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NCCPT > Comprehensive Test 1 > Flashcards

Comprehensive Test 1 Flashcards

0
Q

true or false a failure to screen or even preform screening which results in client injury may actually increase the likelihood of legal claims and suits based upon negligence

A

true

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1
Q

what are the greatest legal concerns for personal trainers

A

pre-activity health screening of clients, interpreting the results, the development of physical activity recommendations and parameters for training, the instruction and supervision of physical activity, emergency preparations and timely fulfillment of such services

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2
Q

true or false employers may not be responsible for the actions of their employees

A

false

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3
Q

true or false it is not recommended to obtain liability insurance when working as an independent contractor

A

false

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4
Q

true or false it is recommended to utilize applicable protective documents such as waivers releases and informed consents to meet their legal duties

A

true

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5
Q

true or false professionalism has nothing to do with punctuality appearance presentation knowledge or hygiene

A

false

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6
Q

true or false the client complains about back pain you should tell them to take NSAID S and rest

A

false

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7
Q

true or false a client told you they’re thinking about refinancing their home you should tell them to rere-modify their loan

A

false

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8
Q

true or false a client tells you they are concerned about their child who is taking drugs you should return the focus back to the workout

A

true

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9
Q

true or false a client make sexual innuendo towards you you should either report them to your manager or inform them you feel uncomfortable with sexual comments

A

true

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10
Q

name the four chambers of the heart

A

left and right ventricles left and right atriums

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11
Q

name the three energy systems

A

ATP/creatine phosphate glycolysis aerobic oxidation

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12
Q

what is the prime mover antagonist and stabilizers for the bench press

A

Pectoralis major middle and upper fibers emphasized rhomboids trapezius posterior deltoid rotator cuff musculature supraspinatus infraspinatus teres minor subscapularis

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13
Q

what causes post exercise soreness and what do you do about it

A

Microtrauma to the muscle tissue PRICE light stretching or active rest and hydrate

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14
Q

describe what occurs during the systolic and diastolic phase of blood pressure what is considered a normal reading

A

systolic is the pressure in the arterial walls during ventricular contraction diastolic pressure is the pressure in the arterial walls during ventricular filling 120/80 is considered a normal reading

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15
Q

what is the difference between slow and fast twitch muscle

A

slow twitch muscle fibers have slow shortening velocities are red endurance and resistant to fatigue large mitochondria high myoglobin rich capillary supply primarily postural tonic fast twitch muscle fibers have high shortening velocities fatigue rapidly have large numbers of actin and myosin filaments which are larger in diameter are white prime mover/strength/power phasic musculature easily inhibited

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16
Q

what might be the fat burning target heart range for a 45-year-old individual with a resting heart rate 60 bpm

A

using the Karvonen formula and calculating the training heart rate based on zone one 40 to 65% the answer is 220-45-60x .4+60 = 106 bpm and 220-45-60×.60 5+60 = 135 beats for minute or 106–1 35 bpm

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17
Q

what is the all or none theory

A

when a myofibril is innervated by a nerve cell it contracts totally or not at all

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18
Q

explain the difference between concentric and eccentric in resistance training

A

A concentric contraction is the shortening of the muscle fibers and eccentric contraction is the lengthening of the muscle fibers

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19
Q

name two functions of blood

A

transport oxygen and nutrients to the cells and removes wastes and carbon dioxide from the cell

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20
Q

what is the definition of OBLA

A

on set of blood lactate accumulation

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21
Q

how could you determine maximum heart rate and training heart rate when designing a cardiovascular workout for a client

A

VO2 Max test

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22
Q

discuss the concept of periodicity

A

The gradual cycling of specificity intensity volume duration and frequency to achieve a specific goal

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23
Q

what is the Valsalva maneuver

A

exhaling forcibly with the glottis closed

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24
Q

what does the abbreviation ATP mean

A

adenosine triphosphate

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25
Q

with exercise lasting longer than 10 seconds what system kicks in to provide ATP

A

glycolytic System

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26
Q

how long does glycolysis last

A

from 10 seconds to three minutes

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27
Q

define reciprocal inhibition

A

when an agonist or prime mover is called upon to perform a desired motion the antagonist are neurologically inhibited

