resolve the Problem and Implement the Solution.

  1. Identify the Problem
  2. Establish a Theory of Probable Cause (Question the Obvious first.)
  3. Test the Theory to determine the Cause.
  4. Establish a Plan of Action to Resolve the Problem and Implement the Solution.
  5. Verify FULL System Functionality and, if applicable, Implement Preventative measures.
  6. Document Findings, Actions, Outcomes - Lessons Learned

CompTIA A+ 220-1001 & 220-1002_ (36 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions