COMPILED Flashcards by Rodith Anne Feliciano

A drug that exemplifies all the features of its class is called the drug
A. Brand
B. Chemistry
C. Generics
D. Prototype

D. Prototype

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Which is more important to write in a prescription?
A. Brand Name
B. Generic Name
C. Drug classification
D. Chemical structure

B. Generic Name

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The antiseizure medication Gabapentin is now also used as a pain reliever. This second indication is said to be-label use or prescription
A. On
B. Off

B. Off

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Which of the following medications can be bought over the counter or without prescription?
A. Antibiotics
B. Anticancers
C. Sedatives
D. Multivitamins

D. Multivitamins

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Which is an example of a drug which is synthetic:
A. dessicated pig thyroid
B. digitalis
C. insulin analog
D. magnesium

C. insulin analog

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A drug considered a controlled substance falls under schedule V. This means that the drug has
A. the highest potential for abuse
B. the lowest relative abuse potential.
C. approval for a specific therapeutic but has high abuse potential
D. may cause moderate physical dependence and addiction

B. the lowest relative abuse potential.

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This is an advantage of buccal administration:
A. easiest route of administration
B. not subject to first pass
C. may be used for local rectal effect
D. absorbed via the skin

B. not subject to first pass

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This is an advantage of buccal administration:
A. easiest route of administration
B. not subject to first pass
C. may be used for local rectal effect
D. absorbed via the skin

B. not subject to first pass

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The extent to which a drug reaches the systemic circulation-
A. absorption
B. bioavailability
C. clearance
D. elimination rate

B. bioavailability

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Aspirin is more absorbed in this area-
A. stomach
B. small intestine
C. large intestine
D. rectum

A. stomach

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If gastric emptying time is fast, a drug which is mostly absorbed in the intestine will be absorbed-
A. faster
B. slower

A. faster

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Which of the following is a parasympathomimetic drug
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Pilocarpine

D. Pilocarpine

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Which of the following is a sympathomimetic drug
A. Propranolol
B.Salbutamol
C.Clonidine
D.Phenoxybenzamine

B.Salbutamol

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Which of the following is a sympathomimetic drug
A. Propranolol
B.Salbutamol
C.Clonidine
D.Phenoxybenzamine

B.Salbutamol

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The antidote for organophosphate poisoning
A. Pralidoxime
B.Epinephrine
C.Dopamine
D. Salbutamol

A. Pralidoxime

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Which of the following is used in management of asthma?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Atropine
C.Salbutamol
D. Phentolamine

C.Salbutamol

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Which of the following is used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis?
A. Neostigmine
C. Dopamine
B. Pilocarpine
D. Clonidine.

A. Neostigmine

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This is used to manage acute hypertensive crisis?
A. Dopamine
B.Dobutamine.
C.Clonidine
D. Norepinephrine

C.Clonidine

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Which of the following may cause bradycardia?
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine.
C. Atropine
D. Propranolol

D. Propranolol

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The following is a selective B1 agonist drug
A. Dopamine
B. Dobutamine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Norepinephrine

B. Dobutamine

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The enzyme the metabolizes acetylcholine
A. Monoamine oxidase
B.Catechol-O methyltransferase
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. Choline acetyltransferase enzyme

C. Acetylcholinesterase

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Which of the following is a muscarinic agonist?
A. Physostigmine
B.Scopolamine
C. Atropine
D. Bethanechol

D. Bethanechol

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A chemical substance of known structure which produces a biological effect when administered to an individual is called a-
A. drug
B. ligand
C. neurotransmitter
D. prototype: Refers to the standard example of a drug class, not a general definition.

A. drug

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If a drug is classified as an anti-inflammatory, then it is classed based on its-
A. chemical structure
B. mechanism of action,
C. therapeutic use
D. trade name

C. therapeutic use

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Captopril is a prototype that exemplifies the characteristics of this class of antihypertensives- A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta blockers, These act on adrenergic receptors, not the renin-angiotensin system. C. Diuretics, Diuretics promote fluid loss, unrelated to ACE inhibition. D. Calcium channel blockers, These work on calcium channels, not angiotensin pathways

A. ACE inhibitors

This is the name that is enclosed within parentheses in the prescription and is given by the drug company that made it. a. brand B. chemical C. generic D. trade

D. trade

A drug prescribed for a condition for which it is NOT originally intended for is called a prescription. A. impossible B. off -label C. over the counter D. violative

B. off -label

A drug which is man-made or created from artificial sources is - A. synthetic B. obtained from minerals C. derived from plants (atropine or morphine) D. animal organ based (insulin)

A. synthetic

A drug that has the highest potential for abuse and is not used for treatment is placed under this schedule- A. I B. II C. IV D. V

A person is prescribed to take this drug for chest pain by placing the tablet under his tongue. This route of administration is considered- A. enteral B. inhalational C. parenteral D. transcutaneous

A. enteral

If an asthmatic person uses a nebulizer to control his condition, then the drug is delivered via this route- A. inhalational B. parenteral C. oral D. transdermal

A. inhalational

If a patient has severe infection and is experiencing nausea and vomiting, the best way to give medication is via- A. oral B. intravenous C. inhalation D. rectal

B. intravenous

Absorption is a process under-o a. pharmacokinetics B. pharmacodynamics

a. pharmacokinetics

When a drug is biotransformed by the liver so that it can readily be excreted eventually, this process is- A. absorption B. distribution C. metabolism D. excretion

C. metabolism

When a drug is transferred from the blood compartment to the various issues of the body, this process is- A. absorption B. distribution C. metabolism D. excretion

B. distribution

When an individual has poor circulation because of heart failure, what is the effect on drug absorption? A. increased B. decreased

decreased

When a drug is metabolized in the intestinal wall and liver before it reaches circulation, then the bioavailability of this drug is- A. increased B. decreased

decreased

Which drug formulation dissolves fastest in the stomach? A. tablet B. capsule C. powder D. liquid

liquid

Due to ion trapping, aspirin which is a weak acid, is mostly absorbed in the- A. colon B. duodenum C. mouth D. stomach

stomach

What is the effect on distribution of a drug to tissues if it is highly protein bound in the blood? A. decreased B. increased

decreased

Which process will deliver drugs in the urinary filtrate back into the blood? A. glomerular filtration B. reabsorption C. tubular secretion

reabsorption

Receptors for insulin are of what type? A. enzyme-linked B. G-protein coupled C. intracytoplasmic D. ligand-gated

enzyme-linked

A drug which activates receptors but cannot produce maximum response is called a/an- A. competitive antagonist B. full agonist C. inverse agonist D. partial agonist

partial agonist

Drugs that bind to the same receptor as an agonist but induces a pharmacological response opposite to that of the agonist are- A. competitive antagonists B. full agonists C. inverse agonists D. partial agonists

inverse agonist

An allosteric modulator drug binds to this site in the receptor- A. active binding site of the ligand B. a different region in the receptor

B. a different region in the receptor

If the therapeutic index of a drug is wide, then the drug is considered- a.dangerous B. regulated C. safe D. toxic

c. safe

The type of drug-drug interaction that produces a collective response larger than the sum of the sum of the two drugs: 1+1>2 A. additive B. antagonism C. potentiation D. synergistic

synergistic

The following are cholinergic nerves EXCEPT: A. Sympathetic preganglionic fiber B. Sympathetic postganglionic fiber C. Parasympathetic preganglionic fiber D. Parasympathetic postganglionic

B. Sympathetic postganglionic fiber

Which of the following are receptors for acetylcholine A. Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors B. Muscarinic and adrenergic receptors C. Alpha and beta receptors D. Nicotinic and GABA receptors

A. Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors

The type of cholinergic receptors found in the ganglia A. Adrenergic B. Nicotinic C. Muscarinic D. B and C only

nicotinic

Termination of the effects of acetylcholine is via A. Reuptake transport B. Acetylcholinesterases C. COMT D. MAO

B. Acetylcholinesterases

The following are effects of parasympathomimetics A. miosis, salivation, bradycardia, bronchoconstriction B. miosis, constipation, difficulty in urination C. mydriasis, tachycardia. Bronchodilation D. miosis, muscle paralysis, salivation, constipation

A. miosis, salivation, bradycardia, bronchoconstriction

Reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used only to diagnose myasthenia gravis (Tensilon Test) A. Ambenonium B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Edrophonium

D. Edrophonium

Indirect parasympathomimetics act by: A. Acting as agonists on muscarinic receptors B. Acting as agonists at nicotinic receptors C. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase D. Enhancing activity of acetylcholinesteras

C. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase

Direct acting parasympathomimetic A. Pilocarpine B. Neostigmine C. Edrophonium D. Atropine

A. Pilocarpine

Indirect parasympathomimetic used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis A. Edrophonium B. Pyridostigmine C. Scopolamine D. Pilocarpine

B. Pyridostigmine

The following are effects of parasympatholytics EXCEPT: A. Bradycardia B. Diarrhea C. Mydriasis D. Salivation

C. Mydriasis

Indirect acting parasympathomimetics used for treatment of Alzheimer's disease A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pyridostigmine D. Rivastigmine

D. Rivastigmine

Which of the following are signs of organophosphate poisoning? A. Miosis, drooling, diarrhea, difficulty in breathing B. Mydriasis, diarrhea, drying of the mouth, difficulty in urination C. Tachycardia, hypertension, constipation, urinary urgency D. Fever, mydriasis, cyanosis, cycloplegia

A. Miosis, drooling, diarrhea, difficulty in breathing

Direct antidote for organophosphate poisoning A. Atropine B. Pilocarpine C. Flumazenil D. Pralidoxime

D. Pralidoxime

Beta receptors are primarily located in A. Bronchi B. pupils C. heart D. Intestine

C. heart

Norepinephrine activates the following receptors EXCEPT: A. Alpha 1 B. Alpha 2 C. Beta 1 D. Beta2

D. Beta2

Which of the following is a sympathomimetic drug? A. Salbutamol B. Clonidine C. Methyldopa D. Atropine

A. Salbutamol

Epinephrine is used in which of the following conditions? A. Anaphylaxis B. Acute Heart failure. C. Hypertension D. Benign prostatic hypertrophy

anaphylaxis

The enzyme that metabolized norepinephrine intraneuronally A. Acetylcholinesterase B. COMT C. Tyrosine hydroxylase D. MAO

