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comptia A+ CORE 1 1120-220 > COMPTIA > Flashcards

COMPTIA Flashcards

1
Q

A helpdesk support professional is helping to set up a computer for a presentation not generally used for presentations. The helpdesk professional notices that the display connector has 15 pins. What type of cable will the computer need?

A

VGA

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2
Q

A marketing analyst is trying to connect an Apple device to a corporate PC, but the cable will not fit into the PC connections. What type of adapter should the analyst use?

A

USB

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3
Q

A service desk operator is looking at an older computer. The service desk operator attempts to plug in a keyboard and mouse, but there are no USB ports. What type of cable do the keyboard and mouse need?

A

DB9

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4
Q

A parent has purchased an older laptop for their young child to do school work but finds the laptop has USB 1.1 connections. Which of the following should the parent use to be compatible?

A

USB 3 Type A

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5
Q

An audio-visual support technician assists a customer who normally uses a USB 3.0 display cable to connect, but the cable seems to have gone bad. What else could the technician likely use?

A

Thunderbolt 3

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6
Q

A brand new network associate sets up phone lines at a new location. What type of connector will the network associate need?

A

RJ11

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7
Q

A server technician has received a non-standard external drive. It appears older since it does not connect to USB, but it is not recognized when connected. The technician suspects it needs to be powered. Which of the following should the technician try?

A

eSATAp

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8
Q

A company has tasked a network administrator with running Ethernet cabling in an enterprise and is told to use the most popular type of network cable with an insulated jacket. Which of the following should the administrator use?

A

UTP

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9
Q

An organization has asked a helpdesk attendant to swap out a defective monitor since part of the monitor will not display colors correctly. They are curious about how the LCD monitor varies the color, so they look at the inner workings. What is each pixel addressed by to vary the intensity of RGB values?

A

Transistor

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10
Q

An audio-visual support technician assists a customer who normally uses a USB 3.0 display cable to connect, but the cable seems to have gone bad. What else could the technician likely use?

A

Thunderbolt 3

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11
Q

A help desk analyst is replacing an internal hard drive on a desktop. A technician had previously removed the hard drive, so the analyst did not have a chance to map which cable should go where. Which cable will provide power in a modern SATA setup?

A

15 PIN

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12
Q

WHAT IS CAT 5

A

Cat 5 is a type of twisted pair cable that carries signals for computer networks such as Ethernet1234. It has four pairs of copper wire and RJ-45 connectors at the ends234. It supports frequencies up to 100 MHz and speeds up to 1000 Mbps135. It can be used for various network technologies, such as 10BASE-T, 100BASE-TX, 1000BASE-T,

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13
Q

What is CAT5e

A

Cat 5e is a twisted pair cable for computer networks. It is used as a cabling infrastructure for 10BASE-T (Ethernet), full duplex 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet) and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet, or GbE) networks12. The Cat 5e standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and can be used up to a maximum length of 100 meters

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14
Q

What is Cat 6

A

Cat 6 is used mainly for computer networks reaching a Gb, 1000 Mbps or one Gbps of data transfer speed (DTR) or higher. It consists of four pairs of copper wires, which are all utilized for data transfer. It provides bandwidth of 250 MHz, speed up to 10 Gbps and may be stretched to 100 meters in length

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15
Q

What is IDE

A

old type of storage device- hard drives

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16
Q

What is SCSI

A

small computer system interface, a bus standard for connecting computers and their peripherals.

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17
Q

What is a R232 connector

A

An RS232 connector is a port that allows data to be exchanged between devices, It uses serial communication instead of parallel communication

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18
Q

What is SODIMM

A

SODIMM stands for Small Outline Dual In-line Memory Module. It is a type of computer memory module that is smaller and thinner than standard DIMM modules. It is mainly used for laptops and other small devices

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19
Q

What is DDR2

A

Computer DDR2 is a type of memory module that was released in 2003 and operates faster, uses less power, and generates less heat than DDR1. It is incompatible with DDR slots1. It can help improve the processing speed of computers for high data transmission performance23. It uses 240PIN to achieve high anti-interference and anti-static performance3. It supports plug and play without driver

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20
Q

What is DDR3

A

is a type of synchronous dynamic random-access memory (SDRAM) with a high bandwidth interface, DDR3 SDRAM is neither forward nor backward compatible with any earlier type of random-access memory (RAM) because of different signaling voltages, timings, and other factors.

