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operative dentistry > Comprehensive Exam Material > Flashcards

Comprehensive Exam Material Flashcards

1
Q

When do we use an S curve?

A

In class II prep

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2
Q

Purpose of an S curve:

A
  1. keeps the narrow isthmus away from the axiopulpal line angle
  2. allows the preparation to break buccal contact
  3. creates a smooth and rounded outline
  4. allows the buccal wall to be 90 degrees to the cavosurface margin
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3
Q

Exposes the ends of enamel rods for a strong bond and gives a better seal

A

gingival bevel

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4
Q

Why do we place a gingival bevel?

A

exposes ends of enamel rods for stronger bond and better seal

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5
Q

Where do we place a gingival bevel?

A

at axiopulpal line angle

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6
Q

When we place the gingival bevel at the axiopulpal line angle, this allows for:

A

increased resistance to fracture of isthmus of restoration

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of a class II?

A

Lack of gingival bevel

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8
Q

When and why would we extend margins of the box portion of preparation?

A

Sharp axiopulpal line angle (this is why we bevel it)

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9
Q

Appropriate exit angles of buccal, lingual, and gingival walls of amalgam:

A

90 degrees on all

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10
Q

Appropriate exit angles of buccal, lingual, and gingival walls of composite:

A

buccal & lingual- flare greater than 90 degrees
gingival- 90 degrees

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11
Q

when would you not need to place a gingival bevel?

A

once you get into deeper preparations when enamel is extremely thin or you’re into dentin or cementum (bc no enamel rods are present here)

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12
Q

Where do you place retention grooves in a box?

A

-buccal-axial line angle and lingual-axial line angle
- just inside the DEJ, entirely in dentin

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13
Q

When placing a retention groove into a box, the groove does not go into the:

A

gingival floor

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14
Q

Label this photo:

A

A: gingival-axial line angle
B: buccal-gingival line angle
C: buccal-gingival axial point angle
D: buccal axial line angle (w/optional retention groove)
E: axiopulpal line angle
F: lingual-axial line angle (w/optional retention groove)
G: lingual-gingival axial point angle
H: lingual-gingival line angle

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15
Q

List the advantages of composite resin: (6)

A
  1. esthetics
  2. conservation of tooth structure
  3. bonding
  4. no metal
  5. can be economical (vs. crown/ inlays/onlays)
  6. prep more forgiving (restoration is NOT!!!)
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16
Q

Why is it advantageous that composite resin involves bonding? (2)

A
  1. reduced micro leakage and recurrent decay
  2. increased retention
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17
Q

Why is it advantageous that composite resin does not incorporate metal? (3)

A
  1. no mercury discussion
  2. no corrosion
  3. no galvanic shock
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18
Q

List order of expense from least to greatest:
- crown & inlays/onlay
- amalgam
- composites

A
  • amalgam
  • composites
  • crowns & inlays/onlays
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19
Q

What are the disadvantages of composite resin restorations? (9)

A
  1. low modulus of elasticity
  2. porous
  3. more technique sensitive placement
  4. more time-consuming placement
  5. microleakage
  6. pullback- can create voids
  7. expensive compared to amalgam
  8. can’t place in bulk
  9. can’t support occlusion
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20
Q

What do we mean by “composite cannot support occlusion”

A

must have tooth supported occlusion on marginal ridges and cusp tips)

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21
Q

What is the purpose of using a wedge in a class II preparation?

A

closes the margin at the gingival of the box and prevents overhang

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22
Q

When using a tofflemire retainer band the narrower opening faces:

A

gingivally

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23
Q

What way should the opening slits of the tofflemire face?

A

gingival

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24
Q

Why should the opening slits of the tofflemire face gingivally?

A

so when you release the tofflemire it comes off of the tooth towards the occlusal surface

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25
Q

How to troubleshoot errors in proximal box restorations: (2)

A
  1. choose correct wedge (size/shape) and properly seat it
  2. Properly condensing amalgam
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26
Q

Properly condensing amalgam prevents:

A

voids into point angles

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27
Q

Choosing the correct size and shape of wedge, as well as correct placement of wedges ensures:

A

good contour of gingival margin

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28
Q

This instrument should be used in a proximal box restoration to press and wiggle into internal line angles (BG and LG), against margin areas, and contact areas of the band.

A

Hollenback condenser

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29
Q

What instrument should be used for the pre-carve burnishing in an amalgam proximal box restoration?

