Comparative Anatomy II Flashcards

1
Q

Which lever system has the effort between the load and fulcrum?

A. First class lever
B. Third class lever
C. Second class lever
D. Fourth class lever
A

B. Third class lever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

You are a famous fossil hunter working in the deserts of Egypt at a site where early modern humans are thought to have lived. While digging at the site you come across what appears to be a fragment of bone from a human spinal column. From what you can tell, this is a vertebral segment that has a rather large vertebral body, short spinous process, and short laterally facing transverse processes. You most likely found a…

A. Cervical vertebra
B. Thoracic vertebra
C. Lumbar vertebra
D. Sacral fragment

A

C. Lumbar vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Whn the medial pterygoid (both heads) works bilaterally, what action is seen?

A. Elevation and protraction of mandible
B. Elevation and retraction of mandible
C. Depression and protraction of mandible
D. Depression and retraction of mandible

A

A. Elevation and protraction of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which is the best description of humerus of living humans, compared to non-human apes?

A. In humans, the humerus exhibits a higher degree of humeral torsion with very similar distal humeral features, compared to non-human apes
B. In humans, the humerus exhibits a lesser degree of humeral torsion, with very similar distal humeral features, compared to non-human apes
C. In humans, the humerus exhibits a higher degree of humeral torsion with very different distal humeral features, compared to non-human apes
D. In humans, the humerus exhibits a lesser degree of humeral torsion with very different distal humeral features, compared to non-human apes

A

A. In humans, the humerus exhibits a higher degree of humeral torsion with very similar distal humeral features, compared to non-human apes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following named arteries contribues to blood supply in the hand?

A. Subclavian artery
B. Axillary artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Radial artery

A

D. Radial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following groups of features would best be attributed to a suspensory/climbing primate?

A. Long lumbar region, narrow thorax, stable shoulder joint, long digits
B. Long lumbar region, narrow thorax, stable shoulder joint, short digits
C. Short lumbar region, broad thorax, mobile shoulder joint, long digits
D. Short lumbar region, broad thorax, mobile shoulder joint, short digits

A

C. Short lumbar region, broad thorax, mobile shoulder joint, long digits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_____________ is a standardized way of positioning the skull so that relationships among structures can be measured in a way that allows direct comparisons among different taxa

A

Frankfurt horizontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

___________ is a term that is used to describe living humans and their direct ancestors

A

Hominins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

____________ refers to a novel characteristic that is unique to a particular species and all of its descendants and can be used as a defining character for a species or group

A

Apomorphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

______________ refers to the ancestral state; an example would be humans having a spine

A

Plesiomorphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

______________ refers to a distinctive feature or derived trait that is unique to a particular taxon. AKA it is not shared among descendants, only your species has it

A

Autapomorphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

_____________ is a shared primitive characteristic

A

Symplesiomorphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_____________ is a shared derived characteristic that is assumed to be present in the most recent common ancestor

A

Synapomorphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

____________ structures are shared characteristics of organisms that were inherited from a common ancestor

A

Homologous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

____________ structures are shared characteristics that arise because of similar selective pressures, through the process of parallel or convergent evolution. These are characteristics that are similar in organisms that have separate evolutionary lineages

A

Analogous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

________________ refers to an evolutionary trend in which selection has exerted similar pressures on two closely related organisms

A

Parallelism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_____________ refers to an evolutionary trend where selection has exerted similar pressure on two distantly related organisms

A

Convergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A ____________ is a character shared by a set of species but not present in their common ancestor. A good example is the evolution of the eye which has originated independently in many different species.

A

Homoplasy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

____________ evolution is the origin of a homoplasy

A

Convergent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Generally, a more ___________ positioned foramen magnum is associated with orthograde postures and bipedal behaviors

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bipedality in humans is related to a relatively ______ lumbar region and a ________ shaped thorax

A

Short

Barrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bipedality in humans is related to a __________ sacral angle and a pronounced _________ curvature

A

Increased

Spinal (especially lumbar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bipedality in humans is related to a _________ coccyx and progressively ________ vertebral bodies that allow weight transmission to lower limb through a columnar structure

A

Reduced

Larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Given that Australopithecines had skulls attaching more inferiorly and an S-shaped spine with small, lighter vertebrae that were not likely weight bearing, How would you describe their most likely locomotive behavior?

