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Compass GOS qUestions > Compass GOS qUestions > Flashcards

Compass GOS qUestions Flashcards

1
Q

Exemption 11498 allows us to:

A

Operate temporarily without the certificates of registration or airworthiness onboard

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2
Q

The vis for takeoff is 1,200’ RVR. What is necessarily for you to take off?

A

A minimum of 2 RVR reports, excluding the “far end” RVR. HIRL, or CL, or RC during daytime; CL or HIRL at night

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3
Q

CPS May never use an airport in class G for an alternate? True or false

A

False

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4
Q

To determine T/O mins, compass uses:

A

The takeoff minimums published in LIDO, but never less than 500/500/500 RVR

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5
Q

At airports that do not have operating ATC facilities and where it is not otherwise possible for the crew to get an IFR clearance, a flight may take off and depart under VFR, provided:

A

(All of the above)

  • flight crew obtains IFR clearance as soon as possible after takeoff, no farther than 50NM
  • vis greater or equal to 1SM for day and 2SM for night
  • remain VMC while VFR
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6
Q

Which type of IAP is approved by OpsSpecs?

  • PAR/ASR
  • RNAV (GPS)
  • SDF
  • None of the above
A

RNAV (GPS)

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7
Q

What is the approved procedure used to derive alternate WX mins by Compass?

A

Option 1/Option 2

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8
Q

Where is the furthest point from an uncontrolled field where a CPS aircraft can cancel IFR and land VFR?

A

No distance requirement if crew can maintain visual reference with landing surface

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9
Q

You have departed the gate at KMSP and are going to KMOT(Minot), which is class D but reverts to G at night. Before T/O you are called back to the gate to pick up a revenue passenger. With the delay, KMOT will be Class G when you arrive. Can you depart?

A

Yes. OpsSpecs allow us to land at KMOT any time.

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10
Q

You wish to use an airport for an alternate that has 4 approaches with the following approach minimums: ILS 30-200’ 1/2; VOR 30- 600’ 2; VOR 12- 400’ 3/4, NDB 12 600’ 2. Wind 210@10G16. What is the LOWEST ceiling and visibility you could use for alternate mins?

A

600’-1 1/4

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11
Q

To conduct terminal arrival VFR operations at a class C airport, what is the lowest ceiling authorized under FAR 91.155 to maintain basic cloud clearance (assume pattern 1500’)?

A

2000’

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12
Q

Unless a pilot calls 1-866-460-0150 to initiate an ASAP report, all ASAP reports must be submitted within 24 hours for a domestic flight, or 48 hours for international flights. True or false?

A

False. Everything’s 24 hours for ASAP now.

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13
Q

Under which of the following situations should a pilot submit an ASAP report?

  • FAR violations
  • SOP violations
  • Significant safety issues
  • all of the above
A

All of the above

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14
Q

The following are valid acceptance criteria for ASAP reporting, except:

A

The asap report must be submitted within 72 hours

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15
Q

An emergency/irregularity (crew) report must be submitted for each occurrence of:

  • interruption of the flight caused by a known or suspected mechanical problem
  • anytime an emergency has been declared
  • situation that may bring attention to company ops or prompt an FAA investigation.
  • all of the above
A

All of the above

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16
Q

When operating above FL250, each flight crewmember must be provided with and continually use an oxygen mast. True or false

A

False

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17
Q

A critical phase of flight is:
A. Any time the autopilot is off.
B. From eng start through climb out of 10,000MSL.
C. Descent out of 10,000 MSL through the completion of the shutdown checklist.
D. B and C

A

D. B and C

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18
Q

While making a turn on the ground, clear the direction of the turn and verbalize. While airborne clear visually (VMC) or TCAS (IMC) but without verbalization. True or false

A

True

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19
Q

Sterile cockpit procedures are in effect when:
A. Descending through 10,000’ MSL
B. Departing cruise altitude if below 10,000 MSL
C. The seatbelt sign on
D. A and B

A

D. A and B

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20
Q

Cell phones may be used

A

On the ground when taxing in, and with captains permission during irregular ops.

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21
Q

The flight attendant(s) must be on board all CPS aircraft in order to begin boarding. True or false

A

True

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22
Q

A station agent may delay a flight without approval for up to how many minutes before scheduled departure time?

A

10

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23
Q

During critical phases of flight, one crewmember may leave his or her station for physiological needs. True or false

A

False

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24
Q

Once an aircraft has left the gate but is still in the ground, system control can recall a flight for everything except:

A

Non-Revenue passengers from other airlines

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25
Q

If your takeoff clearance in visual conditions included the phrase “cleared on course” you should:

A

Unless it is noted otherwise in the departure section of the AIP, turn on course when altitude and obstruction clearance permit, then via your flight plan.