A

side of hollenback condenser or large ball burnisher

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30
Q

What instrument should be used in a proximal box restoration for defining occlusal embrasure by using at a 45 degree angle

A

explorer

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31
Q

An explorer can be used to define the occlusal embrasure of a proximal box restoration by holding at:

A

45 degree angle

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32
Q

What instrument is used for forming grooves and carving the marginal ridge in a proximal box amalgam restoration?

A

Hollenback carver

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33
Q

What instrument should be used to redefine the occlusal embrasure?

A

explorer

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34
Q

In a class II restoration what instrument should be used to-
A: carve excess off the buccal and lingual walls of box
B: break corner off of marginal ridge
C: carve embrasures

A

hollenback carver

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35
Q

In a class II restoration what instrument should be used to-

A: carve away gingival margin excess
B: instruments drawn laterally or occlusally

A

hollenback carver held obliquely OR wiland carver OR 34-35 jaquette scaler

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36
Q

In a class II restoration what instrument should be used when amalgam is partially set and need to adjust occlusion:

A

discoid carver

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37
Q

In a class II restoration what instrument should be used to redefine groove anatomy after doing final occlusal adjustment?

A

hollenback carver or cleoid carver

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38
Q

In a class II restoration what instrument should be used to smooth surfaces and bottom of grooves?

A

beavertail burnisher

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39
Q

Bond agent that does NOT require a separate etch step?

A

self etch

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40
Q

Requires etch, rinse, then bond agent:

A

total etch

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41
Q

When you only etch the enamel, avoiding dentin, (20-30s)

A

selective etch

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42
Q

A selective etch as opposed to a complete etch may:

A

reduce sensitivity

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43
Q

What should be avoided when doing a selective etch?

A

dentin

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44
Q

How long should the etch stay on in a selective etch?

A

20-30s

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45
Q

Etch placed all over the enamel and dentin:

A

complete etch

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46
Q

Describe the process of a complete etch:

A
  1. etch is placed over the enamel first for 20-30s
  2. etch is placed on the dentin for 15-20s
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47
Q

How should composite resin be placed?

A

incrementally not exceeding 2mm at a time (NO BULK FILL)

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48
Q

uncured layer of composite in which oxygen interferes with polymerization:

A

oxygen inhibited layer

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49
Q

When is the oxygen inhibited layer removed?

A

removed with finishing and polishing

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50
Q

The oxygen inhibited layer is a ____ thick layer which on the outside allows addition and wetting of subsequent layers of ____.

A

15 microns thick; composite

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51
Q

The oxygen inhibited layer just cured is ____ % ____ to co-polymerize with the new material

A

50% unreacted methacrylate groups

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52
Q

In an older restoration (no unreacted methacrylate groups), the repair strength =

A

50% original restoration (roughen with diamond)

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53
Q

Excavators and chisels are considered ____ instruments

A

cutting

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54
Q

Amalgam condensers, mirrors, probes, and explorers are considered ____ instruments

A

non-cutting

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55
Q

on the end of a non-cutting instrument, what is present?

A

face and nib

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56
Q

on the end of a cutting instrument, what is present?

A

Blade with cutting edge

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57
Q

Which instruments are best for different stages of carving anatomy:

A
  1. plastic instrument
  2. hollenback carver
  3. optrasculpt
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58
Q

instrument used to place and smooth composite on occlusal surface

A

plastic instrument

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59
Q

instrument used to carve anatomy, primarily used for amalgam

A

hollenback carver

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60
Q

instrument used to develop anatomy in composite resin prior to light curing:

A

optrasculpt

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61
Q

After light curing, what should be used to develop anatomy?

A

carbide burs (for finishing)

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62
Q

What is a “swivel”?

A

allows ergonomic manipulation of handpiece between dental unit

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63
Q

Where is the motor located in a handpiece?

A

motor located in actual handpiece

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64
Q

What is the purpose of water when drilling with a handpiece:

A
  1. cools are of contact between bur and tooth structure to prevent pulpal irritation
  2. avoids heat build up and destruction of odontoblastic processes in the dentin (dead tracts)
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65
Q

heat build up causing destruction of odontoblastic processes in the dentin leads to:

A

dead tracts

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66
Q
  • uses steam under pressure
  • 250 degrees F, 15 PSI, 20 min
  • shelves for cassettes
A

autoclave

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67
Q
  • oven-type sterilizer
  • 320 degrees F, 60-120 mins
A

dry heat

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68
Q
  • chemical vapor pressure
  • use chemical solution in pressurized chamber
  • 270 degrees F, 20-40 PSI, 20 min
  • proper ventilation must be installed
A

chemiclave

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69
Q
  • several hours BELOW 100 degrees Celcius
  • proper ventilation must be installed
A