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28
Q

what is a co-contraction

A

when the agonist and antagonist contract simultaneously

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29
Q

what is a spurt muscle give an example

A

muscles that have their distal tendon close to the joint axis biceps brachii

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30
Q

what is a double jointed muscle

A

A muscle in the body that crosses two joints and is able to produce motion at more than one joint

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31
Q

define the term reversibility

A

A major decrease in strength in aerobic capacity are apparent after two weeks without exercise and a major decrease in aerobic after three weeks without exercise

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32
Q

what would afferent information be

A

afferent information is nerve impulses from receptors or sense organs toward the center nervous system

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33
Q

what is a motor unit

A

A single alpha motor neuron and all the corresponding muscle fibers it innervates

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34
Q

Janda suggested there is a group postural muscles involved in static tasks such as standing or sitting that have a tendency to become over active the muscles are referred to as

A

tonic musculature

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35
Q

what body type is characterized by a muscular build

A

mesomorph

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36
Q

when a client has a decrease in appetite inability to sleep and elevated rate heart they may be

A

overtraining

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37
Q

The fascia that surrounds bundles of muscle fibers is called

A

fasiculi

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38
Q

which contraction is the strongest concentric eccentric or iso metric

A

eccentric

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39
Q

define visceral or smooth muscles

A

visceral or smooth muscles operate blood vessels and tubular organs such as the stomach and uterus smooth muscle gets its name because there are no striations visible in them smooth muscle is an autonomous or doesn’t require conscious thought to be stimulated

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40
Q

defined the origin of a muscle

A

is the attachment nearest the midline of the body and/or the end attached to the least movable bone

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41
Q

List three reasons why eating 5 to 6 meals a day is more effective

A

thermogenic effect of food steady supply of nutrients and smaller amounts do not encourage fat storage

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42
Q

what is the ACSM recommended intake of carbohydrates proteins and fats for health

A

58% carbohydrates 30% or less than 30% fat and 12% protein

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43
Q

what are vitamins

A

vitamins are organic food substances found only in living things such as plants and animals are required by the body in minute amounts for physiological maintenance and growth

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44
Q

how much water should a person drink a day

A

125 ounces for men 91 ounces for women

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45
Q

how many calories are in 1 g of fat 1 g of carbohydrate 1 g of protein 1 g of vitamins

A

9 fat 4 carbohydrate 4 protein 0 vitamins

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46
Q

The essential amino acids

A

Phenylalaine, Valine, threonine, methionine, tryptophan, histidine, Isoleucine, leucine, lysine

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47
Q

define basal metabolic rate

A

BMR is the amount of energy expended to support the ongoing metabolic work of the body’s cells at rest

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48
Q

what major role does potassium play in the body

A

production of energy muscle contraction beating of the heart synthesis of protein nerve tranquilization and kidney function

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49
Q

what is the Institute of medicine’s recommended intake of carbohydrates protein and fats

A

45 to 65% carbohydrates 10 to 35% protein 20 to 35% fat

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50
Q

what hormone does the pancreas release in response to high concentration of blood sugar

A

insulin

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51
Q

what macronutrient provides the majority of the energy used by muscles in the first three minutes of activity

A

carbohydrate

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52
Q

give an example of a saturated fat

A

any fat that is solid at room temperature and or palm and coconut oil

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53
Q

according to the food guide pyramid which category of foods offer high-quality protein

A

meats

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54
Q

which type of vitamins may have a risk for toxicities

A

fat soluble vitamins

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55
Q

according to the American dietetic Association a person should drink ______ 8 ounces glasses of water

