complex final Flashcards

1
Q

Pulm: Describe the expected finding of a chest tube suction control chamber and water seal chamber

A

Gentle, continuous bubbling of the suction control chamber is normal and expected. Bubbling in the water seal chamber during exhalation or coughing indicates that air is being pulled from the pleural space. The bubbling should not be excessive or continuous. If it does, there is an air leak somewhere in the chest tube

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2
Q

Pulm: Describe why a patient with a spontaneous pneumothorax is at risk of developing a tension pneumothorax

A

Air in the pleural space compresses the vessels in the chest cavity and compromises blood return to the heart. As more air accumulates, there is greater risk of displacing the trachea (tension pneumothorax). This is an emergency.

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3
Q

Pulm: Describe the rationale for placing a patient who was recently extubated in the semi-fowler’s position

A

Patients who are extubated are at high risk for airway compromise due to the trauma in the airway. The semi-fowler’s position is safest for the patient because it maximizes ventilation and comfort for the patient

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4
Q

Pulm: Describe the circumstances and rationale for placing a patient on a specialty bed that rotates to prone position

A

Patients with ARDS, COVID-19, and other profound respiratory compromise benefit from frequently being placed in the prone position. This promotes gas exchange and decreases the risk of secretions which can cause other complications

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5
Q

Pulm: Discuss the rationale of performing high quality oral care for mechanically ventilated patients

A

Oral care should be performed using a suction toothbrush at least every 12 hours on patients who are mechanically ventilated in order to prevent Ventilator Acquired Pneumonia.

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6
Q

Pulm: Explain the post-op priorities to conserve lung health

A

Ambulate early and often

Turn, cough, deep breath

Use incentive spirometer at 10 times per hour

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7
Q

Describe the rationale for prioritizing airway management when a patient is moved into prone position

A

The process of moving a patient into prone position places risk to the vulnerable lines and tubes

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8
Q

Pulm: Describe symptoms of pulmonary embolism and how a PE is diagnosed

A

Patient’s with a new onset PE will manifest with symptoms like dyspnea, diaphoresis, and signs of hypoxia diagnosed with a CXR, ABGs, and an EKG to rule out underlying cardiac problems

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9
Q

Describe why a nurse might use an ambu bag to manage a patient on mechanical ventilation.

A

A nurse may use an ambu bag to mainain an artifical airway of a patient with mechanical ventilation when they are transporting to another department and when a ventilator malfunctions and a respiratory therapist is preparing an alternative ventilator for the patient

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10
Q

Cardio: What is Mean Arterial Pressure and how is it calculated?

A

Used to assess perfusion pressure

Normal: 70-100 mm Hg

<70 indicates poor tissue perfusion: decrease urine output, mental status change, things are changing in trend poorly

low 70s are worth notifying doctor over

Calculating MAP:
SBP + (2xDBP)/3

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11
Q

Cardio: Explain why defibrillation takes priority over any other intervention when a patient is in ventricular fibrillation

A

The greatest risk to the client is death from a lack of cardiac output. Ventricular fibrillation is a lethal rhythm in which the ventricles are in a quivering pattern and there is no atrial activity. Defibrillation is essential to resolve ventricular fibrillation promptly and convert the rhythm to restore cardiac output. The nurse should follow defibrillation with cardiopulmonary resuscitation and repeated defibrillation, if necessary, to convert the ventricular fibrillation into a sustainable rhythm.

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12
Q

Cardio: Explain the difference between V. Tach with a pulse and pulseless V. Tach

A

V. Tach with a pulse is typically intermittent and the patient should be observed and treated for symptoms. Pulseless V. Tach is a shockable rhythm and defibrillation is the priority action

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13
Q

Cardio: Describe why pulmonary embolism is a high risk complication of atrial fibrillation

A

Altered atrial contractions can cause blood pooling and thrombus formation. The client is at risk for developing a pulmonary embolism or embolic stroke. The client should monitor and report immediately manifestations, such as shortness of breath, or neurological changes.

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14
Q

Cardio: What specific assessment must be done before administering Digoxin and why?

A

Digoxin decreases the heart rate, so the nurse should count the apical pulse for at least 1 min before administering. The nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider if the client’s heart rate is below 60/min or if a change in heart rhythm is detected.

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15
Q

Cardio: Describe the use of dopamine for left ventricular failure

A

Dopamine is a pressor. When dopamine has a therapeutic effect, it causes vasoconstriction peripherally and increases systolic blood pressure. It helps to increase cardiac output and urine output.