Ethylene oxide

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70
Q

Temp, pressure, and time requirements for autoclave sterilization:

A

250 degrees F, 15 PSI, 20 min

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71
Q

Temp and time requirement for dry heat sterilization:

A

320 degrees F for 60-120 min

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72
Q

Temp, pressure, and time requirements for chemiclave sterilization:

A

270 degrees F, 20-40 PSI, 20 min

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73
Q

Temp and time requirement for ethylene oxide sterilization:

A

several hours below 100 degrees C

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74
Q

the STATIC relationship between incising and masticating surface of the maxillary and mandibular teeth or tooth analogues

A

occlusion

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75
Q

the STATIC AND DYNAMIC contact relationship between occlusal surfaces of teeth during during function:

A

articulation

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76
Q

Occlusion can be described as a ____ relationship.

A

static

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77
Q

Articulation can be described as a ____ relationship.

A

static and dynamic

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78
Q

forces are directed over the long axes of teeth:

A

axial loading

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79
Q

In axial loading, forces are directed:

A

over the long axes of teeth

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80
Q

Type of contacts:

when each functional cusp occlusion in a fossa of the opposing tooth:

A

cup-fossa contacts

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81
Q

Type of contacts:

commonly used for single restorations

A

cusp-marginal ridge contacts

82
Q

Type of contacts:

majority of natural dentitions have this:

A

cusp-marginal ridge contacts

83
Q

Type of contacts:

Not seen a lot in nature:

A

cusp-fossa contacts

84
Q

Type of contacts:

used when restoring both opposing quadrants

A

cusp-fossa

85
Q

Type of contacts:

tooth to tooth arrangement

A

cusp-fossa contacts

86
Q

Type of contacts:

each functional cusp contacts the MR of opposing pair of teeth or fossae of opposing teeth

A

cusp-marginal ridge contacts

87
Q

Type of contacts:

a one tooth to two teeth arrangement:

A

cusp-marginal ridge contacts

88
Q
  • each function cusp occludes in a fossa of the opposing tooth
  • tooth to tooth arrangement
  • used when restoring both opposing qaudrants
  • not seen a lot in nature
A

Cusp-fossa contacts

89
Q

-each functional cusp contact the MR of the opposing pair of teeth or fossae of opposing teeth
- a one tooth to two teeth arrangement
- majority of natural dentitions have this
- commonly used for single restorations

A

Cusp-marginal ridge contacts

90
Q

When comparing cusp-fossae contacts to cusp-marginal ridge contacts, which one is superior?

A

one is not proven better than the other

91
Q

This occlusal relation ship allows for some cusps to occlude onto MRs and others to occlude into fossae:

A

cusp-marginal ridge occlusal relationship

92
Q

This occlusal relationship allows ONLY for each cusp to occlude into one fossae:

A

cusp-fossa relationship

93
Q

key aspects of nutritional counseling for patients with HIGH caries rates:

A
  1. identify sources
  2. reduce frequency and ingestions
94
Q

describe silver diamine fluoride:

A
  • silver in color and used to arrest caries
  • primarily used on children who will lose the primary teeth
  • used on occlusal caries that may be hard to get to
  • very dark color
  • not aesthetically pleasing
95
Q

Fluoride toothpaste should be given to patients with:

A

root caries

96
Q

Enamel with fluoride pH=

A

4.5

97
Q

Clinical presentation:
- no clinically detectable lesion
- dental hard tissue appears normal in color, translucency and gloss

A

Clinical presentation:

98
Q

Sound tooth structure radiographically can be labeled as:

A

E0 or R0 (no radiolucency)

99
Q

Clinical presentation:
- earliest clinical detectable lesion compatible with mild demineralization
- lesion limited to enamel or to shallow demineralization of cementum/dentin
- mildest forms are detected only after drying
- when established and active lesions may be white or brown
- enamel has lost its normal gloss

A

initial

100
Q

If caries are classified as initial, they are visually:

A

noncavitated

101
Q

initial caries radiographically may be labeled as:

A

E1, E2, or D1 (radiolucency may extend into the DEJ or outer 1/3 of the dentin)

102
Q

Clinical presentation:
- visible signs of enamel breakdown
- signs the dentin is moderately demineralized

A

moderate

103
Q

moderate caries may also be classified as:

A

established, early caveated, shallow cavitation or microcavitiation

104
Q

radiographically, moderate caries will be labeled as:

