Comprehensive guide Flashcards

1
Q

Acronym

A

Definition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AAA

A

Authentication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ACL

A

Access Control List - A router has an ACL that allows only specific IP addresses to access certain network resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

AES

A

Advanced Encryption Standard - AES is used to encrypt sensitive data stored in cloud services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CIA

A

Confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

DLP

A

Data Loss Prevention - A DLP system detects and prevents the transfer of sensitive data outside the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IDS

A

Intrusion Detection System - An IDS monitors network traffic for suspicious activities and alerts administrators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

IPS

A

Intrusion Prevention System - An IPS can block malicious traffic in real time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MFA

A

Multi-Factor Authentication - A user logs into an account using a password and a one-time code sent to their phone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PKI

A

Public Key Infrastructure - PKI is used to issue digital certificates that validate user identities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

VPN

A

Virtual Private Network - Employees use a VPN to securely connect to the company’s internal network from remote locations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SIEM

A

Security Information and Event Management - SIEM systems aggregate and analyze log data to detect security incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SSO

A

Single Sign-On - With SSO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

RADIUS

A

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service - RADIUS is used to manage access for remote users connecting to a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

TACACS+

A

Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus - TACACS+ provides centralized authentication for network devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

TLS

A

Transport Layer Security - TLS encrypts data transmitted over the internet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

SSL

A

Secure Sockets Layer - SSL certificates secure web traffic between a user’s browser and a web server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

WAF

A

Web Application Firewall - A WAF protects web applications from common attacks like SQL injection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

BYOD

A

Bring Your Own Device - A BYOD policy allows employees to use personal devices for work purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

NIDS

A

Network Intrusion Detection System - NIDS monitors network traffic and alerts on suspicious behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

NIPS

A

Network Intrusion Prevention System - NIPS actively blocks potentially harmful traffic on the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

SOC

A

Security Operations Center - A SOC monitors and analyzes security events in real-time to respond to incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

FIM

A

File Integrity Monitoring - FIM detects unauthorized changes to files and alerts administrators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

RPO

A

Recovery Point Objective - A business aims for an RPO of one hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

RTO

A

Recovery Time Objective - The RTO defines how quickly a system should be restored after a failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

HIPS

A

Host Intrusion Prevention System - HIPS protects individual devices from attacks by monitoring system behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

HIDS

A

Host Intrusion Detection System - HIDS checks a host for signs of malicious activity and reports them to the admin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

GDPR

A

General Data Protection Regulation - GDPR requires organizations to protect personal data and privacy for EU citizens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CISO

A

Chief Information Security Officer - The CISO is responsible for developing and implementing the company’s information security strategy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CSIRT

A

Computer Security Incident Response Team - A CSIRT is tasked with responding to and managing security incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MDM

A

Mobile Device Management - MDM solutions allow organizations to manage and secure employees’ mobile devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

APT

A

Advanced Persistent Threat - APTs are sophisticated attacks that gain unauthorized access and remain undetected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CCL

A

Common Control Line - CCL is used to define shared controls within organizations to manage risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

CVE

A

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures - CVE identifiers help track vulnerabilities in software.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

CVSS

A

Common Vulnerability Scoring System - CVSS scores help prioritize vulnerabilities based on their severity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

EDR

A

Endpoint Detection and Response - EDR solutions provide real-time monitoring and data collection from endpoints.

37
Q

DDoS

A

Distributed Denial of Service - A DDoS attack overwhelms a server with traffic

38
Q

MITM

A

Man-In-The-Middle - MITM attacks intercept communications between two parties to eavesdrop or alter messages.

39
Q

SHA

A

Secure Hash Algorithm - SHA is used to ensure data integrity by generating a unique hash for data.

40
Q

RFID

A

Radio-Frequency Identification - RFID tags track inventory items in a warehouse.

41
Q

OSI

A

Open Systems Interconnection - The OSI model helps standardize network communication protocols.

42
Q

SAML

A

Security Assertion Markup Language - SAML enables SSO by allowing identity providers to share authentication data.

43
Q

TTP

A

Tactics

44
Q

NIST

A

National Institute of Standards and Technology - NIST publishes cybersecurity frameworks and guidelines for organizations.

45
Q

ISO

A

International Organization for Standardization - ISO 27001 outlines requirements for establishing an information security management system.

46
Q

FIPS

A

Federal Information Processing Standards - FIPS are mandatory for federal agencies to ensure security in IT systems.

47
Q

AAL

A

Authentication Assurance Level - AAL levels define the strength of authentication methods used in systems.