MAO

Which of the following can be used to treat asthma? A. Methacholine B. Ipratropium C. Tacrine D. Physostigmine

ipratropium

Which of the following is a selective beta 1 agonist? A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Salmeterol D. Propranolol

B. Dobutamine

The main effect of propranolol A. Bronchodilation, B. Vasodilatation C. Bradycardia D. Mydriasis

bradycardia

Which of the following is used as centrally acting anti-hypertensive A. Norepinephrine B. Dopamine C. Clonidine D. Prazosin

clonidine

This drug primarily causes vasoconstriction and is used as decongestant A. Propranolol B. Dobutamine C. Phenylephrine D. Tizanidine

Phenylephrine

Non-selective beta agonist A. Propranolol B. Timolol C. Isoproterenol D. Procaterol

Isoproterenol

Alpha2 agonist used as skeletal muscle relaxant A. Atomoxetine B. Tizanidine C. Apraclonidine D.Methyldopa

Tizanidine

Which of the following is an example of a Beta 1 selective Beta Blocker? A. Propranolol B. Carvedilol C. Metoprolol D. Labetalol

Metoprolol

Which of the following vasodilators is also commonly used for the treatment of hair loss? A. Amlodipine, B. Nitrate C. Verapamil D. Minoxidil

Minoxidil

Which of the following statement/s is/are CORRECT? A. Angiotensin I is converted to Angiotensin Il by angiotensin converting enzyme B. Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I C. Both A and B D. None of the above

both

Which of the following diuretic can cause HYPERkalemia? A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide, C. Spironolactone D. None of the above

Spironolactone

Which of the following antihypertensive/s can be used for pregnant women? A. Hydralazine. B. Methyldopa C. Both A and B D. None of the above

both

Which of the following routes of administration of Nitrates is BEST for the treatment of acute attack of angina? A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous D. Transdermal

sublingual

Reflex tachycardia is commonly seen in nitrates. To counter this effect, which of the following drugs should be given together with nitrates? A. Beta agonists B. Beta Blockers C. Alpha blockers D. Alpha agonists

beta blockers

Which of the following antianginal agents elicit its action thru vasodilation of coronary arteries through increasing GMP production. A. Beta Blockers, B. Nitrates C. Calcium Channel Blockers D. None of the above

nitrates

Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched? A. Class I Antiarrhythmics: Sodium channel blockers B. Class Il Antiarrhythmics: Beta Blockers C. Class Ill Antiarrhythmics: Potassium Channel Blockers D. Class IV Antiarrhythmics: Calcium channel Blockers E. All of the above

all

Pulmonary fibrosis is a dreaded side effect of this Class Ill Anti arrhythmic? A. Amiodarone B. Dronedarone C. Sotalol D. Dofetilide

amiodarone

Which of the following agents used for the treatment of heart failure act by inhibiting the Na+K+ ATPase pump? A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Milrinone D. Digoxin/Digitalis

Digoxin/Digitalis

Which of the following is an example of an ACE Inhibitor? A. Telmisartan B. Aliskiren C. Bisoprolol D. Perindopril

Perindopril

Which of the following is an antidote for Warfarin toxicity? A. Vitamin K B. Protamine sulfate C. Aminocaproic acid D. None of the above

vitamin k

64. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)? A. Streptokinase is an example B. They inhibit Factor Xa but have less effect on antithrombin Ill C. Does NOT require regular monitoring of blood coagulation D. All of the above

all

65. Aspirin, an antiplatelet, act by which of the following mechanism? A. Inhibit platelet activation by inhibiting adenosine uptake and cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase activity B. inhibits the synthesis of thromboxane A, by irreversible acetylation of the enzyme cyclooxygenase c.reduce platelet aggregation by inhibiting the ADP pathway of platelets by irreversible blockade of the ADP receptor D. None of the above

B. inhibits the synthesis of thromboxane A, by irreversible acetylation of the enzyme cyclooxygenase

Which of the following is the most serious side effect of Streptokinase? A. Bleeding B. Allergic reaction C. Constipation D. None of the above

bleeding

Which of the following is an example of a thrombolytic agent? A. Streptokinase B. Enoxaparin. C. Clopidogrel D. Heparin

streptokinase

Which of the following is an antidote for Streptokinase toxicity? A. Protamine Sulfate B. Aminocaproic acid C. Vitamin K D. None of the above

Aminocaproic acid

Which of the following anti lipemic agents act by inhibiting HMG CoA Reductase, the rate limiting enzyme for cholesterol synthesis? A. Fibric acid derivatives B. Bile acid sequestrants C. Statins D. Nicotinic acid

Statins

Flushing is a common side effect of which anti lipemic agent? A. Fibric acid derivatives B. Bile acid sequestrants C. Statins D. Nicotinic acid

Nicotinic acid

Which of the following diuretics act by inhibiting the Na/k/2Cl transporter in the ascending loop of Henle? A. Loop Diuretics B. Thiazide Diuretics, C. Potassium sparing diuretics D. None of the above

A. Loop Diuretics

Which of the following beta blockers can exacerbate asthma? A. Metoprolol B. Propranolol C. Nebivolol D. Esmolol

Propranolol

Which of the following is an example of an Alpha 1 blocker? A. Clonidine B. Nifedipine C. Prazosin D. Amlodipine

Prazosin

Which of the following antihypertensive can cause cough as its side effect? A. Vasodilators B. Diuretics C. Angiotensin Receptor Blockers D. ACE Inhibitors

ace inhibitors

Which of the following Class I anti arrhythmic has the strongest sodium channel blockade? A. Flecainide B. Lidocaine C. Quinidine D. None of the above

flecainide

Which of the following is the primary goal shared by analgesic drug therapy and certain rehabilitation interventions? A. Enhancing muscle strength B. Improving cardiovascular fitness C. Pain relief D. Reducing inflammation

pain relief

Which type of analgesic is specifically known for its potential to produce physical dependence? A. Corticosteroids, B. NSAIDS C. Opioid analgesics

opoid analgesics

Which opioid analgesic is considered the prototypical drug in its class? B. Fentanyl. C. Morphine D. Oxycodone

Morphine

Which receptor class is primarily responsible for the analgesic effects of opioids like morphine? A. Delta receptors В. Kappa receptors C. Mu receptors D. NOP receptors

Mu receptors

What is the primary use of opioid antagonists like naloxone? A. Inducing sleep B. Managing opioid withdrawal symptoms. C. Reversing opioid overdose D. Treating chronic pain

C. Reversing opioid overdose

Which of the following is NOT a clinical application of opioid analgesics? A. Anesthetic premedication B. Cough suppression C. Enhancing cognitive function D. Treatment of acute pulmonary edema

C. Enhancing cognitive function

Which opioid analgesic type has a lower maximal analgesic effect but produces fewer side effects like respiratory depression? A. Antagonists B. Mild-to-moderate agonists. C. Mixed agonist-antagonists D. Strong agonists

Mixed agonist-antagonists

What is the primary action of opioid receptors located in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord? A. Enhance excitability of postsynaptic neurons. B. Increase synaptic transmission of nociceptive input C. Inhibit synaptic transmission of nociceptive input D. Stimulate the release of substance P

C. Inhibit synaptic transmission of nociceptive input

What is the most dangerous and life-threatening adverse effect of opioid overdose? A.Heart failure B. Hepatic necrosis C. Pulmonary edema D. Respiratory depression

Respiratory depression

Which of the following is a potential negative effect of opioid use that may interfere with rehabilitation therapy sessions? A. Enhanced cognitive function B. Improved cardiovascular health C. Increased muscle strength D. Sedation

Sedation

Why is managing constipation particularly important for patients with spinal cord injuries who are on long-term opioid therapy? A. They are more prone to severe constipation due to decreased gastrointestinal motility B. They experience an increased appetite, leading to more food intake C. They often have improved gastrointestinal function, making constipation less of an issue D. They require higher doses of opioids that increase gastrointestinal motility.

They are more prone to severe constipation due to decreased gastrointestinal motility

How should physical therapists address potential withdrawal symptoms in patients who are tapering off opioid therapy? A. By avoiding any physical therapy sessions until withdrawal symptoms subside B. By focusing solely on physical therapy and ignoring withdrawal symptoms C. By increasing the opioid dosage to prevent withdrawal symptoms D. By using physical agents like heat, electrotherapy, and manual techniques to manage symptoms

D. By using physical agents like heat, electrotherapy, and manual techniques to manage symptoms

Which drug is not classified as an NSAID but is used to relieve pain and fever? A. Acetaminophen B. Aspirin: C. Ibuprofen D. Naproxen

Acetaminophen

Which of the following NSAIDs is known for its role in preventing excessive blood clotting? A. Acetaminophen. B. Aspirin C. Celecoxib D. Indomethacin

Aspirin

NSAIDs primarily exert their anti-inflammatory effects by inhibiting A. calcium channels B. cyclooxyrgenase C. histamine release D. lipoxygenase

cyclooxyrgenase

Which NSAID enzyme subtype is primarily involved in mediating pain and inflammation? A. COX-1 B. COX-2 C. LOX D. Phospholipase A2

COX-2

Which of the following is a selective COX-2 inhibitor? A. Aspirin B. Celecoxib C. Ketorolac D. Naproxen

Celecoxib

What is a common gastrointestinal side effect of non-selective NSAIDs like aspirin? A. Constipation B. Diarrhea C. Liver toxicity D. Stomach ulceration

Stomach ulceration

Which of the following is a commonly recommended strategy to manage NSAID-induced gastrointestinal irritation? A. Combining NSAIDs with corticosteroids B. Increasing the dose of NSAIDs C. Taking NSAIDs with meals D. Using higher doses of acetaminophen

Taking NSAIDs with meals

What adverse effect is associated with high doses of acetaminophen? A. Gastrointestinal bleeding B. Hepatic necrosis C. Renal failure D. Reye syndrome

Hepatic necrosis

Long-term use of COX-2 selective inhibitors is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease? A. Arrhythmias B. Heart failure C. Hypertension D. Thrombotic events