A

D2 (radiolucency extends into middle one-third of dentin)

105
Q

Clinical presentation:
- enamel is fully cavitated
- dentin is exposed
- dentin lesion is deeply/severely demineralized

A

advanced

106
Q

advice caries may also be classified as:

A

speed/disseminated, late cavitated, deep cavitation

107
Q

radiographically advanced caries will be labeled:

A

D3 (radiolucency extends into the inner 1/3 of the dentin)

108
Q

No radiolucency:

A

E0 or R0

109
Q

Radiolucency may extend to the DEJ or outer 1/3 of the dentin:

A

E1, E2, D1

110
Q

radiographs are not reliable for:

A

mild occlusal lesions

111
Q

Radiolucency extends into the middle 1/3 of the dentin:

A

D2

112
Q

Radiolucency extends into the inner 1/3 of dentin:

A

D3

113
Q

What is the brand name for resin infiltration:

A

ICON

114
Q

Resin infiltration is treatment for:

A
  1. initial (incipient) caries
  2. mild fluorosis
  3. white and brown spot lesions
  4. class II
115
Q

Resin infiltration (ICON) can penetrate into:

A

outer third of dentin (d1)

116
Q

resin infiltration (ICON) can be described as

A

microinvasive

117
Q

What resin infiltration is used in our clinic?

A

icon

118
Q

List steps prior to applying resin infiltration (ICON)

A
  1. clean tooth well (pumice)
  2. dry working field (rubber dam)
  3. etch for at least 30 sec 1-3x; rinse and dry well
119
Q

Icon etch is:

A

15% hydrochloric acid gel

120
Q

Icon etch acts as a:

A

“chemical drill”

121
Q

Finishing and polishing a composite restoration:

The occlusal surface is shaped with a ____ or ____ finishing bur or similarly shaped finishing ____.

A

round or oval carbide; finishing diamond

122
Q

What additional instrument is needed to attach a finishing disc to the handpiece?

A

SOFLEX mandrel

123
Q

Cause of dentinal sensitivity:

A

hydrodynamic theory of pain transmission

124
Q

Hydrodynamic theory of pain transmission:

dentinal tubules are filled with ___ and wrapped in ____ and ____

A

odontoblastic processes; afferent nerves; dentinal fluid

125
Q

Hydrodynamic theory of pain transmission:

when enamel or cementum is removed during cavity preparation, the ____ of dentin is lost, which allows ___ in the tubules. This movement causes distortions in the afferent nerve endings, hence pain.

A

external seal; small fluid movement

126
Q

Hydrodynamic theory of pain transmission:

_____ changes within the tubules caused by ____ can cause pain to the pulp through the fluid movement within the tubules

A

hydrostatic pressure; external stimuli

127
Q

What are examples of external stimuli that can cause changes in hydrostatic pressure leading to pain?

A

temp change, high speed handpiece, air drying, osmotic changes from various chemicals, caries

128
Q

Used when a deep carious lesion occurs and there is no clinical or radiographic evidence of irreversible pulp damage:

A

indirect pulp cap

129
Q

Evidence of pulp damage that is likely irreversible:

A
  • history of spontaneous pain
  • heat sensitivity receive by cold
  • P.A. lesion
130
Q

For an indirect pulp cap, the tooth should be:

A
  1. completely asymptomatic
  2. show signs of reversible pulpitis
131
Q

If a patient is experiencing moderate cold sensitivity with pain subsiding within about 15 seconds, this is evidence of ____, and we would use a ____.

A

reversible pulpitis; INDIRECT pulp cap

132
Q

caries are usually ____ than they appear on the radiograph

A

deeper

133
Q

The objective of an INDIRECT pulp cap is to:

A

avoid a direct pulp exposure

134
Q

What are the two approaches that might be termed “indirect pulp cap” the:

A
  1. two-appointment approach
  2. single appointment approach
135
Q

Describe the sequence of steps at the first appointment in the two-appointment approach of an indirect pulp cap:

A
  1. All caries removed from all areas except the deepest, nearest pulp
  2. Leave last bit of infected dentin to avoid pulp exposure
  3. Cover remaining infected dentin with calcium hydroxide (Life or Dycal) and then glass ionomer (Vitrebond)
  4. Place a temporary restoration (IRM)
  5. It may be acceptable to leave some undermined enamel (temporarily) to help hold in the temporary restoration
136
Q

Describe the sequence of steps at the second appointment in the two-appointment approach of an indirect pulp cap:

A
  1. Remove temporary restoration, glass ionomer, & calcium hydroxide
  2. Carefully remove infected dentin (soft, leathery caries)
  3. Leave the affected dentin (dry, powdery caries)
137
Q

How long should you allow in between the first and second appointment in the two appointment approach to indirect pulp capping:

A

allows 6-12 weeks

138
Q

Why should you allow 6-12 weeks between the first and second appointment in the two appointment approach to indirect pulp capping?