A

eight

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56
Q

what is the acronym RDA stand for

A

recommended dietary allowance

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57
Q

give examples of a disaccharide

A

Maltose lactose or sucrose

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58
Q

name the essential fats

A

Linolenic and linoleic acids

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59
Q

List some of the benefits of vitamin C

A

helps maintain collagen can reduce histamines and is an antioxidant

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60
Q

what vitamin is most affected by the industrialization of our food supply

A

B vitamins

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61
Q

how many calories are in a food that contains 20 g of carbohydrates 42 g of protein and 12 g of fat

A

356 cal

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62
Q

The recommended intake for dietary fiber

A

25 to 30 grams

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63
Q

8 g Per kilogram of body weight is the RDA recommendation for healthy adults for which macronutrient

A

protein

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64
Q

galactose and glucose make up the disaccharide

A

lactose

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65
Q

while the body is at rest what percentage of fat is utilized for fuel

A

60%

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66
Q

glucose and fructose are examples of

A

monosaccharides

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67
Q

which vitamin helps maintain collagen

A

vitamin C

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68
Q

what is collagen

A

The most abundant protein in the body

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69
Q

defined the term golgi tendon organ

A

A sensory organ situated at the Musculotendinous junction

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70
Q

what is a dynamic stretch

A

The bodies own movement causes the stretch

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71
Q

what is ballistic stretching

A

uncontrolled bouncing jerking bobbing or pulsing to achieve greater range of motion

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72
Q

what are the dangers of hyperflexibility

A

May cause joint instability and precautions during pregnancy would include moderate stretching

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73
Q

what sensory receptor activates the stretch reflex mechanism

A

muscle spindle

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74
Q

what can you do to increase the efficiency in the process of reciprocal innervation

A

A good warm-up

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75
Q

flexibility around a joint is affected by

A

bone structure ligaments elasticity of skin muscles tendons and Fascia

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76
Q

tendons are resistant to what kind of force

A

tensile forces

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77
Q

define the term elastic

A

The ability to return back to their original

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78
Q

The ability to return to its original shape is the definition of

A

elastic

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79
Q

The sensory receptor involved in the stretch reflex mechanism is called

A

muscle spindle

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80
Q

what percent of body fat for men and women is considered obese

A

men 25% and women 32%

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81
Q

what is a form of treatment for osteoarthritis

A

A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory or some form of analgesic

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82
Q

what is rheumatoid arthritis

A

and autoimmune process resulting in inflammation of the synovial fluid contained in the burs sacks of the joint surfaces

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83
Q

what is hypertension

A

high blood pressure

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84
Q

name two things a trainer should pay attention to if working with someone with hypertension

A

The client should never do exercises with their head below the level of their heart and they should avoid lifting heavy weights over their heads

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85
Q

what should a trainer pay attention to when working with a pregnant client in the first trimester

A

heart rate core temperature and making sure the client is not exercised to exhaustion

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86
Q

how many tender points must a person have to be diagnosed with fibromyalgia

A

11 out of the 18 tender points for three months or longer

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87
Q

how often should a pregnant woman consume water when exercising how much water should be consumed in an hour long training session

A

at least every 10 minutes 16 to 32 ounces during an hour long session

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88
Q

what is the primary symptom of fibromyalgia

A

muscle soreness

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89
Q

what problems can multiple sclerosis

A

muscle control strength vision balance sensation and mental functions

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90
Q

what causes multiple sclerosis

A

multiple sclerosis is the process of demyelination and subsequence disruption of the nerve impulse flow

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91
Q

what should be avoided in an exercise program for someone with multiple sclerosis

A

exercise programs should be designed to avoid overheating

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92
Q

what response during exercise can you suspect from a client who is taking a beta blocker

A

A client taking beta blockers can have a decreased exercise heart rate

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93
Q

what response during submaximal testing can you suspect from a client who is taking a calcium channel blocker

A

A client taking a calcium channel blocker can have a lower blood pressure when performing a submaximal exercise test

94
Q

what considerations should you take one training someone with cancer

A

avoid high impact aerobic activity due to risk of bone fractures and avoid pressure or friction on the skin during exercise because bruising could easily occur