A

Likely facultative bipeds, mostly arboreal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Given that Homo ergaster/erectus had the following characteristics:

Barrel shaped rib cage, lumbar lordosis, 5 lumbar vertebrae, and small thoracic vertebrae/vertebral foramina

How would you characterize their most likely locomotive behavior?

A

Likely habitual, terrestrial bipeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 4 osteological parts of the human thorax?

A

Clavicles
Sternum
Ribs
Scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 3 parts of the sternum from superior to inferior?

A

Manubrium
Body
Xiphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Human ribs are only associated with the _______ region. They articulate with the ________ and vertebrae.

A

Thoracic

Sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ribs 1, 2, 11, & 12 are considered ___________

A

Atypical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ribs 1-7 are considered _______ ribs

A

True (vertebrocostal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ribs 8-10 are considered _______ ribs

A

False (vertebrochondral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ribs 11 and 12 are considered _________ ribs

A

Floating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the term hominoid refer to?

A

Apes and humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does the term hominin refer to?

A

Humans and their direct ancestors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Compare the thorax and lumbar region of an arboreal quadruped vs. suspensory climber

A

Arboreal and terrestrial quadrupeds have narrow thorax and long lumbar region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe general characteristics of cervical vertebrae in terms of size, body shape, foramen size, and characteristics of spinous processes

A

Smaller, rectangular bodies
Large vertebral foramen
Spinous processes are forked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe characteristics of thoracic vertebrae

A

Facets on transverse processes for ribs

Demi-facets on ribs articulate between the vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe characteristics of lumbar vertebrae

A

Large bodies (support more weight)
Shorter spinous processes
Shorter transverse processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe features of the atlas

A

Atlas = C1

Superior articular facet articulates with occipital condyles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the identifying feature of the axis?

A

Axis = C2

Has the dens, aka odontoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which vertebrae appear concave from posterior to anterior?

A

Cervical and lumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which vertebrae appear convex from posterior to anterior?

A

Thoracic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Extrinsic muscles of the back are considered ______ and are innervated by the ________ rami of spinal nerves

A

Hypaxial

Ventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Intrinsic muscles of the back are considered _______ and are innervated by the _____ rami of spinal nerves

A

Epaxial

Dorsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are extrinsic muscles of the back generally used for?

A

Movement of the upper limbs and pectoral girdle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are intrinsic muscles of the back generally used for?

A

Mainly postural muscles that support and move the vertebral column and head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The erector spinae group and transversospinalis group are considered to be a part of which type of musculature in the back?

A

Intrinsic (epaxial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The muscles of the human pectoral region are innervated by the ______ rami of spinal nerves via branches of the _________ _________

A

Ventral

Brachial plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which cervical vertebrae does not have a body?

A

Atlas (C1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How does human thoracic shape compare to other primates?

A

Overall shape
Position of scapulae
Rib shape
Posterior invagination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the 5 primary hypaxial/extrinsic muscles of the back?

A

Trapezius
Latissimus dorsi

Levator scapulae
Rhomboid major
Rhomboid minor

Serratus posterior superior
Serratus posterior inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the primary function of the extrinsic back muscles: serratus posterior superior and inferior?

A

Accessory breathing muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the erector spinae muscles from most lateral to closest to the spine?

A

Iliocostalis
Longissimius dorsi
Spinalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Are the erector spinae muscles intrinsic or extrinsic?

A

Intrinsic (epaxial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the 3 muscles of the transversospinalis group of the intrinsic (epaxial) muscles of the back?

A

Rotatores
Multifidus
Semispinalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What two muscles overlay the musculature of the posterior neck?

A

Splenius

Semispinalis capitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the 4 primary muscles of the posterior neck?

A

Rectus capitis posterior major
Rectus capitis posterior minor
Obliquus capitis superior
Obliquus capitis inferior

[these are mainly postural and aid in extension+rotation at atlantoaxial joint]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

All muscles of the upper limbs are innervated by the brachial plexus except trapezius. The trapezius muscles is innervated by what nerve?

A

The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)

[this nerve also innervates the sternocleidomastoid m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Name the 4 primary muscles of the abdominal wall from more anterior/superficial to more posterior/deeper?

A

External obliques
Internal obliques
Rectus abdominus
Transversus abdominus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What two muscles converge to make up the iliopsoas muscle?

A

Iliacus

Psoas major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the 4 primary posterior muscles of the abdominal wall?