A

Allows the body to form reparative dentin in the site near exposure

139
Q

The desired result in the 6-12 week period in two appointment approach =

A

dentin bridge formation

140
Q

In two appointment approach to indirect pulp capping, at the end of the 12 weeks, confirm that the patient is ____ and that the tooth is ___

A

asymptomatic; vital

141
Q

In the two-appointment approach, research has suggested that if the cavity has been well-sealed during the 12 week interval, and that if the patient is asymptomatic and the tooth tests vital, the tooth may:

A

not need to be re-entered

142
Q

What is the benefit of not re-entering the tooth if the criteria is met?

A

avoids risking a pup exposure

143
Q

What is the theory behind the two-appointment approach to indirect pulp capping?

A

food supply to the bacteria is cut off by the well sealed restoration so they will die or become dormant

144
Q

Where does confusion arise with the 2-appointment approach to indirect pulp capping?

A

clinically impossible to determine infected dentin from affected dentin

145
Q

When are direct pulp caps used?

A

when small pulpal exposure occurs during cavity prep

146
Q

For a direct pulp cap, a thin layer of ____ (____) is floated over the exposed pulp.

A

calcium hydroxide (Dycal)

147
Q

For a direct pulp cap, a thin layer of calcium hydroxide (Dycal) is floated over the exposed pulp and then a layer of ____ is placed over the calcium hydroxide. This may help stimulate the pulp to form ____ which can produce a ____ across the exposure site.

A

glass ionomer (vitrebond); secondary odontoblasts; dentin bridge

148
Q

A direct pulp cap is most successful when the exposure is ___ rather than ____.

A

mechanical; carious

149
Q

A direct pulp cap is most successful the the pit is ____ and the exposure site is less than ____.

A

young; less than 0.5mm

150
Q

A direct pulp cap is most successful if bleeding at the site is ___ and there is no ____ or ___.

A

controlled; no pus or serous exudate

151
Q

A direct pulp cap is most successful if the area has not been:

A

contaminated by saliva

152
Q

A direct pulp cap is most successful if there have been little or no ____ to the ____

A

mechanical damage to the pulp tissue

153
Q

In a direct pulp cap, ____ may cause canals to calcify over time

A

calcium hydroxide (CaOH)

154
Q

When should you NOT rely on a direct pulp cap?

A

If the tooth requires crown to adequately restore

155
Q

Direct pulp caps occur better at the _____ than they do on an exposure on the ____ (as from a class V lesion)

A

tips of pulp horns; side of a pulp chamber

156
Q

Direct pulp caps are more effective on ____ patients with ___ pulp chambers and ____ root canals that provide better ____ to the area where we are trying induce dentin bridge formation.

A

young patients; large pulp chambers; open root canals; circulation

157
Q

If the tooth will require to adequately restore it, then you should:

A

NOT RELY ON A DIRECT PULP CAP

158
Q

A pulp tissue’s reaction to stimuli is related to its response to irritation by:

A
  1. mechanical stimuli
  2. thermal stimuli
  3. chemical stimuli
  4. bacterial stimuli
159
Q

The deposition of reparative dentin by secondary odontoblasts lining the pulp cavity acts as a ____ against ____ and various other irritating factors.

A

protective barrier; caries

160
Q

Describe the formation of reparative dentin:

A

continuous and slow proces

161
Q

Describe the timeline of formation of reparative dentin:

A

It takes 100 days to form a reparative dentin layer of 0.12 mm thick

162
Q

In cases of severe irritation, the pulp responses by an ____ similar to any other soft tissue injury. However, the inflammation may become ___ and can result in ___.

A

inflammatory reaction; irreversible; death of the pulp

163
Q

Death of the pulp due to an inflammatory reaction can occur because of the ___, ____ structure of the dentin, limiting the inflammatory response and the ability of the pulp to ____.

A

confined, rigid structure; recover

164
Q

Many teeth have pulpal sensitivity due to caries or following cavity preparation and restoration.

This would be an example of:

A

reversible pulpitis

165
Q

A twinge of pain may be due to sugar, cold, or acid from caries first contacting dentin. Pain lasting a few seconds may be due to the irritant continuous present of applied repeatedly.