Thrombotic events

The primary difference between acetaminophen and NSAIDs is that acetaminophen A. has stronger anti-inflammatory effects B. is not effective for pain relief C. is used for blood clot prevention D. lacks anti-inflammatory and anticoagulant properties

lacks anti-inflammatory and anticoagulant properties

Which of the following is a notable advantage of using NSAIDs in rehabilitation patients? A. Allows therapy sessions to proceed with pain relief without psychomimetic effects B. Causes severe side effects similar to steroids C. Induces sedation D. Provides pain relief with loss of attentiveness

A. Allows therapy sessions to proceed with pain relief without psychomimetic effects

What is a significant limitation of NSAIDs when used for rehabilitation patients? A. They are less effective for mild pain B. They are not effective for fever reduction C. They cause excessive sedation D. They may be less effective for moderate-to-severe pain or severe, progressive inflammation

They may be less effective for moderate-to-severe pain or severe, progressive inflammation

Which of the following is NOT a common use of NSAIDs in the rehabilitation population? A. Anticoagulation B. Fever reduction C. Pain relief D. Sedation

Sedation

This drug is safer since there is lesser chance of lethal overdose occurrence. A. Flurazepam B. Phenobarbital C. Pentobarbital D. All of the choices

Flurazepam

Primary neurotransmitter that causes inhibition at the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons throughout the brain and spinal cord. A. Acetylcholine B. Chloride C. GABA D. Glutamate

GABA

This drug has lower risk of producing certain side effects and causing problems when discontinued. A. Flurazepam B. Phenobarbital C. Zolpidem D. None of the choices

Zolpidem

This drug is similar in function and structure to melatonin. A. Eszopiclone B. Pentobarbital C. Ramelteon D. Triazolam

Ramelteon

This is the primary problem associated with sedative hypnotic use. A. Anterograde amnesia B. Nausea C. Residual effects D. Tolerance

Residual effects

This prolongs the time that the chloride channels remain open. A. Barbiturates B. Benzodiazepines C. GABA D. Zolpidem

barbituates

Characteristic of a sedative agent. A. Encourage the onset and maintenance of sleep B. Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect C. Leads to loss of consciousness with absence of response to pain D. More pronounced CNS depression

Encourage the onset and maintenance of sleep

Diazepam is indicated in the following A. Muscle strain B. Muscle spasm C. Sedation D. All of the choices

all

Combination with barbiturates with this/ these drug/s may potentiate CNS depression. A. Antihistamines B. Alcohol C. Anticonvulsants D. All of the choices

all

This is TRUE about Zolpidem. A. A Benzodiazepine B. Has withdrawal effect C. May cause seizure D. Produces hypnosis

Produces hypnosis

Mechanism of action of Buspirone. A. GABA receptor antagonist B. Partial serotonin receptor agonist C. Increases duration of opening of chloride channels D. Increases frequency of opening of chloride channels

Partial serotonin receptor agonist

This drug's short ducation of action has lower risk for developing residual or "hangover" effects. A. Diazepam B. Phenobarbital C. Lorazepam D. Zolpidem

Zolpidem

This is considered as a Benzodiazepine antagonist. A. Flumazenil B. Flurazepam C. Phenobarbital D. Zolpidem

Flumazenil

This is NOT classified as amine neurotransmitter. A. Dopamine B. GABA C. Norepinephrine D. Serotonin

GABA

Mechanism of action of this drug group is through inhibition of neuronal reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin. A. MAOI B. SNRI C. SSRI D. TCA

TCA

Escitalopram is classified under this antidepressant drug group. A. MAOI B. SNRI C. SSRI D. TCA

SSRI

Antidepressant that can be used to treat fibromyalgia. A. Lithium B. MAOI C. SSRI D. TCA

SSRI

This nonselective antidepressant tends to have more interactions with other drugs and may also be more harmful during overdose. A. MAOI B. SNRI C. SSRI D. TCA

TCA

This antidepressant can be dangerous if taken with foods that contain tyramine. A. MAOI B. SNRI C. SSRI D. TCA

MAOI

Renal manifestation of Lithium toxicity includes the following. A. Fatigue B. Nausea C. Polydipsia D. Seizure

Polydipsia

This drug is classified as an SSRI. A. Amitriptyline B. Duloxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Venlafaxine

Fluoxetine

Most common side effect associated with SSRI's and SNRI's. A. Arrhythmia B. Dependence C. Sedation D. Vomiting

Vomiting

This is a major side effect associated with tricyclics. A. Dependence 8. Diarrhea C. Sedation D. Tolerance

sedation

This is a side effect of MAO inhibitors. A. Irritability B. Restlessness C. Sleep loss D. All of the choices

all

Drug/s that can be used to treat bipolar disorder. A. Carbamazepine b. Gabapentin C. Valproic acid D. All of the choices

valproic acid

Which among the following antacids, may cause constipation? A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Calcium carbonate C. Magnesium hydroxide D. Aluminum hydroxide

Aluminum hydroxide

Which of the following is the prodrug of H2 receptor antagonist? A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Famotidine D. Nizatidine

Cimetidine

Risk for community acquired respiratory infection may be seen in which of the following drugs? A. Cimetidine B. Omeprazole C. Sucralfate D. Bismuth

Omeprazole

Which of the following is an example of anticholinergic agent used to decrease gastric acid secretion? A. Atropine B. Misoprostol C. Ranitidine D. Pantoprazole

Atropine

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Sucralfate? A. Forms a protective gel within the stomach that adheres to ulcers B. A disaccharide that exerts a cytoprotective effect on the stomach mucosa C. Constipation is a side effect D. All of the above

all

Which of the following is an example of opioid derivative used to treat diarrhea? A. Loperamide B. Diphenoxylate C. Both A and B D. None of the above

both

Which of the following anti diarrheal drugs acts by sequestering and binding bile acids within the Gl tract? A. Cholestyramine B. Colestipol C. Colesevelam D. All of the above

all

Which of the following is an example of a stimulant laxative? A. Psyllium B. Bisacodyl C. Lactulose D. None of the above

B. Bisacodyl

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Bulk forming laxatives? A. Methylcellulose is an example B. Absorbs water and swell within the GI tract stimulating peristalsis C. Both A and B D. None of the Above

both

Which of the following drug class for the treatment of constipation act by facilitating entry of water into the fecal mass leading to softening of stool thus permitting easier defacation? A. Lubricants B. Bulk Forming laxatives C. Stimulant Laxative D. Hyperosmotic laxative

lubricants

Which of the following is an example of anti-emetic? A. Scopolamine B. D2 blockers C. Both A and B D. None of the above

both

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding cholelitholytic agents? A. Ursodiol is an example B. Decreases cholesterol content of bile C. Effective in treatment of calcified gallstones D. May help dissolve gallstones that are supersaturated with cholesterol

Effective in treatment of calcified gallstones

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Metoclopramide, a dopamine receptor antagonist? A. Enhances the peripheral effects of acetylcholine B. Stimulates motility in the upper GI tract (prokinetic effect) C. One of the side effects are extrapyramidal symptoms D. All of the above

all

Which among the following mucosal protective agents, can also cause uterine contraction? A. Bismuth subcitrate B. Bismuth subsalicylate C. Sucralfate D. Misoprostol

Misoprostol

Which of the following is the treatment for H. pylori infection? A. Metronidazole + Clarithromycin B. Metronidazole + Omeprazole C. Clarithromycin + Omeprazole D. Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin + Omeprazole

Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin + Omeprazole

Which of the following drugs used to treat peptic ulcer disease can have endocrine side effects such as gynecomastia, galactorrhea and reduced sperm count? A. H2 receptor blocker B. Antacids C. Proton Pump Inhibitors, D. Mucosal Protective agents

H2 receptor blocker

Which of the following is TRUE regarding systemic side effects of antacids? A. They can cause metabolic alkalosis B. They can cause Hypercalcemia and milk alkali syndrome C. Both A and B D. None of the above

both

Which of the following is TRUE regarding proton pump inhibitors? A. They should be taken with an empty stomach. B. Omeprazole is the prodrug C. It irreversibly binds with H+K+ ATPase pump D. All of the above

all

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Octreotide? A. Used to treat diarrhea caused by tumors that secrete serotonin into the Gl tract B. Inhibits secretion of serotonin and other peptides that stimulate Gi functions C. A complex drug that mimics the effects of endogenously produced somatostatin D. All of the above

all

Which of the following is TRUE regarding digestants? A. Examples are amylase, trypsin and lipase B. Used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis C. Bile salts are example D. All of the above

ALL

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding Gi drugs? A. Most GI drugs can produce significant side effects that may impair rehabilitation B. Opiates and H2 blockers may cause some dizziness and fatigue but these are fairly mild C. Other problems with Gi drugs are generally related to transient Gi disturbances. D. None of the above

Most GI drugs can produce significant side effects that may impair rehabilitation

Which of the following is an example/s of an emetic (induces vomiting)? A. Apomorphine В. Іресас C. Both A and B D. None of the above

both

Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding the adverse effects of laxatives? A. Spastic colitis may occur with prolonged use. B. Fluid and electrolyte abnormalities can be significant in older or debilitated patients. C. Laxative dependence may be seen in chronic administration. D. All of the above

ALL

Which of the following is NOT an example of hyperosmotic laxative? A. Glycerin B. Lactulose C. Senna D. Polyethylene Glycol

Senna

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Clonidine for the treatment of diarrhea? A. It is a CNS alpha-2 receptor agonist B. It stimulates alpha-2 receptors in the GI tract, decreasing secretion C. It is used in diarrhea secondary to autonomic neuropathy D. All of the above

all

Destruction of pancreatic beta cells lead to this type of diabetes: A. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus B. Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus C. Diabetes Mellitus Type lI D. Impaired Fasting glucose

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

In Diabetes Mellitus Type II, insulin resistance is thought to be: A. Increased B. Decreased C. Unaffected D. Markedly decreased

increased

Which of the following is the role of insulin on carbohydrate metabolism A. Stimulates the synthesis of fatty acids and triglycerides in adipose tissue B. Inhibits hormone-sensitive lipase, reducing the breakdown of stored lipids C. Inhibits protein breakdown D. Facilitates the entry of glucose into liver, muscle, and adipose tissues from the bloodstream

