comprehensive Flashcards

1
Q

Hydrofluoric acid treatment

A

fluoride ions bind to calcium so treat with topical calcium gel or intradermal/intraarterial calcium gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Phenol burn treatment

A

polyethylene glycol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Phosphorus burn treatment

A

stain with 0.5% copper sulfate and surgically remove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Silver sulfadiazine (silvadene)

A

side effect transient leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mafenide acetate (sulfamylon)

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
side effect acidosis
penetrates deeply
painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Silver nitrate

A

side effect hypokalemia, hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mucormycosis

A

life threatening necrotizing non-purulent infection in diabetics. Zygomycetes right-angle nonseptate branching hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Candida

A

septate nonbranching hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum

A

opportunistic in immunocompromised pulmonary infections. Tiny yeast with occasional unequal bud formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Anthracycline agent extravasation (doxorubicin)

A

IV dexrazoxane within 6 hours or topical dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Papaverine

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitor induces increase in cyclic adenosine monophosphate (AMP) which causes smooth muscles to relax in vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Imiquimod (Aldara)

A

immune response enhancer that stimulates host cytokine production and induces apoptosis of tumor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

5-fluorouracil

A

topical chemotherapeutic agent that inhibits DNA synthesis by blocking methylation of deoxyuridylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pilomatricoma (pilomatrixoma or calcifying epithelioma of Malherbe)

A

benign, calcifying tumor of the hair appendages, young (<20 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sebaceous nevus (Jadassohn nevus)

A

waxy textured skin patch on scalp, face or neck
often present at birth
10-15% transform to BCC
well-circumscribed, yellowiish plaque, becomes verrucous and nodular at puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Trichoepithelioma

A

neoplasms of follicular differentiation. Usually multiple, yellowish-pink, translucent papules symmetrically on cheeks, eyelids and nasolabial area. Ok to observe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Eccrine poroma

A

sole of foot or palm under 40 years. Firm papules less than 2cm. Pedunculated with normal or erythematous color and firm. Excise.

18
Q

Cylindroma

A

firm, nodular, pink-colored lesion face or scalp. Cylindromas are benign adnexal tumors showing an eccrine and an apocrine differentiation. They are found most commonly on the scalp and face, and are more common in women. Solitary cylindromas are generally sporadic in nature. Multiple cylindromas can be seen in patients with Brooke-Spiegler syndrome as an autosomal dominant trait with variable penetrance. Cylindromas may undergo malignant transformation, and therefore surgical excision is typically recommended, with close postoperative follow-up given high recurrence rates.

19
Q

indication for rigid fixation in chest reconstruction

A

defect greater than 5cm or more than 5 ribs resected.

20
Q

z-plasty

A

30 degrees increase length 25%
45 degrees increase length 50%
60 degrees increase length 75%
75 degrees increase 100%

21
Q

collagen types

A

type I: most abundant (90%); dominant in skin, tendon and bone
type II: cornea and hyaline cartilage
type III: vessel and bowl walls, uterus, and skin
type IV: basement membrane

22
Q

phases of wound healing

A

inflammatory: day 1 - 6
fibroproliferative: day 4 - week 3
maturation/remodeling: week 3 - 1 year

23
Q

incision tensile strength

A
1 week – 5%
2 weeks – 10%
3 weeks – 20%
4 weeks – 40%
6 weeks – 80%
24
Q

hypersensitivity reactions

A
Type I (allergy): immediate release of IgE mediated release of histamine, and other vasoactive mediators resulting in manifestation within minutes.  Examples asthma and anaphylaxis. 
Type 2 (cytotoxic-antibody dependent): binding IgM or IgG to the host cell resulting in membrane attach complex (MAC) destruction. Examples: thrombocytopenia, Goodpasture, membranous nephropathy
Type 3 (immune complex-mediated): IgG binding to circulating antigen resulting in formation of immune complex.  Complexes collect in vasculature, joints and kidneys resulting in local destruction. Example rheumatoid arthritis, lupus serum sickness
Type 4 (delayed type hypersensitivity) activation of TH1 helper T cells by antigen presenting cell.  Establish immune response memory so when activated again TH1 cells activate macrophage-mediated cellular damage.  Examples: chronic transplant rejection, contact dermatitis, multiple sclerosis.
25
Q

Types of rejection

A

Hyperacute: minutes to hours from preformed antibodies. Must remove graft

Acute humeral: 3-7 days antibody and compliment mediated. Treat with plasmapheresis and antiB cell reagents.