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26
Q

The flight crew should contact dispatch and the station of intended landing any time there is an ATC holding delay beyond 15 min. True or false

A

True

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27
Q

You are at the De-Ice pad. Holdover time begins:

A

When the final application of the de-ice/anti-Ice fluid starts.

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28
Q

CPS flights must pass at least 5 miles (preferably upwind) from known thunderstorms, and not takeoff and land if a thunderstorm is occurring within the airport boundary (within 5 SM of the airport center). True or false

A

False

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29
Q

Hold fuel computation is based on ___ at holding speed.

A

10,000 MSL

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30
Q

If you have been provided with with two sources of weather for your destination and you are trying to determine if you are legal to depart, which statement is true?

A

The least restrictive WX source may be used to determine legality at ETA.

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31
Q

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true regarding exemption 17347?
A.) at the destination, the conditional ceiling AND vis must be no lower than half that required by cat 1 landing mins.
B.) the ceiling is not a factor in determining destination legality.
C.) at the first alternate, the conditional ceiling AND visibility must be no lower than half that required to designate an alternate.
D.) both B and C

A

D. Both B and C

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32
Q

Which statement is true regarding holdover times?

A

Once a holdover time is exceeded, a pre takeoff contamination check must be completed.

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33
Q

Which of the following is required on the dispatch release?

  • min fuel
  • planned fuel
  • holding fuel
  • alternate fuel
A

Minimum fuel.

34
Q

When it comes to windshear:

A

All of the above

35
Q

All inoperative equipment listed in the MEL except for NEFs are required to be listed on the dispatch release. True or false

A

True

36
Q

If a takeoff alternate airport is required for takeoff, the alternate airport must be:

A

Within 1 hour from the departure point, at normal cruise, in still air, with one engine inop.

37
Q

On your dispatch release, you see that you have 600 lbs of holding Fuel. How is this Fuel computed?

A

At 10,000 MSL at holding airspeed

38
Q

The forecast for your destination states:
FM 1000 4SM BR SCT 012 TEMPO 1214 1/4 SM FG.
The ETA at the destination is 1500Z. The ILS cat 1 vis is 1/2 SM. In order to depart, regulations require that you dispatch under 17347. True or false

A

False.

39
Q

An alternate has been designed on a release. While examining the weather at the alternate, the PIC notices a TAF and a RAMTAF available at the ETA. The TAF indicates a lower ceiling and vis than the RAMTAF. According to the FOM, which forecast do you use?

A

TAF. The FOM states the more restrictive (lower) weather must be used to determine if an alternate is legal.

40
Q

What items are required on a dispatch release per compass policy?

A

Aircraft ID, flight number, departure, intermediate, destination, and alternate airports; type of operation, minimum fuel supply; DMIs, and crew members names and ID #’s.

41
Q

Because CPS flights are always dispatched under IFR, we always need an alternate. True or false

A

False

42
Q

At what point on the dispatch release must the most restrictive WX source be applied?

A

Alternate

43
Q

An alternate airport is NOT required for dispatch if the destination weather forecast is for the conditions of:

A

At least 2,000’ ceiling above the airport elevation and at least 3 miles visibility for at least one hour before and after ETA.

44
Q

Dispatch under 17347 is allowed if, at your ETA:

A

The CONDITIONAL visibility is no less than 1/2 that required for the approach at the destination, 1/2 that required to designate an alternate and at or above alternate designation requirements for the 2nd alternate.

45
Q

If the weather conditions at your departure airport are below the lowest category 1 landing minimums for the runway(s) in use:

A

CPS policy requires the dispatch release to list a takeoff alternate.

46
Q

CPS Pilots must be stabilized by 1,000 feet above TDZE, except when specified by normal operating procedures for a particular aircraft in the AOM. True or false

A

False

47
Q

The weather for a circling approach must be:

A

At or above 1,000’ and 3 miles, or the MDA and/or a higher visibility required of the published circling maneuver for the approach, whichever is higher.

48
Q

When planning to circle for landing, you notice that the MDA is 1100’ HAA. What altitude should you circle?

A

1,100 HAA

49
Q

CPS policy regarding landing criteria is that touchdown must occur within the first_____ feet of the first 1/3rd of the runway or ALD, whichever is less.