95
Q

what are some recommendation you might make to a client with osteoporosis

A

avoid high impact aerobics uncontrolled spinal flexion decreased caffeine intake increase weight-bearing activities and ensure an adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D

96
Q

When training a client with AIDS/HIV and why is it important to wash your hands

A

to protect them from being exposed to other infections

97
Q

are sit ups a recommended exercise for pregnant woman in her second trimester

A

no

98
Q

what can cause exercise-induced asthma

A

Cold air and specific intensities and durations going too hard too fast

99
Q

define diastasis

A

Diastasis is the separation of the rectus abdominis muscle

100
Q

what are some of the considerations when training someone with cancer

A

General weakness nausea risk of bone fractures and bruising from pressure or friction on the skin

101
Q

when training a client with osteoporosis is it better to perform weight bearing or non-weight-bearing exercise

A

weight bearing exercise

102
Q

considerations when training someone with AIDS/HIV include

A

washing your hands to protect the client from exposure to other infections

103
Q

What is an anatomical position

A

in this position the body is in an erect stance facing forward arms at the side of the trunk with palms facing forward and the legs together with the feet pointing forward all joints are in anatomical neutral with the exception of full supination at the radio-ulnar joint

104
Q

define the term supination

A

movement in which the palms face forward in anatomical position

105
Q

define the term external

A

refers to a segment rotating around a vertical axis so that the anterior surface of the segment moves away from the midline of the body

106
Q

what is circumduction

A

an imaginary O actually a combination of four movements flexion adduction extension and abduction

107
Q

define the term cephalic

A

pertaining towards the head

108
Q

what is Caudal

A

pertaining to the tail end

109
Q

true or false the term bilateral refers to both sides

A

true

110
Q

true or false the term posterior/dorsal both refer to the back of the body

A

true

111
Q

what means do the anatomical planes provide

A

they are means of communication or describing motion

112
Q

define the term flexion give one example

A

flexion occurs when the joint motion is moving away from neutral in the sagittal plane or if past neutral in a position of extension is moving back to neutral elbow flexion curl

113
Q

define the term extension give one example

A

extension occurs when the joint motion is moving from a position of flexion back to work past anatomical neutral in the sagittal plane elbow extension/triceps push down

114
Q

name the three planes of motion

A

sagittal or median frontal or coronal horizontal or transverse planes of motion

115
Q

Which muscles flex the elbow joint

A

biceps brachii brachialis and brachioradialis

116
Q

the pes anserinus consists of

A

Latin for gooses foot the insertion of the Gracilis semitendinous and the sartorius

117
Q

an example of a closed kinematic exercise chain exercise would be

A

The bench press

118
Q

Name the four muscles of the rotator cuff

A

S I T S

SUPRaspinatus INFRASPINATUS Teres minor and subscapularis

119
Q

what are the five Main spinal regions

A

cervical thoracic lumbar sacral coccyx

120
Q

name the origin and insertion of the rectus abdominis muscle what action does it accomplish

A

origin pubic crest or pubic synthesis insertion xiphoid process and the costal cartilages of the fifth through seventh ribs compresses the abdominopelvic pelvic cavity and flexes the vertebral column

121
Q

what muscle plantar flexes the foot

A

Gastrocnemius

122
Q

what muscles dorsi flexes the ankle

A

tibialis anterior

123
Q

what type of joint allows flexion and extension

A

A ball and socket or a hinge joint

124
Q

give an example of a fusiform muscle

A

biceps brachii sartorious brachialis rectus femoris rectus abdominis

125
Q

what makes up the shoulder girdle

A

The clavicle and the scapula

126
Q

what does the tricep surac consist of

A

The two heads of the gastrocnemius and the soleus

127
Q

name the muscles of the quadriceps

A

vastus lateralis vastus medialis vastus inermedius and rectus femoris

128
Q

what is the longest muscle in the body

A

Sartorius

129
Q

what is the longest bone in your body

A

femur

130
Q

define a sesamoid bone

A

A short bone embedded within a tendon or joint capsule an example would be the bones found in the base of the first meta-tarsal in the foot or of course the largest example would be the Patella