D. Facilitates the entry of glucose into liver, muscle, and adipose tissues from the bloodstream

This pancreatic hormone that is also produced in the brain and Gl tract inhibits release of insulin and glucagon A. Somatostatin B. Ghrelin C. Pancreatic Polypeptide D. Lipase

Somatostatin

The hormone secreted by parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland is responsible for lowering blood calcium by stimulating bone formation A. Parathyroid Hormone B. Triiodothyronine C. Thyroxine D. Calcitonin

calcitonin

What is the primary mechanism of action of Metformin in the treatment of Type 2 diabetes? A. Stimulates insulin secretion B. Increases glucose uptake in muscles C. Decreases hepatic glucose production D. Slows gastric emptying

Decreases hepatic glucose production

This is TRUE of the functions of Glucagon: A. Inhibits insulin release from beta ceils B. Released from pancreatic F cells C. Promotes gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in the liver D. Enhances the uptake of triglycerides from the blood into adipose and muscie tissues

Promotes gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in the liver

Which class of diabetes medications is known to promote weight loss? A. Sulfonylureas B. Thiazolidinediones C. GLP-1 receptor agonists D. DPP-4 inhibitors

GLP-1 receptor agonists

What is a common side effect of insulin therapy in diabetic patients? A. Weight loss B. Hypoglycemia C. Hypertension D. Hyperlipidemia

Hypoglycemia

Which of the following is a function of Amylin analogues A. Suppression of glucagon secretion B. Inhibit enzymes that break down sugar in the Gl tract C. Increase insulin release D. Prolong the effects of endogenous incretin

Suppression of glucagon secretion

This anti-diabetic drug may cause fractures of the arm, hands and feet in women A. Metformin B. Rosiglitazone C. Acarbose D. Pramlintide

Rosiglitazone

True of metabolic syndrome: A. Occurs when insulin resistance, abdominal obesity and hypertension is present B. Normal syndrome of aging C. Also known as Syndrome Y D. Treatment for insulin resistance is not necessary in addressing metabolic syndrome

Occurs when insulin resistance, abdominal obesity and hypertension is present

Net effect of Glycosuria A. Dehydration B. Electrolyte Imbalance C. Both A and B D. Neither A and B

both

Which type of Insulin that can be taken orally? A. Aspart B. Lispro C. Both A and B D. Neither A and B

neither

This type of insulin may be administered before or after a meal to more closely approximate the time course of insulin effects occurring after a meal: A. Glulisine B. Isophane insulin C. Glargine D. Determir

Glulisine

True regarding exercise and insulin: A. Strenous Exercise may promote hypoglycemis during insulin therapy B. Exercise has an insulin-like effect C. Insulin dose should be decreased proportionally depending on the type, intensity and duration of activity D. All of the above

all

What role does Vitamin D play in bone health? A. Suppresses the synthesis and releaseof PTH from the parathyroid glands B. If dietary calcium absorption from the Gi tract in impaired, Vitamin D increases bone resorption and decreases bone mineralization C. Vitamin D generally enhances boneformation by increasing the supply of Calcium and Phosphates D. All of the above

all

What is the primary hormone produced by the thyroid gland that regulates metabolism? A. Calcitonin B. Parathyroid hormone C. Thyroxine D. Insulin

Thyroxine

A metabolic bone disease in adults where there is impaired bone mineralization caused by deficiency of Vitamin D is known as: A. Rickets B. Osteomalacia C. Paget disease D. Osteoporosis

Osteomalacia

Symptoms of hypothyroidism include which of the following? A. Diarrhea B. Anorexia C. Heat Intolerance D. Muscle wasting

anorexia

This drug blocks the conversion of T4 to T3 in peripheral tissues: A. Methimazole B. Propylthiouracil C. Levothyroxine D. lodide

Propylthiouracil

Which of the following drugs are helpful in severe, acute exacerbations of thyroid storm? A. Alpha adrenergic agonists B. Beta adrenergic blockers C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

Beta adrenergic blockers

High levels of this hormone enhances the effect of osteoclasts that break down skeletal tissues increasing biood calcium levels A. Calcitonin B. PTH C. Thyroxine D. Insulin

PTH

High levels of this hormone enhances the effect of osteoclasts that break down skeletal tissues increasing biood calcium levels A. Calcitonin B. PTH C. Thyroxine D. Insulin

PTH

This group of drugs prevent hypercalcemia resulting from excessive bone resorptionin certain forms of cancer: A. Vitamin D analogs B. Estrogens C. Calcium supplements D. Bisphosphonates

Bisphosphonates

68-year-old patient with oseteomalacia had fracture of the femoral head. She was then referred for physical therapy following surgery. She refuses to take calcium supplements and Vitamin D. Which physical agent might help stimulate production of Vitamin D? A. Hot patches B. Cold compress C. Ultraviolet radiation D. Walking boot

Ultraviolet radiation

A chronic condition characterized by recurrent seizures A. Status epilepticus B. Head Trauma C. Epilepsy D. Hypoglycemia

Epilepsy

Condition wherein a series of seizures occurring without recovery between individual seizures is known as: A. Status epilepticus B. Head trauma C. Epilepsy D. Hypoglycemia

A. Status epilepticus

These seizures are characterized by rhythmic, synchronized contractions throughout the body with associated loss of consciousness A. Myoclonic seizures B. Clonic seizures C. Tonic seizures D. Atonic seizures

Clonic seizures

Which of the following is a type of focal seizure: A. Complex partial B. Absence seizure C. Myoclonic seizure D. Atonic Seizure

Complex partial

What is the rationale for drug treatment of seizures? A. Certain seizures can cause structural and functional changes in the neurons causing more seizures to occur B. Seizures may cause patients to fall causing injury C. Certain seizures may cause cardiac irregularities and may lead to death D. All of the above

all

How do anti-seizure drugs suppress the excitability of neurons that initiate the seizure: A. Increase the activity of CNS inhibitory neurons B. Decrease the activity of the CNS excitatory neurons C. Stabilize the opening and closing of neuronal sodium or calcium channels D. All of the above

all

Newer anti-epileptic drugs are classified as: A. First Generation AED B. Second Generation AED C. Third Generation AED D. Fourth Generation AED

Second Generation AED

Which first generation anti-epileptic drug potentiates the inhibitory effect of GABA and may also decrease the release of excitatory glutamate A. Pentobarbital B. Clonazepam C. Phenytoin D. Ethosuximide

Pentobarbital

Which first generation anti-epileptic has a narrow therapeutic index and a strong tendency to produce sedation and other adverse effect? A. Barbiturates B. Benzodiazepines C. Hydantoins D. Iminostilbenes

Barbiturates

This is a severe side effect with the use of Felbamate: A. Headache B. Sedation C. Aplastic Anemia D. Kidney Failure

Aplastic Anemia

Which of the following is a side effect of Carbamazepine? A. Water retention B. Cardiac arrythmias C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

both

Which of the following drugs is classified as a sodium channel blocker? A. Gabapentin, B. Felbamate C. Carbamazepine D. Levetiracetam

Carbamazepine

Which anti-seizure drug is commonly associated with gingival hyperplasia as a side effect? A. Topiramate B. Levetiracetam C. Carbamazepine D. Phenytoin

Phenytoin

Which anti-seizure medication is known for its use in both epilepsy and neuropathic pain? A. Pregabalin B. Phenobarbital C.Valproate D. Levetiracetam

Pregabalin

Which Vitamin should be given to those who want to get pregnant to prevent neural tube defects? A. Vitamin A B. Ascorbic Acid C. Folate D. Alpha-tocopherol

Folate

This is an anti-seizure drug that can also be used to manage migraine headache: A. Topiramate B. Valproic Acid C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

both

What anti-seizure medication blocks AMPA receptors? A. Felbamate B. Topiramate C. Valproic Acid D. Levetiracetam

Topiramate

Which of the following is the first line drug for Tonic-clonic seizures? A. Lamotrigine B. Phenobarbital C. Phenytoin D. Oxcarbazepine

Lamotrigine

What is the first line drug for Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy? A. Clonazepam B. Lamotrigine C. Levetiracetam D. Valproic Acid

Valproic Acid

Which of the following can be used as an alternative drug for newly-diagnosed partial seizures? A. Carbamazepine B. Gabapentin C. Levetiracetam D. Topiramate

Levetiracetam

Which of the following affects successful AED withdrawal? A. Being seizure-free for at least 2 years while on medication B. Having good seizure control within 1 year of seizure onset C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

both

This should be done during rehabilitation for patients with seizures that are triggered by environmental stimuli A. Turn the lights on and off to relax the patient, B. Conduct the therapy sessionin a busy, noisy clinic C. Maintain the temperature of the room at 50 degrees Celsius D. Conduct therapy sessions in a relatively quiet setting.