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16
Q

Cardio: State the arrhythmias that are shockable and describe why defibrillation is the priority action

A

Ventricular Fibrillation and Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia

Both of these are incompatible with life because there is virtually no cardiac output due to the left ventricle not squeezing efficiently.

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17
Q

Cardio: Describe the characteristics of Atrial Fibrillation

A

In A. Fib, there are multiple foci of electrical stimulation in the atria which makes the isometric line of the ECG appear squiggly and without a visible P wave. The QRS complex is present because occasional beats are fully conducted.

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18
Q

Cardio: Describe why Amiodarone is the treatment of choice for a patient who converts into ventricular tachycardia but has a pulse

A

Ventricular tachycardia with a pulse is not defibrillated nor is CPR started. Pacing is not indicated. The rhythm will be treated with antiarrhythmics

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19
Q

Cardio: Describe vagal maneuvers and why you would use them

A

Vagal maneuvers refer to actions that stimulate the vagus nerve and causes the heart rate to slow down. Things like baring down and carotid stimulation are considered vagal maneuvers and are used for patients with stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

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20
Q

Cardio: Describe the priority nursing action for a patient in asystole and why

A

A patient in asystole should be given high-quality CPR as a priority. Defribrillation is not indicated for asystole because there is no electrical activity.

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21
Q

Cardio: State proper delivery of adenosine for tachycardic arrhythmias

A

Adenosine must be delivered in a controlled environment such as an ICU setting where advanced cardiac life support resources are readily available.

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22
Q

Cardio: Describe the rationale for using IV amiodarone

A

Amiodarone is used as an antiarrhythmic for maintenance of normal rhythms

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23
Q

Pulm: Signs of respiratory stress post extubation

A

stidor: high pitch whistling sound while taking a breath

respirations either increase or decrease intensely

increased heart rate

cyanosis

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24
Q

Pulm: Respiratory acidosis

A

Respiratory acidosis occurs when everything SLOWS down. High CO2 combined with low pH.

Low and slow RR

Sleep apnea, head trauma “knocked out,” post-operative, pneumonia, COPD or asthma attack

Drugs = CNS depressants – opioid overdose, alcohol intoxication, benzodiazepines

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25
Q

Pulm: Respiratory alkalosis

A

Respiratory alkolosis occurs when everthing SPEEDS up. Low CO2 and high pH.

Fast RR

Panic attack

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26
Q

Pulm: Metabolic alkalosis

A

Metabolic alkalosis occurs when the normal acids in the body are depleted. High bicarb and high pH.

vomiting, NGT suctioning

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27
Q

Pulm: Metabolic acidosis

A

Metabolic acidosis occurs when acid is NOT excreted normally like in renal failure or when the base is depleted like with diarrhea. Low bicarb and and low acid.

Diarrhea, renal failure, DKA

28
Q

Pulm: Compensation

A

if pH is in normal range, then it is fully compensated.

If the pH is not in the normal range, it’s uncompensated.

Partially compensated means that while the pH may not be in range, both the lungs and kidneys are working on getting things back to normal

What happens when the pH is normal and both the PaCO2 and bicarb are abnormal? Well, we know it’s fully compensated and we know we are out of balance, so how do we know who “wins”… on the range of normal pH, which side is leaning more toward? That’s how you know if you have acidosis or alkalosis and whether is respiratory or metabolic

29
Q

Neuro: Describe the characteristics of Cushing’s Triad

A

Cushing’s triad refers to a set of signs that are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), or increased pressure in the brain. Cushing’s triad consists of bradycardia, irregular respirations, and a widened pulse pressure

Seen in patients with increased ICP and TBIs

30
Q

Neuro: Describe early and late signs of increased intracranial pressure

A

Early: Restlessness, agitation, change in level of consciousness, mental status change, vomiting without nausea

Late: irregular breathing, seizures, posturing, fixed & dilated pupils, coma, cushing’s triad

31
Q

Neuro: Describe the use of Mannitol for management of ICP including side effects

A

Mannitol –> osmotic diuretic –> pulls fluid into peripheral space

risk for edema in cardiac area

32
Q

Neuro: Explain the ICPS acronym for use of a patient with an ICP monitor

A

ICPS is the acronym used to remember ways to prevent spikes in intracranial pressure

I- immobilize the C-spine

C- keep CO2 low in order to prevent vasodilation

P- keep head of bed 30-45 degrees

S- limit the amount of times you suction, hyperventilate when you do suction, and limit attempt to less than 10 seconds.