131
Q

what are the three basic body types in somatotyping

A

ectomorph mesomorph and endomorph

132
Q

what types of muscles maintain a joint in a static position

A

stabilizers

133
Q

name the three heads of the tricep brachii

A

Long lateral and medial

134
Q

how many vertebrae are found in the cervical region of the spine

A

seven

135
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the pectoralis major

A

origin medial half of the clavicle the sternum and the costal cartilage is of the upper six ribs in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle insertion greater tubercle of the humorous

136
Q

The deltoids and the glutes maximus are examples of

A

penniform muscles

137
Q

give an example of a class two lever system

A

The wheel barrow can opener or the MTP joint in plantar flexion

138
Q

what motions are performed by the iliopsoas

A

hip flexion and external rotation concentrically hip extension and internal rotation eccentrically

139
Q

which muscle dorsi flexes the ankle

A

tiabialis anterior

140
Q

what are the names of the three heads of the tricep brachii

A

Long lateral and medial

141
Q

what are the six questions you should address to determine the effectiveness of any exercise

A

determine the motion determine the direction of resistance determine the starting position monitor joint position stabilization continually monitor the path of motion continually determine and monitor the range of motion

142
Q

what do the trunk muscles consist if

A

back extensors that bend the trunk backward lateral flexors at bend it sideways and anterior abdominals that bended forward

143
Q

movement from the extremities originate and emanate from

A

The core

144
Q

how should a client position themselves for the supine pelvic hold level one

A

lying with back arched naturally feet portioned as close to

buttocks as possible

145
Q

what percentage of the adult population will experience low back pain

A

80%

146
Q

what is the starting position for the back extension machine

A

seated in ideal alignment with arms crossed line up hip joint with axis of machine

147
Q

what are the mechanical points for the reverse crunch

A

do not throw the legs placing arms above head will help with balance do not move legs past the point of full abdominal contraction as this strains the neck

148
Q

what is considered to be normal range of motion in a horizontal abduction

A

30 to 45°

149
Q

what is the motion in a seated cable row direction of resistance

A

shoulder extension concentrically outward

150
Q

how can you make the dumbbell pullover a safer exercise

A

decline bench makes a better shoulder position alter speed bend elbows or apply resistance via a cable crossover

151
Q

what is the risk/benefit of the butt blaster machine

A

risk bodyweight plus resistance is resting on one knee really tough to stabilize spine room and hip extension beyond neutral equals 10 to 30° limit range to work glutes benefit minimal gluteus stimulation

152
Q

what is a Q angle

A

is formed by the longitudinal axis of the femur in the line of pull of the patellar ligament

153
Q

and individuals mechanical ability to perform multiple joint movements simultaneously underload is primarily based upon what

A

The length of the levers or segments connecting these joints

154
Q

when performing a prone leg curl the pivot point of the machine should be lined up with the

A

axis of rotation of the knee

155
Q

List two machines that train latissimus dorsi

A

pull-up bar lat pulldown machine or a row machine

156
Q

what is a carrying angle

A

The angle formed between the humerus and the forearm

157
Q

what are the prime movers in a squat

A

quadriceps at the knee and gluteus maximus at the hip

158
Q

what muscles are antagonists at the hip in the hip extension

A

hip flexors

159
Q

what are the agonists in a preacher curl

A

biceps Brachii Brachioradialis Brachialis

160
Q

how much does the intradiscal pressure increase when we are in the seated flexed position

A

30 to 40%

161
Q

What is the normal range of motion in shoulder flexion

A

160 to 180°

162
Q

in a seated position intradiscal pressure increases

A

30 to 40%

163
Q

what are some of the risks when performing an upright row

A

excessive internal rotation during abduction

164
Q

when the multi joint compound exercise is executed immediately after a single joint exercise what type of training is this an example of