D. Conduct therapy sessions in a relatively quiet setting.

What precautions can be taken to prevent additional seizures and guard against injuriesif a seizure occurs during a rehabilitation session? A. Schedule sessions at the time of the day when patient is often seizure free B. Leave patient unattended in positions of risk C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

neither

Drug biotransformation and primary method of drug termination of AEDs occur where? A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Heart D. Muscles

liver

The drug that irreversibly inhibits GABA-aminotransferase A. Tigabine B. Diazepam C. Lorazepam D. Vigabatrin

Vigabatrin

This is part of the lower respiratory tract. A. Bronchus B. Eustachian tube C. Larynx D. Pharynx

bronchus

A 54 year old female diagnosed with pneumonia was advised to take a mucolytic agent. What can be given to the patient? A.Acetylcysteine B. Bromhexine C. Loratadine D. Phenylephrine

Acetylcysteine

Suppresses coughing associated with colds and other minor throat irritations. A. Antitussive B. Decongestant C. Expectorant D. Mucolytic

Antitussive

A 33 year old male came to the clinic complaining of dry cough for 3 days. What antitussive medication can be given to the patient? A.Ambroxol B.Codeine C.Guaifenesin D.N-Acetylcysteine

B.Codeine

Alpha 1-receptor agonists are used to address the symptoms. A.Antitussive B. Decongestant C. Expectorant D.Mucolytic

B. Decongestant

A 24 year old female sought consult due to nasal congestion for 2 days. What decongestant can be given to the patient? A. Brompheniramine B.Carbocisteine C.Hydroxyzine D.Phenylpropanolamine

Phenylpropanolamine

This is used in the treatment of respiratory symptoms caused by viral infections such as the common cold and in respiratory allergic response to seasonal allergies. A.Cetirizine B.Codeine C.Dextromethorphan D.Pheny|propanolamine

Cetirizine

Diphenhydramine acts on this particular histamine receptor. A.H1 B.H2 C. H3 D.H4

This is considered a non-sedating antihistamine. A. Diphenhydramine, В.Doxylamine C.Hydroxyzine D. Loratadine

Loratadine

This drug attempts to decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions. A. Antitussive B. Decongestant C. Expectorant D. Mucolytic

Mucolytic

This long acting bronchodilator can be given as controller medication for bronchial asthma. A.Albuterol B. Formoterol C. Metaproterenol D. Terbutaline

Formoterol

This corticosteroid can be given for bronchial asthma management. A. Aminophylline B.Budesonide C. Cromolyn D. Theophylline

Budesonide

Mechanism of action of this anti-inflammatory agent is through inhibition of cytokine gene expression and phospholipase A2. A.Antimuscarinic agent B.Corticosteroid C.Methylxanthine D. Leukotriene receptor antagonis

Corticosteroid

This is considered a non-selective beta agonist. A.Epinephrine B.Phenylpropanolamine C.Salbutamol D. Salmeterol

Epinephrine

This drug enhances bronchodilation by inhibiting the phosphodiesterase (PDE) enzyme located in bronchial smooth-muscle cells. A. Cromolyn В.Fluticasone C.Theophylline D.Tiotropium

Theophylline

This is a systemic corticosteroid used to treat acute asthma attack. A.Beclomethasone B.Budesonide C.Flunisolide D.Prednisone

Prednisone

This drug is given to address upper respiratory tract infection. A.Carbocisteine B.Cromolyn sodium C.Methylprednisolone D. Montelukast

Carbocisteine

The mechanism of action of this asthma drug is through inhibition of leukotriene receptors. A.Betamethasone B.Cromolyn C.Montelukast D.Tiotropium

Montelukast

A 22-year-old female being treated for bronchial asthma attack was given an inhalational agent. The patient then developed tremors after. What agent may have caused this? A.Albuterol B.Dexamethasone C.Nedocromil D. Zafirlukast

Albuterol

A 67-year-old male came in due to COPD exacerbation. He was given an inhalational agent which afforded relief of difficulty of breathing. However, the patient developed urinary retention and dry mouth. What agent may have caused this? A.Albuterol B.Ipratropium C.Salmeterol D.Terbutaline

Ipratropium

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding cancer chemotherapy agents? A.The goal is to limit cell proliferation by killing cancer cells. B.This selectively targets cancer cells in general. C.The common approach is to target the immune system. D. They commonly kill slow growing cells.

The goal is to limit cell proliferation by killing cancer cells.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Cell Cycle Non-specific Drugs? A. most effective in hematologic malignancies B. acts on tumor cells that are rapidly proliferating C.useful in treating low growth fraction solid tumors D. effective against tumors that are in the growth fraction phase

useful in treating low growth fraction solid tumors

Which of the following drug class is considered as Cell Cycle Specific? A.alkylating agents B.antimetabolites C.anthracyclines D. platinum analogs

antimetabolites

In general, which adverse effect is most common among cancer chemotherapy agents? A. cardiac toxicity B. hepatitis C.nephrotoxicity D.vomiting

vomiting

Which of the following agents is classified as an alkylating agent? A. capecitabine B. cisplatin C.cyclophosphamide D.cytarabine

cyclophosphamide

Which of the following anticancer antibiotics is indicated for the treatment of breast cancer? A. bleomycin B.doxorubicin C.mitomycin D. streptozocin

doxorubicin

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of docetaxel? A. inhibit dihydrofolate reductase B.inhibit the formation of the mitotic apparatus C.inhibit the breakdown of the microtubules D.inhibits topoisomerase leading to DNA breakage

inhibit the breakdown of the microtubules

A 40-year-old woman is being given cancer chemotherapy for breast cancer. On her 3" course she was noted to have bloody or hemorrhagic urine. Which agent could have caused this? A.cyclophosphamide B. epirubicin C. fluorouracil D. methotrexate

cyclophosphamide

Which anticancer hormone decreases estrogen production in the tumor by inhibiting the aromatase enzyme? A.fluvestrant B.letrozole C.megestrol D. tamoxifen

letrozole

Which of the following anticancer agent blocks tyrosine kinase that promotes cancer development? A.trastuzumab B. imatinib C.interferon D. bevazuximab

imatinib

Which of the following agents activates the cytotoxic immune cells (natural killer cells) and signaling pathways within the cancer cells? A.interferons B.interleukin-2 C. imatinib D. irinotecan

interferons

Which of the following mimics folic acid, a cofactor essential for specific enzymatic reactions during DNA biosynthesis? A. mechlorethamine B. megestrol C.melphalan D.methotrexale

methotrexale

Which of the following cancer chemotherapy agent results in DNA double helix breakage by inhibiting topoisomerase I? A. tamoxifen B.teniposide C.topotecan D. trastuzumab

topotecan

A patient with ovarian cancer received cancer chemotherapy courses prior to surgical removal of the ovary and other pelvic organs. What is the role of chemotherapy? A.adjuvant B.concurrent C.neoadjuvant D. primary

neoadjuvant

Which of the following mechanisms is associated with resistance of the breast cancer tumor to cyclophosphamide? A. alteration in receptor target site B. changes in target enzyme C.formation of drug inactivating enzymes D. increase DNA repair

increase DNA repair

Which severe adverse effect is common among cancer chemotherapy agents? A.pulmonary fibrosis B.profound anemia C.neurotoxicity D. hypersensitivity

profound anemia

Which agent is used as a rescue therapy against cisplatin's nephrotoxic effect? A amifostine B.dexrazoxane C.leucovorin D. mesna

amifostine

Which agent inhibits platelet-induced tumor cell proliferation? A. abarelix B.anastrozole C.asparaginase D.aspirin

aspirin

Which platinum analog is used as part of the combination treatment for colorectal cancer? A. carboplatin B.cisplatin C.oxaliplatin D none of the above

oxaliplatin

Which agent can be given to reduce chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting as it targets serotoni receptors? А. aprepitant B.dexamethasone C.dolasetron D. metoclopramide

dolasetron

Which of the following antibacterial agents acts on the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane? A. Carbapenems B.Cephalosporins C.Penicillins D.Polymyxins

Polymyxins

A bacteriostatic antibiotic prevents the exponential growth of bacteria, allowing the host immune systen better chances of clearing the bacteria that is present in the body. A.TRUE B. FALSE

true

Which of the following adverse effects is classified as direct toxicity? A. Anaphylaxis B.Oral candidiasis C.Ototoxicity

Ototoxicity

The over use of antibiotics is the major stimulus of _____ resistance. A.Acquired B. Innate

Acquired

Which of the following is a beta-lactam antibiotic? A.Bacitracin B.Cephalexin C.Fosfomycin D. Vancomycin

Cephalexin

Which antibiotic inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis? A. Amoxicillin, B. Aztreonam C. Imipenem D. Vancomycin

Vancomycin

Piperacillin is a B-lactamase susceptible, broad-spectrum penicillin. A.TRUE B.FALSE

true

Gastric acid inactivates penicillin V. A.TRUE B.FALSE

false

This is the major mechanism of resistance by most staphylococci and many gram-negative organisms against penicillins. A. Changes in the porin structure B. Formation of beta-lactamases C.Structural change in target PBPs

Formation of beta-lactamases

Complete cross-allergenicity between different penicillins should be assumed. A. TRUE B. FALSE

true

Which of the following generation of cephalosporin can provide CSF levels adequate for the treatment of bacterial meningitis? A.1st B. 2nd C. 3гd

3rd

Which enzyme involved in ethanol metabolism is inhibited by certain cephalosporins such as cefamandole and cefoperazone? A. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase B. Alcohol dehydrogenase

A. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

Which beta-lactam antibiotic can be used as an alternative in patients with penicillin allergy but has activity against gram negative rods only. A.Ampicillin B. Aztreonam C.Cefazolin D. Imipenem

Aztreonam

Which of the following carbapenems is inactivated by renal dehydropeptidase and must therefore be administered with cilastatin? A. Doripenem B.Ertapenem C. Imipenem D.Meropenem

Imipenem

The following are examples of beta-lactamase inhibitors EXCEPT A.Clavulanic acid B.Monobactam C.Sulbactam D. Tazobactam

Monobactam

“Red man syndrome" is associated with which antibiotic? A. Ertapenem B.Fosfomycin C. Piperacillin tazobactam D. Vancomycin

Vancomycin

Bacitracin can be used for systemic infections where it can be safely administered intravenously. TRUE FALSE

false

Which cell wall synthesis inhibitor is only used to treat TB resistant to first-line drugs? A.Ampicillin B.Bacitracin C.Cycloserine D.Daptomycin

Cycloserine

What is the mechanism of action of daptomycin? A. binds to the d-Ala-d-Ala terminal of the nascent peptidoglycan pentapeptide side chain inhibiting transglycosylation B. blocks incorporation of d-Ala into the pentapeptide side chain of the peptidoglycan C.causes membrane depolarization, forming transmembrane channels D. inhibitor of cytosolic enolpyruvate transferase

causes membrane depolarization, forming transmembrane channels

What is the mechanism of action of polymixins? A. blocks incorporation of d-Ala into the pentapeptide side chain of the peptidoglycan B.cation polypeptides that bind to phospholipids on cell membrane of gram (-) bacteria leading disruption cell membrane integrity C.causes membrane depolarization, forming transmembrane D.channels inhibitor of cytosolic enolpyruvate transferase

cation polypeptides that bind to phospholipids on cell membrane of gram (-) bacteria leading disruption cell membrane integrity

Which of the following is NOT an aminoglycoside? A.Gentamicin B.Clarithromycin C.Amikacin D.Streptomycin

Clarithromycin

Which of the following is TRUE of aminoglycosides A.Active against gram positve organisms B.Inhibits 50s ribosomal sub-unit C.It is not absorbed from the GIT D.Very short duration of action