33
Q

Cardio: Perfusion in arrhythmias

A

A-Fib: preload in atria affected

SVTs: the heart doesn’t get fully charged – almost instant effect on cardiac output

34
Q

Cardio: Response to arrhythmias

A

A-fib and A-flutter: cardioversion, amiodarone!!!, anticoagulants, antiarrhythmics

SVT: vagal maneuvers if symptomatic (bearing down, massage carotid – stimualtes vagus nerve), adenosine!!! (rapid push, rapid flush)

V-tach: check for pulse – with pulse: amniodarole!!! notify doc, cardiovert
pulseless: high quality CPR, defib

V-fib: CPR, defib, call code

Asystole: CPR, call a code

35
Q

Cardio: Medications to treat arrhythmias

A

amiodarone: antiarrhythmic for A-fib and A-flutter

atropine: symptomatic!! sinus bradycardia

adenosine: SVT

36
Q

Cardio: cath-lab post op

A

STEMI patients go to cath lab – most likely going through femoral artery

prevent complications: affected line has! to stay straight/flat for 6-8 hours; monitor pulses distal to insertion site – if there is a slow bleed, hematoma, internal clotting the distal pulses will be affected; monitor site temp; monitor sensation

37
Q

Cardio: SATA things that affect cardiac output

A

Endocarditis, pericarditis, arrhythmias

38
Q

Neuro: Describe levels of consciousness using the Glascow Coma Scale (GCS)

A

Used often to notice a trend, used objectively to describe/assess depth and duration of impaired consciousness

The higher the score on the GCS, the less severe the impact of an injury.

13-15 = mild

9-12 = moderate

3-8 = severe

A decrease in the GCS score is a priority for reporting to the doctor because it indicates a decrease in level of consciousness

39
Q

Neuro: Hemorrhagic Stroke

A

Biggest sign – worst headache ever

Treatment has! to be surgery

NEVER use TPA for hemorrhagic stroke

40
Q

Neuro: Ischemic stroke (embolic)

A

Head CT required to confirm ischemic

TPA ideal treatment – based on time: within 4 hours of last known well time, within 60 minutes of in the door time

If you don’t know last well time, you can’t really do TPA

41
Q

Neuro: medications used for CVA

A

TPA, blood thinners

42
Q

Lines: Describe the process of using a central line for medication delivery or blood draw.

A

When using a central line, you must use aseptic technique, check that the dressing is pristine and the site is free of signs of infection. Before using the line, scrub the hub for at least 15 seconds, use a 10cc syringe, and change the cap if blood is drawn.

43
Q

Lines: Describe a normal assessment of an arterial line

A

The extremity distal to the arterial line should be warm to the touch and have sensation that is baseline for the patient. The site should be visible without excessive drainage and the surrounding tissue should be soft. Any altered findings should be reported immediately

44
Q

Lines: State the concept of the transducer used in arterial line pressure measurement.

A

The transducer is the part of the arterial line that ensures proper pressure readings through its connection to the closed pressure system. In order for accurate pressures to be seen, the transducer must remain at the phlebostatic axis located at midaxillary, 4th intercostal space of the patient.

45
Q

Cardiac: Describe the mechanism of action for Adenosine and what it is used for.

A

Adenosine slows the conduction through the AV and SA nodes, thereby disrupting erratic cardiac electrical activity. It is used in the treatment of SVT that is unresponsive to other methods of conversion. Adenosine must administered with consent from the patient, a physician at the bedside, and defibrillation pads in place.

46
Q

Cardiac: Describe the mechanism of action for Atropine and what is is used for

A

Atropine increases the sympathetic nervous system drive and depresses the parasympathetic drive thereby increasing the heart rate. Atropine can be used to treat symptomatic bradycardia.

47
Q

Lines: Arterial line set up

A

Closed system with pressure

pressure bag that leads to the transducer – located at phlebostatic axis mid axillary 4th intercostal space

if it is not located there, readings will not be accurate

48
Q

Lines: How to assess arterial line

A

Keep dressing pristine!

Be able to visualize the line always

Monitor for unusual swelling, redness, warmth, or pain

Assess pulses distal the art line

49
Q

Lines: Central venous catheters

A

Do not use line unless it is confirmed by x-ray

Pneumothorax risk! listen for decreased or absent breath sounds

It is literally in the superior vena cava

increased risk! for CLABSI

50
Q

Lines: CLABSI prevention

A

hand hygiene

routine dressing changes

scrub the hub!!! preferably with chlorohexadine

mask on, this is a sterile! procedure

maybe ask people to leave the room

51
Q

Lines: Describe what titration of a medication means

A

Titrating medications is the process of adjusting doses to maximize the benefit of medicaitons without adverse effects. Orders for titration are written to meet parameters of lab results and should be adjusted according to orders.