Acute cellular: 3-6 months mediated by T cells activated by donor antigens. Increase immunosuppressive medications or anti lymphocytic antibodies

Chronic rejection: months to years both antibody and cell mediated

26
Q

Sensory receptors

A

C sensory fibers: Deep, non-localizable pain. Respond to hypoxia, hypoglycemia, muscle metabolic products, touch. Release neuropeptides such as substance P and calcitonin-gene-related peptide (CGRP) which may cause autonomic disturbance in CPRS.

Ia sensory: proprioceptors in muscle to monitor length

Delta fibers: carry cold, pressure and specific area of pain. High conduction velocity.

27
Q

prednisone

A

inhibits NF-kB, thereby inhibiting gene expression and T-cell activation
side effects: hypertension, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, weight gain, osteoporosis

28
Q

cyclosporine

A

forms complex with cyclophilin and inhibits calcineurin -> inhibition of gene expression of IL-2, etc and Tcell activation
Side effects: nephrotoxicity (less than tacrolimus), neurotoxicity, hypertension, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism

29
Q

tacrolimus (prograf)

A

forms complex with FKBP12 and inhibits calcineurin -> inhibition of gene expression of IL-2, etc and Tcell activation
Side effects: nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, hypertension, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism

30
Q

sirolimus (rapamycin)

A

forms complex with FKBP12 and inhibits mTOR -> inhibition of response to IL-2 and Tcell proliferation
side effects: lung toxicity, hyperlipidemia

31
Q

azathioprine (imuran)

A

metabolized to 6-MP by liver -> inhibits purine synthesis, thereby inhibiting lymphocyte proliferation
side effects: bone marrow suppresion, GI symptoms

32
Q

mycophenolate mofetil (cellcept)

A

inhibits purine synthesis, thereby inhibiting lymphocyte proliferation
side effects: bone marrow suppresion (less than azathioprine), GI symptoms

33
Q

biologic immunosuppressants

A
  1. antithymocyte globulin: polyclonal antibodies from horse/rabbit -> block Tcell membrane proteins -> Tcell depletion and altered function
    side effects: cytokine release syndrome, serum sickness, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
  2. muromonab-CD3 (OKT3): monoclonal anti-CD3 -> initial activation of Tcell with cytokine release, followed by decreased function and Tcell depletion
    side effects: severe cytokine release syndrome (pulmonary edema, hypotension)
  3. alemtuzumab (campath-1H): monoclonal anti-CD52 -> depletion of Tcell and Bcells, NKCs, and monocytes/macrophages
    side effects: mild cytokine release syndrome, bone marrow suppresion, autoimmune anemia/thrombocytopenia
  4. basiliximab: chimeric monoclonal anti-IL-2R (CD25) -> prevents IL2 mediated activation
    side effects: hypersensitivity reaction
  5. daclizumab: humanized monoclonal antiIL-2R (CD25) -> prevents IL-2-mediated activation
    side effects: hypersensitivity reaction
34
Q

propofol

A
anticonvulsant
cardiac and respiratory depressant
bronchodilator
antiemetic
antipruritic
prompt recovery
motor activity (nonepileptic myoclonia)
35
Q

ketamine

A
dissociative anesthesia (analgesia and amnesia)
maintains respiration
bronchodilation
increase oral secretions
hypertension
36
Q

etomidate

A

induction of hemodynamically unstable patients (minimal cardiovascular depression)
myoclonic movements
anticonvulsant
high incidence of nausea and vomiting

37
Q

inhalation agents

A

Nitrous oxide: diffuses into nitrogen-filled (air-filled spaces to increase pressure (eg tension pneumothorax)

isoflurane: coronary vasodilation
desflurane: laryngospasm, rapid emergence
sevoflurane: best for face mask induction, potent bronchodilator

38
Q

immunotherapy for melanoma

A

ipilimumab: monoclonal antibody receptor CTLA-4, stimulates Tcells, high risk immune related reactions
verurafenib: BRAF kinase inhibitor
imatinib: tumors with cKIT mutation
interleukin-2

39
Q

beckers nevus

A

adolescents
shoulders of males
tan to dark brown, irregular margins, hair, large

40
Q

margins SCC

A

4mm most

6mm if >2cm or SQ invasion

41
Q

tumors muscle origin

A
Leiomyoma: 
- benign
- smooth muscle (involuntary)
- erector pill of hair follicles
- excise
Leiomyosacroma: 
- smooth muscle (involuntary)
- erector pill of hair follicles
- death by hematogenous spread 1/3
Rhabdomyosarcoma
- skeletal muscle
- agressive, hematogenous or lymphatic spread
- most common sarcoma children 
- chemotherapy