A

Iliacus, psoas major, psoas minor, quadratus lumborum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Iliacus, psoas major (iliopsoas), and psoas minor function primarily as _______ of the trunk and/or hip

A

Flexors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The pair of muscles known as quadratus lumborum extends the lumbar vertebral region and also contributes to lateral ______

A

Flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What bones make up the pectoral girdle?

A

ONLY the clavicle and scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Your stylopodium is your _______

A

Humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Your zyogpodium refers to your ______

A

Ulna and radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Your autopodium refers to your ______

A

Hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The tip of your scapular spine is known as the ____________

A

Acromion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The glenoid of apes and humans is ___________ to accommodate more shoulder mobility

A

Rounder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In quadrupedal monkeys, the glenoid is _________ in shape

A

Pririform (pear-like)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Quadrupeds have a _________ scapula cranially-caudally, but __________ from the vertebral border to axillary border to facilitate movement during quadrupedal locomotion

A

Shorter

Broader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Climbers and suspensory forms have ________ scapulae with a more __________ oriented glenoid to allow greater mobility and rotational movement

A

Long

Cranially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In particular, lengthening the infraspinous portion of the ___________ provides greater attachment for muscles that superiorly rotate the glenoid, raising arm overhead

A

Scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Humeral torsion is present early in ontogeny and affects the placement of the bicipital groove on the humerus, which accommodates the tendon of biceps brachii. What is thought to be the purpose of increased humeral torsion in humans?

A

Related to tool use, which requires laterally oriented shoulders and anteriorly oriented elbows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What type of locomotive behavior is related to limited extension due to longer olecranon process?

A

Quadrupedalism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What type of locomotive behavior is related to increased extension due to shorter olecranon process?

A

Climbing/suspensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Stronger flexion at the elbow joint is accommodated by a higher ___________ ___________ which is the attachment point for the brachialis m., the main elbow flexor, in climbers and suspensory forms

A

Coronoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Describe the olecranon fossa of apes as it relates to preventing hyperextension during weight bearing knuckle walking

A

Deep olecranon fossa with a strongly developed lateral trochlear ridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How many bones in the wrist?

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How many bones in the hand?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How many bones in the fingers?

A

14 bones

[each digit has 3 segments except thumb which has 2]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

African ape knuckle walking features include:

Limited degree of wrist ______________
Limited metacarpophalangeal joint ____________
Deeply _________ distal radial surface
___________ expansion of metacarpal heads
Relatively _______ proximal phalangeal segments

A
Dorsiflexion (extension)
Dorsiflexion
Concave
Dorsal
Short
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Orangutans (pongo) have the following adaptations to climbing:

_______, very curved phalangeal segments
Metacarpals II and V show a ________ degree of curvature than African apes
_______ bony cortex of all metacarpals
_________ length of the 4th digit relative to other digits

A

Long
Greater
Thicker
Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Of the anterior pectoral girdle muscles, what serves as the upward rotator of the scapula?

A

Serratus anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Of the anterior pectoral girdle muscles, what serves as the downward rotator of the scapula?

A

Pectoralis minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Of the anterior pectoral girdle muscles, what 2 muscles serve as depressors of the clavicle?

A

Subclavius

Pectoralis minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Of the anterior pectoral girdle muscles, what 2 muscles serve to protract the scapula?

A

Serratus anterior

Pectoralis minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Of the anterior pectoral girdle muscles, what 2 muscles flex the humerus?

A

Deltoid

Pectoralis major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Of the anterior pectoral girdle muscles, what muscle serves to abduct the humerus?

A

Deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Of the anterior pectoral girdle muscles, what muscle serves to adduct the humerus?

A

Pectoralis minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Of the anterior pectoral girdle muscles, what muscle serves in inward (medial) rotation?

A

Subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

In terms of posterior pectoral girdle muscles, what muscle serves as an upward rotator of the scapula?

A

Trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

In terms of posterior pectoral girdle muscles, what 3 muscles serve as downward rotators of the scapula?

A

Levator scapulae
Rhomboids
Latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

In terms of posterior pectoral girdle muscles, what 2 muscles serve to retract the scapula?

A

Rhomboids

Trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

In terms of posterior pectoral girdle muscles, what muscle elevates the scapula?

A

Levator scapulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

In terms of posterior pectoral girdle muscles, what 3 muscles act as extensors of the humerus?