A

pre exhaustion

165
Q

what muscles must be stretched when a client has a protracted shoulder girdle

A

Pectoralis major pectoralis minor subscapularis and anterior deltoid

166
Q

squat bench press Barbell curl and a leg press are examples of

A

A closed kinetic chain exercises

167
Q

what are the prime movers in a leg press

A

vastus lateralis Vastus medialis Vastus intermedius and rectus femoris

168
Q

what is the difference between muscular strength and muscular endurance

A

muscular strength is the ability of a muscle to exert a force muscular endurance is the ability of a muscle to exert a force over a period of time

169
Q

if you train the benchpress and the triceps push down which would usually be trained first

A

The benchpress

170
Q

define the term volume

A

volume can be measured by the total amount of work performed in a training session this can be measured by the amount of repetitions completed or the total amount of weight lifted this can be measured by each set workout day week month etc.

171
Q

define the term intensity

A

intensity is the measure of one’s applied strength relative to their current level of maximum strength intensity is most easily represented as a percentage of one’s repetition maximum

172
Q

when do type 2a muscle fibers fatigue

A

begin at six seconds and fully fatigue at 30 to 120 seconds

173
Q

how much time under tension is needed to receive an aerobic muscular endurance training effect

A

greater than 70 seconds

174
Q

what is absolute strength

A

The maximum amount of force an individual can produce respective of body weight and time of force development this type of strength is important for shot-putters and football lineman wear body weight has a correlation to an increase in performance

175
Q

when working with loads under 60% of maximum how long should the rest periods be

A

approximately 45 seconds to two minutes

176
Q

what is the double double training technique

A

in this technique the user performs two different double jointed exercises for the same muscle group back to back

177
Q

what are the four components of a fitness routine

A

flexibility stabilization balance strength hypertrophy cardiovascular

178
Q

define unilateral training

A

training one side of the body at a time

179
Q

for a hypertrophic effect to occur the repetition range should be

A

6 to 12 repetitions per set

180
Q

using the Karvonen formula calculate the training heart rate of 70% for a 40-year-old male with a resting heart rate of 30 bpm do it again for a 40-year-old male with the same percentage but a resting heart rate of 72

A

for the 40-year-old with a resting heart rate 30 bpm a training heart rate of 70% equals 135 bpm for the 40 year old with a resting heart rate of 72 bpm a target heart rate of 70% equals 148 bpm

181
Q

normal resting heart rates are

A

60 to 100 bpm

182
Q

A normal blood pressure reading is

A

120/80 mm/HG

183
Q

dividing the body weight in kilograms by the height in meters squared equals

A

BMI

184
Q

force times distance divided by time equals

A

Power

185
Q

The stretch shortening cycle is the sequence of

A

eccentric action followed by a concentric action

186
Q

for how long should you take someone’s pulse after the step test

A

one minute

187
Q

what are two purposes of fitness testing

A

to provide information that is helpful in prescribing and exercise program educating participants about physical fitness and individual fitness status list any from page 102

188
Q

what are two reasons an accurate resting heart rate measurement is important

A

it is used for the calculation of exercise target heart rate exercise test and exercise prescription it provides baseline information for comparison as cardiovascular fitness levels improve list any of the four found on page 103

189
Q

what is considered to be an optimal blood pressure reading

A

120 systolic and 80 diastolic

190
Q

how long does the push up test

A

until the client can no longer complete another repetition or correct alignment can no longer be maintained

191
Q

what are the standard sites for women from the three site skinfold formula

A

triceps brachii suprailliac and thigh

192
Q

what does the acronym BMI stand for

A

body mass index

193
Q

A BMI measurement of 32 maybe considered

A

class one obesity

194
Q

what is the metronome setting for the three minute step test

A

96 bpm

195
Q

what fitness assessment measures the endurance capabilities of the rectus Abdominis internal and external obliques