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21
Q

What is DDR4

A

s a type of synchronous dynamic random-access memory with a high bandwidth interface.

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22
Q

What is Single Channel Ram

A

Single-channel RAM is a type of memory configuration where your CPU has access to a single 64-bit wide bus (in DDR4) to access memory. It is usually of 64-bits and is like a single “lane” for the RAM to transfer data. The bandwidth on single-channel memory is lower than dual-channel memory

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23
Q

What is Dual Channel Ram

A

Dual-channel RAM is a technology that uses two memory channels to increase the rate of transfer between your computer’s memory and the CPU. In dual-channel mode, two RAM sticks communicate simultaneously on separate channels to operate your computer and run programs significantly faster. Therefore, running in dual-channel memory will provide a significant performance boost to your PC, regardless of the actual size of your RAM. For example, in most cases, two 4GB sticks of memory running in dual-channel mode will likely outperform a single 8GB stick of memory in single-channel mode

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24
Q

What is Tripple Channel Ram

A

Triple-channel RAM is a type of memory architecture that uses three identical memory modules to increase the communication speed between the memory controller and the RAM. This technique is used to triple the communication speed between the memory controller and the RAM, thus increasing the system performance1. Triple-channel mode is enabled when identical matched memory modules are installed in each of the three blue memory slots

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25
Q

What is ECC

A

Error correcting codes are used for controlling errors in data transmission over unreliable or noisy communication channels

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26
Q

Parity vs Non Parity

A

Non-parity memory is memory that does not perform any kind of error checking to ensure that the data written to memory is what is actually read when it is retrieved12. Parity memory, on the other hand, is memory with extra bits that accompany the word to make the total number of bits on that word even or odd2. Both parity methods function the same way but differ in the sense of whether they look for an odd number of bits or an even number of bits

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27
Q

What is an Optical Drive

A

DVDs, CDs and Blu-ray

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28
Q

What is M.2

A

Solid State Drive, less space, smaller,

29
Q

What is NVMe

A

NVMe stands for Non-Volatile Memory Express. It is a protocol designed to use the PCI Express (PCIe) bus to connect SSD (solid-state drive) storage to servers or CPUs.

30
Q

What is a Magnetic Hard Drive

A

A magnetic hard drive is a type of storage device that uses magnetism to store and retrieve digital information. It consists of one or more rigid rapidly rotating disks coated with magnetic material. The data is stored on the disk in the form of magnetic fields that can be read by a read/write head. Magnetic hard drives are commonly used in computers and other electronic devices for long-term storage of data

31
Q

What is a Solid State Drive

A

is a solid-state storage device that uses integrated circuit assemblies to store data persistently, typically using flash memory, and functioning as secondary storage in the hierarchy of computer storage devices

32
Q

RAID 0

A

also known as a stripe set or striped volume) splits (“stripes”) data evenly across two or more disks, without parity information, redundancy, or fault tolerance. Since RAID 0 provides no fault tolerance or redundancy, the failure of one drive will cause the entire array to fail; as a result of having data striped across all disks, the failure will result in total data loss

33
Q

Raid 5

A

consists of block-level striping with distributed parity. Unlike in RAID 4, parity information is distributed among the drives. It requires that all drives but one be present to operate. Upon failure of a single drive, subsequent reads can be calculated from the distributed parity such that no data is lost.[5] RAID 5 requires at least three disks

33
Q

Raid 1

A

consists of an exact copy (or mirror) of a set of data on two or more disks; a classic RAID 1 mirrored pair contains two disks. This configuration offers no parity, striping, or spanning of disk space across multiple disks, since the data is mirrored on all disks belonging to the array, and the array can only be as big as the smallest member disk. This layout is useful when read performance or reliability is more important than write performance or the resulting data storage capacity.[13][14]