C.It is not absorbed from the GIT

The aminoglycoside usually given as second line treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis A. Streptomycin B.Gentamicin C. Nafcillin D.Methicillin

Streptomycin

Adverse effects of aminoglycosides EXCEPT? A.Diarrhea B.Ototoxicity C. Vestibulotoxicity D. Nephrotoxicity

Diarrhea

Aminoglycoside given for bowel preparation prior to bowel surgery A.Streptomycin B. Neomycin C.Ticarcillin D. Amikacin

Neomycin

Aminoglycoside that can be used to treat amoebiasis A.Metronidazole B. Amoxicillin C.Cloxacillin D. Paromomycin

Paromomycin

Aminocyclitol antibiotic used almost solely as an alternative treatment for drug-resistant gonorrhea or in penicillin-allergic patients A. Spectinomycin B. Amoxicillin C. Ceftazidime D. Ceftriaxone

Spectinomycin

This antibiotic cannot be given together with antacids containing Mg-Al(OH) and iron supplements A.Tetracycline B.Ampicillin C.Ampicillin D.Piperacillin

Tetracycline

Tetracycline can be given in the following infections EXCEPT A. Malaria (P. falciparum) B.Acne C.Gonorrhea D. H. pylori gastric ulcer

Gonorrhea

Used to treat primary and secondary syphillis A.Doxycycline В.Minocycline C.Tetracycline D.Demeclocycline

Doxycycline

Used to eradicate meningococcal carrier state A.Doxycycline B.Minocycline C. Carbenicillin D. Vancomycin

Doxycycline

Which of the following may cause Gray bay syndrome in neonates? A. Amikacin B.Tetracyclines C.Chloramphenicol D.Cephalosporins

Chloramphenicol

Discoloration of teeth and deformity in bone in children whose mother received the drug during pregnancy is a common adverse effect of A.Erythromycin B.Tetracycline C.Chloramphenicol D.Cefixime

Tetracycline

Which of the following is NOT an oral preparation of erythromycin? A. Erythromycin estolate В.Erythromycin stearates C.Erythromycin ethylsuccinate D. Erythromycin lactobionate

Erythromycin lactobionate

The following is highly active against Chlamydia infection A. Cephalosporins B. Clarithromycin C.Gentamicin D. Azithromycin

Azithromycin

This antibiotic is very effective against soft tissue infection and abscesses A. Amikacin В.Clarithromycin C.Clindamycin D.Cephalosporins

Clindamycin

Antibiotic that can suppress bone marrow causing aplastic anemia A. Chloramphenicol B. Bacitracin C.Fosfomycin D. Pen G

Chloramphenicol

Common adverse effect of clindamycin A. Pseudomembranous colitis B.Aplastic anemia C. Deafness D. Osteoporosis

Pseudomembranous colitis

Antibiotic that can be deposited in the teeth and bones A.Clindamycin B.Ticarcillin C.Azithromycin D.Tetracycline

Tetracycline

Used in hepatic encephalopathy A.Ceftazidime B.Ceftriaxone C. Neomycin D. Cefuroxime

Neomycin

Which of the following is a correct definition of epilepsy A. One episode of tonic-clonic generalized seizure B. Recurrent episodes of sudden, transient disturbances in cerebral excitation C. Influx of calcium ions lead to repolarization causing seizures D. Increase in GABA causes seizures

B. Recurrent episodes of sudden, transient disturbances in cerebral excitation

Type of seizure characterized by generalized sustained muscle contraction with associated loss of consciousness A. Atonic B. Tonic D. Clonic C. Complex Partial

tonic

This triggers the release of glutamate from the vesicles to the synaptic cleft A. Opening of sodium gated channels B.Opening of the low voltage activated calcium channels C.Influx of calcium from the opening of high-voltage activated calcium channels D. Bonding of glutamate to the AMPA receptorsr

C.Influx of calcium from the opening of high-voltage activated calcium channels

Which is NOT a first-generation anti-epileptic? A.Valproate B. Succinimides C.Iminostilbenes D.Zonisamide

Zonisamide

What is the primary effect of phenytoin? A. Potentiate the inhibitory effect of GABA B. Inhibit spontaneous firing in the thalamic neuron by limiting calcium entry C.Blocks sodium channel in the firing neurons D. Unclear

C.Blocks sodium channel in the firing neurons

First line drug for Absence seizure A. Carbamazepine B. Phenobarbital C.Topiramate D.Ethosuximide

Ethosuximide

First generation anti-epileptic that crosses the placenta and is considered teratogenic C. Gabapentin A. Leviteracetam B. Tigabadin D. Valproic Acid

Valproic Acid

Which of the following drugs lower neuronal excitability A. Topiramate B. Diazepam C. Tigabadine D. Vigabatrin

Topiramate

Which of the following drugs enhance neuronal inhibition? A. Leviteracetam B.Gabapentin C.Pregabalin D.Pentobarbital

Pentobarbital

First line medication for status epilepticus: A. IV Phenytoin B. IV Phenobarbital C. IV Lorazepam D. General anesthesia

IV Lorazepam

What is the primary mechanism of action of Benzodiazepines in seizure control A. Sodium channel blockade C. Calcium channel blockade B. Increase GABAnergic activity D. NMDA receptor antagonism

B. Increase GABAnergic activity

What is the primary pharmacologic action of Lamotrigine A. Sodium channel inhibition B.Inhibition of GABA uptake С.Glutamate receptor antagonism D.Calcium channel blockade

A. Sodium channel inhibition

AED that is used as an off-label drug for trigeminal neuralgia A.Phenytoin B. Valproic Acid C.Carbamazepine D. Diazepam

Carbamazepine

AED that is used as an off-label drug for neuropathic pain A. Phenytoin B. Valproic Acid C.Carbamazepine D.Diazepam

Phenytoin

This drug binds to the SV2A protein found on the glutamate vesicle wall impairing the release of glutamate A. Lamotrigine B. Topiramate C. Leviteracetam D. Felbamate

Leviteracetam

What is the mechanism of action of valproate that contributes to its efficacy in treating seizures A. Blocks sodium channels C. Increase GABA levels B. Blocks calcium channels D. All of the above

all

One of the side effects of this drug include peripheral edema A. Lacosamide B. Leviteracetam C. Gabapentin D. Pregabalin

Gabapentin

Drug that can be used for Lennox-Gastaut syndrome A. Felbamate B. Gabapentin C. Leviteracetam D. Pregabalin

Felbamate

The following are factors for successful withdrawal of AEDs EXCEPT: A. Seizure-free for at least 2 years while on medication B. Good seizure control within 6 months of seizure onset C. Normal neurological exam prior to withdrawal D. Initial onset of seizures during childhood

B. Good seizure control within 6 months of seizure onset

Duration of tapering off medications prior discontinuation A. 1 month B. 2 months C. 3 months D. No need to taper prior discontinuation

3 months

This drug is safer since there is lesser chance of lethal overdose occurrence. A. Flurazepam B. Phenobarbital C. Pentobarbital D. All of the choices

Flurazepam

Primary neurotransmitter that causes inhibition at the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons throughout the brain and spinal cord. A. Acetylcholine B. Chloride C. GABA D. Glutamate

GABA

This drug has lower risk of producing certain side effects and causing problems when discontinued. A. Flurazepam B. Phenobarbital C. Zolpidem D. None of the choices

Zolpidem

This drug is similar in function and structure to melatonin. A. Eszopiclone B. Pentobarbital C. Ramelteon D. Triazolam

Ramelteon

This is the primary problem associated with sedative hypnotic use. A. Anterograde amnesia B. Nausea C. Residual effects D. Tolerance

residual effects

This prolongs the time that the chloride channels remain open. A. Barbiturates B. Benzodiazepines C. GABA D. Zolpidem

Barbituates

Encourage the onset and maintenance of sleep

Diazepam is indicated in the following A. Muscle strain B. Muscle spasm C. Sedation D. All of the choices

all

Combination with barbiturates with this/ these drug/s may potentiate CNS depression. A. Antihistamines B. Alcohol C. Anticonvulsants D. All of the choices

all

This is TRUE about Zolpidem. A. A Benzodiazepine B. Has withdrawal effect C. May cause seizure D. Produces hypnosis

produces hypnosis

Partial serotonin receptor agonist

This drug's short ducation of action has lower risk for developing residual or "hangover" effects. A. Diazepam B. Phenobarbital C. Lorazepam D. Zolpidem

Zolpidem

This is considered as a Benzodiazepine antagonist. A. Flumazenil B. Flurazepam C. Phenobarbital D. Zolpidem

Flumazenil

This is NOT classified as amine neurotransmitter. A. Dopamine B. GABA C. Norepinephrine D. Serotonin

GABA

Mechanism of action of this drug group is through inhibition of neuronal reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin. A. MAOI B. SNRI C. SSRI D. TCA

TCA

Escitalopram is classified under this antidepressant drug group. A. MAOI B. SNRI C. SSRI D. TCA

SSRI

Antidepressant that can be used to treat fibromyalgia. A. Lithium B. MAOI C. SSRI D. TCA

SSRI

This nonselective antidepressant tends to have more interactions with other drugs and may also be more harmful during overdose. A. MAOI B. SNRI C. SSRI D. TCA

TCA

This antidepressant can be dangerous if taken with foods that contain tyramine. A. MAOI B. SNRI C. SSRI D. TCA

MAOI

When a person experiences diminished response after prolonged continuous use of his sedative agent, then this individual is manifesting- A. idiosyncratic reaction B. hypersensitivity C. tachyphylaxis D. tolerance

tolerance

Which agonist activates it target receptors to produce maximal effect, then this drug is considered a agonist. A. full B. inverse C. partial

full

The type of receptors to which steroids attached to is A. ligand-gated B. enzyme-linked C. G protein-coupled D. intracellular

intracellular

The volume of blood that is cleared of drug per unit time is – A. volume of distribution B. half-life C. clearance D. rate of elimination

clearance

Bethanechol

stimulates M3 receptors on muscle cells and myenteric plexus synapses

Metoclopramide

Involve 5HT4 receptor antagonists agonism and vagal and central 5HT 3 antagonism

Psyllium

Indigestible hydrophilic colloids that absorbs water forming a bulky emollient gel that distends colon and promotes peristalsis