A

The sit up test

196
Q

what is Uppercross syndrome

A

forward head posture or muscles short and facilitated Neck extensors upper trapezius sternocleidomastoid and Pectoralis major and minor muscles elongated and inhibited deep neck flexor’s lower middle trapezius rhomboid Serratus anterior and rectus abdominal

197
Q

normal range of motion for hip extension is

A

15 to 30°

198
Q

Uppercross syndrome is characterized by

A

short cervical extensors and pectoralis major long rhomboids mid trapezius and cervical flexors

199
Q

which method of assessing body fat has a lower estimated accuracy range Hydro static waiting or bio impotence analysis

A

hydrostatic weighing is plus or minus 2.5% and BIA is plus or minus 4%

200
Q

how many beats per minute should you set the metronome at for the YMCA three-minute step test

A

96 bpm

201
Q

normal range of motion for shoulder flexion is

A

160 to 180°

202
Q

subcutaneous fat levels in individuals are affected by

A

gender body type and activity levels

203
Q

in the treatment for common injuries what does the acronym PRICE mean

A

protect rest ice compression elevation

204
Q

List two reasons why you should call 911

A

if the victim is unconscious is bleeding severely any from the list on page 112

205
Q

how do you treat heat cramps

A

rest gentle stretches ice rehydrate

206
Q

what are the symptoms of a sprain

A

swelling limitations of range of motion discoloration soreness

207
Q

how do you treat a contusion

A

apply ice

208
Q

how do you treat a blister

A

if punctured cleanse blister protect with pad and dressing

209
Q

what are the symptoms of cardiac arrest

A

heart stops beating no pulse no breathing ischemia(lack of oxygen to the heart)

210
Q

what are the symptoms of fainting

A

light headedness dizziness paleness light sweating

211
Q

what is the treatment for heat stroke

A

call 911 and try to cool the person down

212
Q

what is the treatment for an epileptic seizure

A

remove objects that might injure them protect their head do not place your finger and or hard object between their teeth don’t restrain slap or douse them with water once the seizure has ended move them to a comfortable place

213
Q

what are signs of heat exhaustion

A

pale clammy skin rapid weak pulse weakness headache or nausea

214
Q

true or false when someone suffers from an epileptic seizure you should place a hard object between the persons teeth

A

false

215
Q

what are some signs of hypoglycemia

A

excessive hunger dizziness or weakness

216
Q

explain the difference between using free weights and selectorized equipment

A

free weights are functional real life easy to transport and require technique Machines require less technique and less stabilize Asian from the user because of the guided path of motion and the outside support mechanisms or the machine more weight may be lifted however machines might not fit everyone

217
Q

what are the concerns to be aware of when using free weights

A

awkwardness potential danger to the body from lack of control skill needed momentum

218
Q

how much does a Cybex hack squat carriage weigh

A

65 pounds

219
Q

what is the weight of a 7 foot Olympic bar

A

45 pounds

220
Q

what is the weight of an easy curl bar

A

25 pounds

221
Q

true or false lack of physical activity is a risk factor for heart disease

A

true

222
Q

how many deaths in the US per year are attributed to lack of physical fitness

A

250,000

223
Q

of people age 55 and older what percentage report essentially sedentary lifestyle

A

38%

224
Q

how many minutes should you arrive before your training appointment

A

10 to 15 minutes

225
Q

what are the five most important points to look for on a client profile

A

goals experience medical history career or job and signature

226
Q

what are the four key points of a sale

A

acknowledge isolate overcome close

227
Q

after performing an intro what should you do with the clients workout card and their client profile

A

keep the signed client profile sheet and give them their workout card

228
Q

how often should you call back your intros

A

at Least one

229
Q

what are the three means of communication

A

Visual auditory and kinesthetic

230
Q

true or false it is important for clients to use the mirrors to monitor technique

A

true

231
Q

what two subjects should you refrain from speaking with your clients

A

religion and politics

232
Q

A claims made policy is an example of what kind of insurance

A

liability insurance

233
Q

what is the most important aspect to focus on when trying to sell services to a potential client

A

their goals

NCCPT (2 decks)

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