The array will continue to operate so long as at least one member drive is operational

34
Q

Raid 1-0

A

level using a mirror of stripes, achieving both replication and sharing of data between disks.[3] The usable capacity of a RAID 01 array is the same as in a RAID 1 array made of the same drives, in which one half of the drives is used to mirror the other half

35
Q

atx size

A

12x9.6

36
Q

What is IDE

A

An Integrated Development Environment (IDE) is a software application that provides comprehensive facilities for software development. IDEs increase programmer productivity by combining common activities of writing software into a single application: editing source code, building executables, and debugging

37
Q

What is 802.11a

A

802.11a is an extension to 802.11 that applies to wireless LANs and provides up to 54-Mbps in the 5GHz band

38
Q

what is 802.11b

A

802.11a is an extension to 802.11 that applies to wireless LANs and provides up to 54-Mbps in the 5GHz band1

39
Q

What is 802.11g

A

802.11g is a Wi-Fi standard developed by the IEEE for wireless local area networks12345. It operates in the 2.4 GHz microwave band and has a maximum link rate of 54 Mbps

40
Q

What is 802.11n

A

operates on both the 2.4 GHz and the 5 GHz bands. Support for 5 GHz bands is optional. Its net data rate ranges from 54 Mbit/s to 600 Mbit/s

41
Q

What is 802.11ac

A

operates on 5ghz, data ranges 433mbps up to 867

42
Q

6 steps of problem solving

A

Identify the problem.
Establish a theory of probable cause.
Test the theory to determine the cause.
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.
Document everything

43
Q

What are post code beeps

A

Steady, short beeps Power supply may be bad
Long continuous beep tone Memory failure
Steady, long beeps Power supply bad
No beep Power supply bad, system not plugged in, or power not turned on
No beep If everything seems to be functioning correctly there may be a problem with the ‘beeper’ itself. The system will normally beep one short beep.
One long, two short beeps Video card failure

44
Q

ftp

A

21

45
Q

ssh

A

22

46
Q

telnet

A

25

47
Q

dns

A

53

48
Q

pop3

A

103

48
Q

http

A

80

48
Q

imap

A

143

48
Q

https

A

443

48
Q

rdp

A

3389

49
Q

netbios/netbt

A

137 139

50
Q

smb/cif

A

445

51
Q

slp

A

427

52
Q

afp

A

548

53
Q

dhcp

A

67 68

54
Q

ldap

A

389

55
Q

snmp

A

161 162

56
Q

what is IAAS

A

infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis

57
Q

What is PAAS

A

That allows customers to provision, instantiate, run, and manage a modular bundle comprising a computing platform and one or more applications, without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching the application(s), and to allow developers to create, develop, and package such software bundles

58
Q

What is SAAS

A

SaaS stands for Software as a Service, which is a software licensing and delivery model in which software is accessed online via a subscription, rather than bought and installed on individual computers

59
Q

What is a Public cloud

A

Public cloud is a type of cloud computing where a third-party service provider offers computing resources, including software applications, virtual machines and complete infrastructures, over the public internet12345. These resources are available on-demand to organizations and individuals

60
Q

What is a Private cloud

A

A private cloud is a cloud service that is exclusively offered to one organization. By using a private cloud, an organization can experience the benefits of cloud computing* without sharing resources with other organizations.

61
Q

What is a Community cloud

A

Community cloud is a cloud service model that provides a cloud computing solution to a limited number of individuals or organizations that share common concerns or goals12345. The community cloud can be managed and hosted by one of the participating organizations, a third party service provider, or a combination of both125. The purpose of community cloud is to allow collaboration and sharing of resources and services among the members of the community

62
Q

What is a Hybrid cloud

A

A hybrid cloud is a mixed computing environment where applications are run using a combination of computing, storage, and services in different environments—public clouds and private clouds, including on-premises data centers or “edge” locations. Hybrid cloud computing approaches are widespread because almost no one today relies entirely on a single public cloud.

63
Q
A

comptia A+ CORE 1 1120-220 (1 decks)

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