Anionic surfactants that lower surface tension of the stool, soften stool material and permit water and lipids

Docusates

Anionic surfactants that lower surface tension of the stool, soften stool material and permit water and lipids

Docusates

Derivative of mu receptor, increases small intestine, mouth to cecum transit time and anal sphincter tone

Loperamide

A 73 year old male has been self-medicating a drug for his insomnia for one month. He has since missed 2 days of the medication due to his busy schedule. While in a meeting, he was noted to be irritable, anxious, and most of the time cursed his colleagues. What condition is the patient experiencing? A. Cerebrovascular disease B. Delusion of grandeur. C. Physiologic dependence D. Psychological dependence

C. Physiologic dependence

A 41 year old female for elective surgery was given IV dose of Thiopental. In 10 seconds the patient was already sedated. The drug’s rapid effect is most likely attributed to: A. Drug dose B. Lipid solubility C. Route of administration D. Tolerance

B. Lipid solubility

A 45 year old male with chronic active hepatitis B was prescribed the standard dose of Zaleplon for his insomnia. The following morning the relative noted difficulty in waking up the patient. This is most likely caused by this drug’s property: A. Active metabolite. B. Enzyme activity. C. Impaired hepatic metabolism D. Short half life

C. Impaired hepatic metabolism

A 32 year old male was prescribed with this drug which has the ability of increasing sleep time as well as decreasing REM sleep. A. Eszopiclone B. Triazolam C. Zaleplon D. Zolpidem

A. Eszopiclone

A 41 year old female was given Thiopental for her elective surgery. The patient was easily aroused after the surgery. What property of the drug is responsible for this? A. Hepatic metabolism B. Lipid solubility. C. Rapid elimination D. Rapid tissue redistribution

D. Rapid tissue redistribution

A 25 year old male has been taking Zolpidem 1 tab nightly for one month to aid his insomnia caused by anxiety. He decided to increase the dose to two tabs nightly thinking it was not making him fall asleep easily recently. The patient may be experiencing what effect of the drug? A. Addiction B. Physiologic dependence C. Psychological dependence D. Tolerance

D. Tolerance

A 52 year old male admitted at the ICU for myocardial infarction was given standard dose of IV Diazepam for his anxiety. He was then noted to be lethargic with markedly decreased cardiac rate. What best explains this occurrence? A. Circulatory collapse B. Depressed transmission at the skeletal neuromuscular junction C. Inhibition of epileptiform electrical activity D. Linear dose-response

D. Linear dose-response

A 2 year old female was brought to the ER due to loss of consciousness and decreased respiratory rate. It was noted that she ingested 15 tablets of Midazolam. What is the next best step to reverse the drug effect? A. Endotracheal intubation B. Gastric lavage C. IV Flumazenil D. IV Naloxone

IV Flumazenil

The mechanism of action of this drug involves binding particularly at the a1 subunit of GABAA receptor. A. Chlordiazepoxide B. Clorazepate C. Eszopiclone D. Midazolam

D. Midazolam

This property of Phenobarbital best explains its sedative-hypnotic action. A. Alkalinization of the urine increases its elimination B. Binds at the a1 and B2 subunits of GABAA receptor C. Increases duration of chloride channel opening D. Inhibits glutamic acid neurotransmission

C. Increases duration of chloride channel opening

The following drugs are inhibitors of cell wall synth A. Carbapenems B. Cephalosporins C.Macrolides D. Penicillin

A. Carbapenems B. Cephalosporins D. Penicillin

Penicillin is classified as a agent A. Bactericidal B. Bacteriostatic.

A. Bactericidal

Which of the following adverse effects is classified as indirect toxicity? A. Anaphylaxis B. Bacteriostatic. C. Ototoxicity B. Oral candidiasis

B. Oral candidiasis

Anaerobes are innately resistant to aminoglycosides because intracellular accumulation is oxygen-dependent. This is an example of resistance. A. Acquired B. Innate

Innate

The following cell wall synthesis inhibitors inhibit peptidoglycan cross-linking EXCEPT A. Carbapenems С.Penicillin B. Cephalosporin D. Vancomycin

Vancomycin

Amoxicillin is classified as A. B-lactamase resistant; narrow spectrum B. B-lactamase susceptible; broad spectrum C. B-lactamase susceptible; narrow spectrum

B. B-lactamase susceptible; broad spectrum*

The MAJOR mechanism of resistance developed by most staphylococci and many gram-negative organisms against penicillin is A. Changes in porin structure B. Formation of beta-lactamases C. Structural change in target penicillin-binding proteins

B. Formation of beta-lactamases

Which penicillin is primarily used for the treatment of known or suspected staphylococcal infections? A. Amoxicillin C. Oxacillin B. Ampicillin D. Penicillin G

C. Oxacillin

Complete cross-allergenicity between different penicillins should be assumed A. TRUE B.FALSE

True

The major route of elimination of cephalosporins is via excretion. A. Biliary B. Renal

Renal

generation cephalosporins are used primarily against gram-positive cocci with minimal gram-negative activity. A.19t B.20d

19t

When combined with ethanol, cefamandole can cause a like reaction. A. Acetaminophen B. Diazepam C. Disulfiram D. Ketamine

C. Disulfiram

This beta-lactam antibiotic is a safe alternative to patients with penicillin or cephalosporin allergy but has no activity against gram positive bacteria? A. Aztreonam B. Bacitracin C. Daptomycin D. Meropenem

Aztreonam

Which of the following acts as suicide inhibitors of bacterial penicillinases? A. Clavulnic acid B. Colistin

A. Clavulnic acid

This is the drug of choice for MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococus aureus) and is associated with red man syndrome. A.Cycloserine B. Ertapenem C. Fosfomycin D. Vancomycin

Vancomycin

inhibits phosphorylation/dephosphorylation cycling

Bacitracin

blocks incorporation of d-Ala into the pentapeptide side chain of the peptidoglycan

Cycloserine

causes membrane depolarization, forming transmembrane channels

Daptomycin

inhibitor of cytosolic enolpyruvate transferase

Fosfomycin

binds to the d-Ala-d-Ala terminal of the nascent peptidoglycan pentapeptide side chain inhibiting transglycosylation

Vancomycin

Which of the following is the COMMON approach in cancer chemotherapy? A) inhibition of tyrosine kinase B) enhance immune response C) DNA/RNA synthesis inhibition D) block endogenous hormone effects

C) DNA/RNA synthesis inhibition

Which of the following refers to the chemotherapy killing a fixed percentage of cancerous cells with a round or dose of the agents? A) cell cycle specificity B) cell kill hypothesis C) cell cycle kinetics D) selective toxicity

B) cell kill hypothesis

Which of the following is TRUE regarding cell cycle non-specific agents? A) acts on cells during the mitotic phase B) effective mostly in hematologic malignancies C) kills the tumor cells in both resting and high growth fraction phase D) all of the above

C) kills the tumor cells in both resting and high growth fraction phase

Which agent acts in the Gs-M phase? A) bleomycin B) capecitabine C) dactinomycin D) etoposide

A) bleomycin

Which of the following is the COMMON adverse effect among antineoplastic agents? A) hypersensitivity B) infusion reaction C) cardiac toxicity D) anemia

D) anemia

Which agent targets specific serotonin receptors to reduce chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting? A) aprepitant B) dexamethasone C) granisetron D) metoclopramide

C) granisetron

Which of the following anticancer agents is CORRECTLY matched with the corresponding classification? A)docetaxel – antitumor antibiotic B)etoposide – antimetabolite C)5-fluorouracil – anthracycline D)lomustine – alkylating agent

D)lomustine – alkylating agent

A 50-year old female with ovarian cancer will be given a platinum analog. Which of the following is appropriate for this case? A) carboplatin B) cisplatin C) oxaliplatin

A) carboplatin

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding paclitaxel, a taxane? A) a cell cycle non-specific agent B) disrupts normal cell division C) mimics constituents needed for DNA synthesis D) regulates DNA replication

B) disrupts normal cell division

Which cancer chemotherapy agent is CORRECTLY matched with the organ/system where it commonly produces adverse effects? A)bleomycin –pulmonary B)cisplatin – pancreas C)daunorubicin – neurologic D)ifosfamide–cardiac

A)bleomycin –pulmonary

Which mechanism is NOT associated with anticancer antibiotic? A) direct interaction with DNA B) inhibition of DNA-related enzymes C) modify mitotic apparatus function D) prevent RNA synthesis

C) modify mitotic apparatus function

A 60-year old male has prostate cancer, a hormone-sensitive cancer. Which agent will be MOST appropriate for this case? A) anastrozole B) flutamide C) tamoxifen D) testosterone

B) flutamide

A 48-year old female with breast cancer is on hormone therapy with the purpose of reducing hormonal stimulation of the breast. However,she has been complaining of bone pain. Which agent was given to this patient? A) teniposide B) leuprolide C) idarubicin D) cladribine

B) leuprolide

Which of the following is a cytokine that has antiviral and antineoplastic activity? A) bevacizumab B) gefitinib C) interferon D) letrozole

C) interferon

Which of the following drug combination is recommended for the treatment of colorectal cancer? A) Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine, Dacarbazine (ABVD) B) Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin (BEP) C) Cyclophosphamide, Methotrexate, Fluorouracil (CMF) D) Folinic acid, Fluorouracil, Oxaliplatin (FOLFOX)

D) Folinic acid, Fluorouracil, Oxaliplatin (FOLFOX)

If chemotherapy will be administered before the appropriate surgery, what is the role of chemotherapy? A) adjuvant B) neoadjuvant C) concurrent D) none of the above

B) neoadjuvant

Which mechanism of resistance is associated with alkylating agents? A) changes in target enzymes B) changes in receptor C) formation of drug-inactivating enzymes D) increased DNA repair

D) increased DNA repair

A patient with lymphoma is receiving the drugs below. After the 2nd course of chemotherapy, the patient started to have peripheral neuropathy. Which of the following anticancer agent could have caused such adverse reaction? A) cyclophosphamide B) Adriamycin C) vincristine D) prednisone