A

3,000

50
Q

A pushback crew normally consists of a marshaller, a tug driver and 2 wing walkers. True or false

A

False

51
Q

Taxiing within 5 feet of equipment is only permitted with a guide person. True or false

A

False

52
Q

For a visual approach when an ILS is available, the FOM states that you must stay on the ILS glide slope between the outer marker and the middle marker. True or false

A

True

53
Q

SMGCS is used at airports with landing minimums below 1,200’ RVR. True or false

A

True

54
Q

For a visual approach when an ILS is available, a pilot may descend below the GS between the outer marker and middle marker. True or false

A

False

55
Q

If an ILS is not available for a visual approach but the VASI is, the pilot must stay on the VASI glide path until lower is needed for landing in the touchdown zone. True or false

A

True

56
Q

After intercepting glideslope at the published GS intercept altitude, the tower states “TDZ RVR 1,600”. What action is required, assuming plate says RVR 18 or 1/2?

A

The approach can be continued, but landing is only allowed if the flight crew determines that the flight visibility is above landing minimums.

57
Q

On a precision approach, the final approach fix is defined by Maltese Cross. True or false

A

False

58
Q

RVSM airspace is any airspace or route between _____ and _____ inclusive.

A

FL 290, FL 410

59
Q

When operating in RVSM airspace and when given a climb or descent to a new flight level, the aircraft should not be allowed to overshoot or undershoot the cleated flight level by more than ____ ft.

A

150

60
Q

If you lose 2-way communication, you should alert ATC by squawking 7700. True or false

A

False

61
Q

If a passenger was to lose consciousness due to an extreme illness and dies while on board a CPS aircraft, the flight may not depart until released by:

A

Local law enforcement or the coroner

62
Q

The PIC must authorize the use of the emergency medical kit unless used by:

A

Qualified medical personnel

63
Q

After an accident or incident, the PIC must:
A.) ensure the aircraft is secured
B.) contact the NTSB
C.) pull the electronic CBS for the FDR and CVR in accordance with the FOM.
D.) both A and C.

A

D. Both A and C

64
Q

You have been assigned to ferry an aircraft. What does the special flight permit allow you to do?
A. Fly any aircraft to any one of our normal hubs
B. Fly to a base where repairs or alternations may be made
C. Fly an aircraft that is not airworthy, but safe.
D. Both B and C

A

D. Both B and C

65
Q

You should perform a VOR receiver accuracy check prior to the first flight of the day if it’s either the 1st or the 15th, or if the aircraft is being returned to service after not being in operation through either date. True or false

A

True

66
Q

An MEL is restrictive when:
A.) the deferral May allow continued flight with limitations or restrictions to the use of equip.
B.) there is any “remark and/or exemption” in the MEL that requires the aircraft to be flown at variance with the dispatch release.
C.) there are (O), (M), or (M/FC) procedures of any kind.
D.) all of the above

A

D.) all of the above

67
Q

A condition that results in an intermittent CAS message or push button light, including flickering caution/warning lights, are to be considered possibly operating outside design parameters and therefore should be considered as a possible mechanical irregularity. True or false

A

True

68
Q

CPS doesn’t allow the carriage of live animals. True or false

A

False

69
Q

A difficulty seating a handicapped person has been referred to the CRO. What does CRO stand for?

A

Complaint Resolution Officer.

70
Q

Unaccompanied minors are age 2-12. True or false

A

False

71
Q

CPS may not carry high risk passengers. True or false

A

False

72
Q

An animal carrier in the cargo compartment of a Compass aircraft may only be carried in the aft cargo compartment. True or false

A

False

73
Q

What are the flight limitations after a crewmember donates blood?

A

24HRs

74
Q

According to FAR Part 117, each flight crewmember must have at least 30 consecutive hours off from duty in any 168 consecutive hour period. True or false

A

True

75
Q

A CPS pilot may not be scheduled to fly more than ___ hours between required rest periods?

A

8 or 9 depending on duty time.

76
Q

You have inadvertently left your pilot and medical certificates at home. They are current and the company had a copy in the files. You can:

A

You can fly your flight if you obtain a “temporary confirmation document” from CPS or a temporary authorization fax from the FAA

77
Q

A PIC without 100 hours in 14 CFR Part 121 operations in the type of airplane that they are operating, may be dispatched and fly CAT1 approaches under exemption 17203 without adding 100ft and 1/2 SN fo the mins if:

A

All of the above

78
Q

This is just an observation: all “high mins PIC” type questions are answer choice D. I.e. “all of the above, a and b, a and c.

A

.

79
Q

At which airport is a low time SIC prohibited from performing a takeoff?

  • KEWR
  • KDCA
  • KRDU
  • KSAV
A

KDCA

80
Q

A carry on bag weighs ____lbs when stored under the seat?

A

0 lbs.

81
Q

Basic VFR visibility requirements at night in class E airspace while cruising at 8,000’ are:

A

3SM

82
Q

At KMSP, ground control clears you to taxi to runway 12R. This permits you to cross any active runway except for 12R. True or false

A

False

Compass GOS qUestions (1 decks)

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