This would be an example of:

A

reversible pulpitis

166
Q

reversible pulpitis causes an increased ___ and ____ (____) and inflammation of the pulp.

A

blood flow and volume (hyperemia)

167
Q

As long as an irritant, such as touching an ice stick to the tooth causes pain that lingers no more than 10-15 seconds after removal, it’s called ____ can can be treated with a ____.

A

reversible pulpitis; restoration

168
Q

When pain is either spontaneous, or – if elicited by an irritant– lingers more than 15 seconds, _____ has occurred and resolution by operative dentistry treatment is ____.

A

infection of the pulp; usually not possible

169
Q

Treatment that is advised for irreversible pulpitis

A

root canal

170
Q

results when irreversible pulpitis is left untreated:

A

pulpal necrosis

171
Q

characterized by spontaneous, continuous, throbbing pain or pain elicited by heat that can be relived by cold, and then, later, with no response to any stimulus:

A

pulpal necrosis

172
Q

As inflammation and infection move beyond the ____, the tooth may become ____.

A

root apex; sensitive to percussion

173
Q

Alternative causes of dental pain that are NOT pulpal in origin: (3)

A
  1. maxillary sinusitis
  2. cracked tooth
  3. occlusal trauma
174
Q

Usually manifests as cold sensitivity, and sometimes spontaneous pain, in the maxillary posterior teeth. Often hard to isolate to a single tooth.

A

maxillary sinusitis

175
Q

Usually manifests as cold sensitivity, or a sudden –usually unreproducible– pain when chewing.

A

cracked tooth

176
Q

Instrument that can often elicit the pain when placed between the teeth in the central groove areas or at the tips of individual cusps.

A

tooth sleuth

177
Q

Cracks in a tooth can sometimes progress into the pulp chamber and cause:

A

pulp necrosis

178
Q

Tooth cracks can sometimes be seen externally with a ____, or it may be necessary to remove restorations to see them.

A

fiber optic light

179
Q

Treatment for cracked tooth:

A

crowning

180
Q

Usually manifests as cold sensitivity, or pain with chewing. Slight tooth movements when the teeth are clenched then moved from side to side may be seen, but not always.

A

Occlusal trauma- fremitis

181
Q

Occlusal trauma pains/fremitis can often be relieved by:

A

occlusal adjustments

182
Q

neutral position for dentist includes:

describe head position:

A

head at 0-20 degree tilt; ears over sholders

183
Q

neutral position for dentist includes:

Shoulders over _____, and ___ relaxed at sides

A

hips; elbows

184
Q

neutral position for dentist includes:

forearms should be _____ or slightly ___

A

parallel to floor; upward

185
Q

neutral position for dentist includes:

describe back position:

A

slight curve in lower back/lordosis

186
Q

neutral position for dentist includes:

Hip angle ____, ideally ____ (hips higher than ____)

A

greater than 90 degrees; 105-125 degrees; knees

187
Q

neutral position for dentist includes:

describe foot position

A

feet flat on floor in tripod position

188
Q

CTD stands for:

A

cumulative trauma disorder

189
Q

What is the main cause of MSD in dentistry?

A

cumulative trauma disorders

190
Q

The primary cause of disability among dentists:

A

cumulative trauma disorder

191
Q

In CTD, microtrauma occurs on the ___ level, with damage that ____

A

cellular level; accumulates

192
Q

The greatest strength of dental material is usually _____, while the weakest strength is ____

A

compressive strength; tensile strength

193
Q

To resist masticatory (chewing) stresses without fracture

A

resistance

194
Q
  • walls parallel or perpendicular to forces
  • rounded line and point angles
  • flat and smooth walls
  • giving bulk to restoration
A

factors contributing to resistance

195
Q

To retain the restoration securely during function:

A

retention

196
Q
  • wall convergence (undercut)
  • taller wall
  • dovetail
A

factors contributing to retention

197
Q

Convergence of walls is especially important in:

A

amalgam

198
Q

Taller walls will increase ____ (resists the pull of sticky food)

A

frictional retention

199
Q

What is the purpose of a dovetail?

A

prevents tipping and proximal displacement

200
Q

Form that allows you to access the defect:

A

convenience form

201
Q

Allows you to see what you are doing (ideally with perfect ergonomics)

A

convenience form

202
Q

The cavosurface is the junction of ____ cavity wall and the ___ surface of the tooth

A

prepared; external

operative dentistry (5 decks)

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