A

Deltoid
Pectoralis major
Latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

In terms of posterior pectoral girdle muscles, what 2 muscles serve as abductors of the humerus?

A

Deltoid

Supraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

In terms of posterior pectoral girdle muscles, what 3 muscles serve as adductors of the humerus?

A

Deltoid
Latissimus dorsi
Teres major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

In terms of posterior pectoral girdle muscles, what 2 muscles serve in external (lateral) rotation?

A

Infraspinatus

Teres minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

In terms of posterior pectoral girdle muscles, what 2 muscles serve in inward (medial) rotation?

A

Latissimus dorsi

Teres major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What 4 muscles make up the rotator cuff?

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis

[Remember SITS!]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What 3 muscles make up the anterior (flexor) compartment of the arm?

A

Biceps brachii (long and short heads)
Brachialis
Coracobrachialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What 2 muscles make up the posterior (extensor) compartment of the arm?

A
Triceps brachii (long, lateral, and medial heads)
Anconeus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the 4 superficial muscles of the anterior forearm?

A

Pronator teres
Flexor carpi radialis
Palmaris longus
Flexor carpi ulnaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the intermediate muscle of the anterior forearm?

A

Flexor digitorum superficialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the 3 deep muscles of the anterior forearm?

A

Flexor digitorum profundus
Flexor pollicis longus
Pronator quadratus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the 3 muscles that make up the superficial lateral compartment of the posterior forearm?

A

Brachioradialis
Extensor carpi radialis longus
Extensor carpi radialis brevis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What 3 muscles make up the superficial layer of the posterior forearm?

A

Extensor carpi ulnaris
Extensor digitorum
Extensor digiti minimi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What 5 muscles make up the deep layer of the posterior forearm?

A
Supinator
Abductor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis brevis
Extensor indicis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What muscle group of the hand attaches to tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus?

A

Lumbricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What muscle group of the hand adducts the fingers?

A

Palmar interosseous muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What muscle group of the hand abducts the fingers?

A

Dorsal interosseus muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Is the long hand musculature (tendons from forearm) more developed and stronger in apes or humans?

A

Apes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Is the short hand musculature (intrinsic hand muscles) more developed in apes or humans?

A

Humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What important thumb muscle is absent as its own muscle in African apes and orangutans?

A

Flexor pollicis longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are the two major blood supplies to the posterior shoulder?

A

Subclavian arteries

Axillary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

The pectoral region is supplied by branches of the ________ artery

A

Axillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

The arm is supplied by the ______ artery and its branches

A

Brachial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

The forearm is supplied by what two arteries?

A

Radial and ulnar

120
Q

What are the 2 main blood supplies to the hand?

A

Radial and ulnar arteries

121
Q

Which layer of the skin contains large vessels and nerves?

A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis
D. Dermal papillae

A

C. Hypodermis

122
Q

What are the 2 layers of the dermis?

A
Papillary layer (pain, heat, cold, pain receptors)
Reticular layer (fat+lymph, oil+sweat glands, hair)
123
Q

The thick epidermis is only found on palms and soles. All 5 epidermal strata occur in thick skin. Which epidermal strata is missing in thin epidermis?

A

Stratum lucidum

124
Q

____________ are sebaceous glands associated with hair follicles and secrete oil that adds to the skin’s protective barrier

A

Holocrine

125
Q

_______________ are a type of sweat gland that is made up of cellular filtrate which promotes bacterial growth. These are found diffusely on horses but only in axillary and pubic regions in humans

A

Apocrine

126
Q

___________ are another type of sweat gland that produces watery perspiration through filtration of plasma. It is a very dilute solution containing waste products like urea

A

Eccrine

127
Q

What type of sweat gland is considered metabolically more expensive but better at removing body heat and is less wasteful?

A

Eccrine

Apocrine are considered wasteful bc losing cellular filtrate

128
Q

What is another name for the dermal ridges that act as friction pads? Aka fingerprints

A

Dermatoglyphs

129
Q

A __________ refers to a hoof or nail

A

Ungula

130
Q

A ________ refers to a sharp curved claw

A

Falcula

131
Q

A __________ refers to a claw-like nail found in some primates

A

Tegula

132
Q

The arrector pili muscle is responsible for raising the hair on the body and is under control of what nervous system?