C) vincristine

A patient on cyclophosphamide developed hemorrhagic cystitis, to prevent this which agent can be given as rescue therapy? A) amifostine B) dexrazoxane C) leucovorin D) Mesna

D) Mesna

Which cancer chemotherapy agent is CORRECTLY matched with the corresponding adverse effects? A)bleomycin – dilated cardiomyopathy B)busulfan – hepatotoxicity C)cisplatin–red urine D)doxorubicin – neurotoxicity

B)busulfan – hepatotoxicity

This is part of the lower respiratory tract. A) Bronchus B) Eustachian tube C) Larynx D) Pharynx

A) Bronchus

A 54 year old female diagnosed with pneumonia was advised to take a mucolytic agent. What can be given to the patient? A) Acetylcysteine B) Bromhexine C) Loratadine D) Phenylephrine

A) Acetylcysteine

Suppresses coughing associated with colds and other minor throat irritations. A) Antitussive B) Decongestant C) Expectorant D) Mucolytic

A) Antitussive

A 33 year old male came to the clinic complaining of dry cough for 3 days. What antitussive medication can be given to the patient? A) Ambroxol B) Codeine C) Guaifenesin D) N-Acetylcysteine

B) Codeine

25. Alpha 1-receptor agonists are used to address the symptoms. A) Antitussive B) Decongestant C) Expectorant D) Mucolytic

B) Decongestant

A 24 year old female sought consult due to nasal congestion for 2 days. What decongestant can be given to the patient? A) Brompheniramine B) Carbocisteine C) Hydroxyzine D) Phenylpropanolamine

D) Phenylpropanolamine

This is used in the treatment of respiratory symptoms caused by viral infections such as the common cold and in respiratory allergic response to seasonal allergies. A) Cetirizine B) Codeine C) Dextromethorphan D) Phenylpropanolamine

A) Cetirizine

Diphenhydramine acts on this particular histamine receptor. A) H1 B) H2 C) H3 D) H4

A) H1

This is considered a non-sedating antihistamine. A) Diphenhydramine B) Doxylamine C) Hydroxyzine D) Loratadine

D) Loratadine

This drugattempts to decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions. A) Antitussive B) Decongestant C) Expectorant D) Mucolytic

D) Mucolytic

This long acting bronchodilator can be given as controller medication for bronchial asthma. A. Albuterol B. Formoterol C. Metaproterenol D. Terbutaline

B. Formoterol

This corticosteroid can be given for bronchial asthma management. A. Aminophylline B. Budesonide C. Cromolyn D. Theophylline

B. Budesonide

Mechanism of action of this anti-inflammatory agent is through inhibition of cytokine gene expression and phospholipase A2. A. Antimuscarinic agent B. Corticosteroid C. Methylxanthine D. Leukotriene receptor antagonist

B. Corticosteroid

This is considered a non-selective beta agonist. A. Epinephrine B. Phenylpropanolamine C. Salbutamol D. Salmeterol

A. Epinephrine

This drug enhances bronchodilation by inhibiting the phosphodiesterase (PDE) enzyme located in bronchial smooth-muscle cells. A. Cromolyn B. Fluticasone C. Theophylline D. Tiotropium

C. Theophylline

This is a systemic corticosteroid used to treat acute asthma attack. A. Beclomethasone B. Budesonide C. Flunisolide D. Prednisone

D. Prednisone

This drug is given to address upper respiratory tract infection. A. Carbocisteine B. Cromolyn sodium C. Methylprednisolone D. Montelukast

A. Carbocisteine

The mechanism of action of this asthma drug is through inhibition of leukotriene receptors. A. Betamethasone B. Cromolyn C. Montelukast D. Tiotropium

C. Montelukast

A 22 year old female being treated for bronchial asthma attack was given an inhalational agent. The patient then developed tremors after. What agent may have caused this? A. Albuterol B. Dexamethasone C. Nedocromil D. Zafirlukast

A. Albuterol

A 67 year old male came in due to COPD exacerbation. He was given an inhalational agent which afforded relief of difficulty of breathing. However, the patient developed urinary retention and dry mouth. What agent may have caused this? A. Albuterol B. Ipratropium C. Salmeterol D. Terbutaline

B. Ipratropium

Which of the following is given daily for latent or asymptomatic tuberculosis? A. Rifampicin C. Isoniazid B. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

What is the duration of treatment (months) for tuberculosis? A. 2 C. 6 B. 4 D. 9

Intensive phase therapy for TB is given for – A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 9 months

A. 2 months

Which of the following is NOT given as initial therapy for TB? A. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide B. Isoniazid D. Rifampacin

A. Streptomycin

Which medication is given as prophylaxis for meningococcal carrier? A. INH C. Rifampicin B. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

C. Rifampicin

Which fetal abnormality is seen if a pregnant woman takes streptomycin? A. Nephrotoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity B. Ototoxicity D. ABC

B. Ototoxicity

Which Vitamin B can prevent peripheral neuropathy in patient taking INH? A. B6 C. B9 B. B8 D. B12

48. Which is an adverse effect of ethambutol? A. Hepatotoxic C. Nephrotoxicity B. Ototoxicity D. Optic neuritis

D. Optic neuritis

Which of the following medication can cause gouty arthritis? A. Ethambutol C. Pyrazinamide B. Isoniazid D. Rifampicin

C. Pyrazinamide

Which medication when taken with alcohol can cause disulfiram-like reaction? A. Clindamycin C. Amikacin B. Metronidazole D. ABC

B. Metronidazole

Which medication when taken with alcohol can cause disulfiram-like reaction? A. Clindamycin C. Amikacin B. Metronidazole D. ABC

B. Metronidazole

Metronidazole is effective for – A. Bacteroides C. Clostridium B. Giardia D. All of the above

D. All of the above

DRUG A inhibits viral DNA polymerase when phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase. A. Acyclovir C. Amantadine B. Ozeltamivir D. Ribavirin

A. Acyclovir

Which medication is NOT given orally in patients with influenza? A. Zanamivir C. Amantadine B. Oseltamivir D. Ribavirin

A. Zanamivir

Current medications for HIV/AIDS can eradicate the virus. A. TRUE B. FALSE

false

Which of the following are goals of HIV treatment? A. Viral suppression C. Preserve immunity B. Improve quality of life D. ABC

D. ABC

Which of the following is the standard of care for HIV/AIDS? A. 2NRTIs+1PI C. 1NRTI+2PIs B. 2NNRTIs+1NRTI D. 1NRTI+2INSTI

A. 2NRTIs+1PI

Which of the following is the standard of care for HIV/AIDS? A. 2NRTIs+1PI C. 1NRTI+2PIs B. 2NNRTIs+1NRTI D. 1NRTI+2INSTI

A. 2NRTIs+1PI

Which of the following is the DOC for schistosomiasis? A. Praziquantrel C. Pyrantel pamoate B. Mebendazole D. Niclosamide

A. Praziquantrel

Which is an adverse effect of mbendazole? A. Headache C. GIT B. Weakness D. Loss of appetite

C. GIT

Which of the following is th DOC for tapeworm infestations? A. Pyrantel pamoate C. Niclosamide B. Mebendazole D. ABC

C. Niclosamide

What is the MOST common adverse effect of chloroquine? A. Retina toxicity C. GIT B. Weakness D. Allergy

A. Retina toxicity

Which of the following is NOT a luminal amoebicidal agent? A. Iodoquinol C. Paromomycin B. Diloxanide furoate D. ABC

D. ABC

Which of the following are urinary antiseptic used for acute and chronic UTI that is contraindicated in patients with renal insufficiency? A. Methenmine C. Nitrofurantoin B. Fosfomycin D. ABC

C. Nitrofurantoin

Which antibiotic is a 30 S inhibitor of protein synthesis? A. Streptomycin C. Tetracycline B. Spectinomycin D. ABC

D. ABC

Which is NOT an adverse effect of metronidazole? A. Nausea C. Seizure B. Disulfiram reaction D. Anemia

D. Anemia

Which medication has the highest oral bioavailability? A. Acyclovir C. Famciclovir B. Valacyclovir

C. Famciclovir

66. Which of the following is given as inhalational spray in acute illness due to influenza A and B? A. Amantadine C. Rimantadine B. Oseltamivir D. Zanamivir

D. Zanamivir

Oseltamivir shortens illness duration if taken within A. 12 C. 36 B. 24 D. 48

Which intestinal parasite is treated with praziquantel? A. Tapeworms C. Pinworms B. Round worms D. ABC

A. Tapeworms

What is the DOC of round worms? A. Mebendazole C. Praziquantel B. Diethylcarbamazine D. A and B

A. Mebendazole

Which of the following is an adverse effect of niclosamide? A. GIT distress C. Anemia B. Neurotoxicity D. Hypersensitivity

A. GIT distress

Which of the following is/are antimalarial agent/s? A. Mefloquine C. Chloroquine B. Quinine D. ABC

D. ABC

Which of the following is given for relapsing type of malaria? A. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine B. Iodoquinol D. A and B

A. Primaquine

Which of the following is a urinary antiseptic? A. Nitrofurantoin C. Bethanecol B. Fluoroquinolones D. ABC

A. Nitrofurantoin

Which of the following is a luminal amoebicidal agent? A. Paromomycin C. Iodoquinol B. Diloxanide furoate D. ABC

D. ABC

Which of the following is a 50S inhibitor? A. Tetracycline C. Chloramphenicol B. Spectinomycin D. Amikacin

C. Chloramphenicol

Resistance is when organisms develop this if drugs are used too frequently or treatment is incomplete.

True

Intermittent adherence to preventive measures such hand washing, isolation of those with resistant infection is a strategy to combat resistance.

False Intermittent adherence to preventive measures like handwashing and isolation is not effective in combating antimicrobial resistance. Consistent and rigorous adherence to these measures is essential to prevent the spread of resistant infections. Gaps in adherence can allow resistant organisms to proliferate and spread, undermining control efforts.

Administration of antihistamines with penicillin will NOT prevent hypersensitivity reactions.

true

Cephalosporins are indicated in infections of respiratory tract, skin, UTI, bones and joints, septicemias, some STDs and endocarditis.

true

Quinolones are contraindicated in pregnant women because it can affect cones of the developing fetus.

true