52
Q

Neuro: Complications of spinal cord injuries

A

High-level (closer to the neck) injuries have a higher risk of complications – communication between parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems severed

Autonomic dysreflexia: high blood pressure, low heart rate, anxiety, headache, sweating, skin flushing above injury site

Priority action to eliminate source of stimuli and then treat symptoms caused by condition

Common stimuli include blocked urinary catheter, full bladder, UTI, fecal impaction, tight clothing

53
Q

Neuro: Describe autonomic dysreflexia and the priority actions for treatment

A

Autonomic dysreflexia is a emergent condition that occurs in people with a spinal cord injury occurring at level T5-T6 who are experiencing a stimulus somewhere below the level of injury. Patients present with a sudden increase in blood pressure, decreased heart rate, anxiety, headache, diaphoresis, and skin flushing above the injury site.

54
Q

Hep: Describe why a patient in liver failure may demonstrate change in mentation and involuntary hand movement

A

A patient with liver failure is not able to control ammonia levels which can lead to hepatic encephalopathy

55
Q

Hep: Explain why a patient with liver failure may demonstrate change in mentation and involuntary hand movement.

A

Liver failure prevents the excretion of ammonia which may lead to hepatic encephalopathy

56
Q

Hep: Ascites emergency treatment

A

Therapeutic paracentesis may be performed in patients who require rapid symptomatic relief for refractory or tense ascites. When small volumes of ascitic fluid are removed, saline alone is an effective plasma expander. The removal of 5 L of fluid or more is considered large-volume paracentesis

57
Q

Sepsis: Describe early signs of sepsis

A

Recent infection
Elevated temperature
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Elevated WBC
Elevated Lactate

58
Q

Sepsis: Describe the priority nursing actions when sepsis is suspected

A

Fluid resuscitation (30ml/kg)
Obtain blood cultures BEFORE administering antibiotics
Begin vasopressors
Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics – empiric antibiotics ideally within 1 hour

59
Q

Sepsis: Describe sepsis in terms of hemodynamics

A

When the sepsis cascade begins, the vessels dilate and the membranes become weak, causing capillary leaks. The vasodilation causes venous stasis and blood clots may form. The profound vasodilation and capillary leak causes the body to manifest a hypovolemic state and must try to compensate. Compensation occurs with elevated heart rate, elevated respiratory rate, and shunting of blood to vital organs.

60
Q

Sepsis: Prevention

A

Hand hygiene

Early infection control

Vaccinations

61
Q

Neuro: Early and late changes in ICP

A

early: caused by a slow bleed (i.e. subdural hematoma) – agitation, restlessness/irritability, change in LOC, decreased mental status, sudden vomiting with no! nausea

late: seizures, posturing, cushing’s triad (wide pulse pressure, slow breathing, bradycardia)

late deadly signs: irregular respirations, cheyne-stokes breaths, stiff neck (nuchal rigidity), pupils “fixed and dilated,” toes fan out when stimulated (Babinski reflex – possible sign of irreversible damage)

62
Q

Neuro: stroke interventions

A

administer rt-pa as ordered
bedside swallow screen
support respiratory function
semi-fowlers
NG tube if necessary – aspiration precautions
bleeding precautions for pts with thrombolytics or anticoags
positions, mobility, ROM
manage client with unilateral and visual field cut
PT and OT evaluations
aphasia interventions
skin, eye, mouth care
early mobility
prevent constipation

63
Q

Neuro: Cervical injury

A

C1-C8 – most dangerous injury

affects all 4 limbs – quadriplegia

respiratory – impaired breathing = life threatening

64
Q

Neuro: Thoracic injury

A

T1-T12

affects lower limbs – paraplegia

affects legs, bladder, bowels

65
Q

Neuro: Lumbar injury

A

L1-L5

affects legs and bladder

66
Q

Neuro: More complications of spinal cord injury

A

lead to life-threatening problems

neurogenic shock – disruption between para and sympathetic nervous system; injuries above T5 have an increased risk for neurogenic shock

two biggest problems: hypotension and bradycardia

spinal shock – just spinal cord affected; occurs initially with spinal cord injury

may not manifest fully at first with swellling

compression injuries have more hope for full recovery

complete transection is life-altering and no chance of full recovery