48
Q

AUP

A

Acceptable Use Policy - An AUP outlines acceptable behaviors for using company IT resources.

49
Q

ITAR

A

International Traffic in Arms Regulations - ITAR restricts the export of defense-related articles and services.

50
Q

FERPA

A

Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act - FERPA protects the privacy of student education records.

51
Q

HIPAA

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act - HIPAA sets standards for protecting sensitive patient health information.

52
Q

PCI DSS

A

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard - PCI DSS provides guidelines for protecting cardholder data in payment processing.

53
Q

RACI

A

Responsible

54
Q

TCO

A

Total Cost of Ownership - TCO considers all costs associated with owning and operating a system.

55
Q

VAPT

A

Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing - VAPT identifies and exploits vulnerabilities in systems to improve security.

56
Q

FUD

A

Fear

57
Q

DNSSEC

A

Domain Name System Security Extensions - DNSSEC protects against certain types of attacks on the DNS.

58
Q

S3

A

Simple Storage Service (AWS) - Amazon S3 provides scalable cloud storage solutions.

59
Q

IaaS

A

Infrastructure as a Service - IaaS allows businesses to rent computing resources over the internet.

60
Q

PaaS

A

Platform as a Service - PaaS provides a platform for developers to build and deploy applications without managing infrastructure.

61
Q

SaaS

A

Software as a Service - SaaS applications are accessed over the internet

62
Q

VM

A

Virtual Machine - VMs allow multiple operating systems to run on a single physical machine.

63
Q

SLA

A

Service Level Agreement - An SLA defines the expected service performance and availability.

64
Q

Ransomware

A

Malware that encrypts files and demands payment - Ransomware attacks often target hospitals

65
Q

BIA

A

Business Impact Analysis - A BIA identifies critical business functions and the impact of disruptions.

66
Q

HSM

A

Hardware Security Module - HSMs secure cryptographic keys and perform encryption/decryption.

67
Q

SOAR

A

Security Orchestration

68
Q

UEBA

A

User and Entity Behavior Analytics - UEBA identifies anomalies in user behavior to detect potential threats.

69
Q

XSS

A

Cross-Site Scripting - XSS attacks inject malicious scripts into web pages viewed by users.

70
Q

CSRF

A

Cross-Site Request Forgery - CSRF tricks users into submitting requests without their consent.

71
Q

L2TP

A

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol - L2TP is used to create VPNs that securely transmit data.

72
Q

IPsec

A

Internet Protocol Security - IPsec encrypts data at the IP layer for secure communications.

73
Q

CAA

A

Certification Authority Authorization - CAA records specify which CAs are permitted to issue certificates for a domain.

74
Q

TFA

A

Two-Factor Authentication - TFA adds an extra layer of security by requiring a second form of verification.

75
Q

OAUTH

A

Open Authorization - OAUTH allows users to share specific data with third-party applications without exposing credentials.

76
Q

OpenID

A

An open standard for user authentication - OpenID enables users to log in to various websites using a single account.

77
Q

SYN

A

Synchronize - SYN packets are part of the TCP handshake to establish a connection.

78
Q

NAC

A

Network Access Control - NAC solutions enforce security policies for devices connecting to a network.

79
Q

Breach

A

Unauthorized access to data - A data breach occurs when hackers access confidential information.

80
Q

CIRT

A

Computer Incident Response Team - A CIRT responds to security incidents and manages recovery efforts.

81
Q

Forensics

A

The application of science to criminal and civil laws - Digital forensics investigates cybercrimes by analyzing digital evidence.

82
Q

Threat Actor

A

An individual or group that exploits vulnerabilities - A threat actor may be a hacker targeting financial institutions.

83
Q

Phishing

A

Fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information - Phishing emails trick users into revealing passwords.

84
Q

Social Engineering

A

Manipulating people to divulge confidential information - Attackers may pose as IT support to gain user trust and information.

85
Q

Zero-Day

A

A vulnerability exploited before a fix is available - A zero-day exploit can lead to widespread attacks if not patched quickly.

86
Q

Payload

A

The part of malware that performs the malicious action - The payload of a virus might delete files or steal data.

87
Q

Sandbox

A

An isolated environment for safely running programs - Malware analysis often uses a sandbox to test suspicious files without risk.

88
Q

Malware

A

Malicious software designed to harm or exploit devices - Types of malware include viruses

89
Q

Brute Force

A

Attempting to guess passwords or encryption keys - Brute force attacks may use various combinations to crack passwords.