A

Sympathetic

133
Q

What permits humans to efficiently sustain metabolically expensive, potentially heat-producing behaviors such as long-distance running for relatively long periods of time?

A

The ability to efficiently cool the body through evaporation (sweating) over large areas of the body

134
Q

What are the trade offs to more efficient evaporative cooling in humans?

A

Fluid lost must be replenished

Must consume more energy and maintain thicker layer of fat to make up for lack of insulation d/t hair loss

135
Q

Darker skin has a form of melanin called ______ while lighter skin has a form of melanin called _______

A

Eumelanin

Pheomelanin

136
Q

What is the vitamin D hypothesis as it relates to human skin pigmentation?

A

Humans migrating from lower latitudes to high latitudes will have shortage of vitamin D3 unless melanin production is reduced

137
Q

What is the solar protection hypothesis as it relates to human skin pigmentation?

A

Habitat and climate variable appear to account for 80% of observed variation in skin color [K wright thinks this is best supported]

138
Q

What are 6 other hypotheses regarding human skin pigmentation?

A
Camoflauge
Protection of nutrients
Protection against cold
Protection against tropical disease
Thermoregulation
Sexual selection
139
Q

What are the 4 cell types associated with epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes
Melanocytes
Langerhans cells
Merkel cells

140
Q

Cutaneous mechanoreceptors include merkel disks, meissner’s corpuscles, pascinian corpuscles, ruffinis corpuscles, end-bulbs of krause, root hair plexus, and nociceptors. What is the specific function of each of these?

A
Merkel disks = fine touch + pressure
Meissners = light tough (most sensitive)
Pascinian = vibration 
Ruffini = heat
End-bulbs = touch+pressure
Root hair plexus = touch
Nociceptor = pain
141
Q

What are some hypotheses explaining hair reduction in humans?

A
Body size
Aquatic habitat
Parasites
Sexual attraction
Clothing+culture
142
Q

What is the sequence of blood as it moves through the primitive heart?

A

Sinus venosus
Atrium
Ventricle
Conus arteriosus

143
Q

The following characteristics refer to what group:

Reduced number of aortic arches
Pulmonary circulation

A

Tetrapods

144
Q

The following characteristics refer to what group:

Pulmonary and systemic circuit chambers completely isolated from each other

Aortic arch on left

Involvement in regulation of body temp

A

Mammals

145
Q

The following characteristics refer to what group:

Blood cells contain hemoglobin
Closed circ. System
Heart compartmentalized
Aorta positioned in front of spinal column

A

Vertebrates

146
Q

The following characteristics refer to what group:

Increased efficiency in keeping the brain cool

A

Humans

147
Q

What is the difference between an open vs. closed circulatory system?

A

In an open system, blood is pumped into body cavities where tissues are bathed in blood (hemolymph)

In a closed system, blood is inside vessels at all times and does not fill body cavities

148
Q

What valves in the heart function most similarly to veins?

A

Semilunar valves because the force of blood from ventricles forces the valves open and a slight backflow pushes them closed

149
Q

What valves of the heart are tricuspid?

A

Right AV valve

Semilunar valves

150
Q

What valve(s) of the heart are bicuspid?

A

Left AV valve (mitral valve)

151
Q

The circumflex artery and anterior interventricular artery are branches of what artery?

A

Left coronary artery (aka left anterior descending a.)

152
Q

The right coronary artery branches into which 2 arteries?

A

Posterior interventricular a.

Right marginal a.

153
Q

The ductus arteriosus is a fetal structure that later becomes what?

A

Ligamentum arteriosum

154
Q

The foramen ovale is a fetal structure that eventually becomes what?

A

Fossa ovalis

155
Q

The ductus venosus is a fetal structure that later becomes what?

A

Ligamentum venosum

156
Q

The umbilical vein is a fetal structure that eventually becomes what?

A

Ligamentum teres

157
Q

The umbilical arteries are fetal structures that later become what?

A

Medial umbilical ligaments

158
Q

Blood supply to the head and neck originates from the aortic arch. The right side comes from the ______________ ___________ and the left side comes from the __________ and ___________

A

Brachiocephalic trunk (R. Common carotid and R. Subclavian)

Left common carotid; left subclavian

159
Q

Internal arterial supply to the brain is supplied by what 2 arteries?

A

Vertebral arteries

Internal carotid arteries

160
Q

External arterial supply to the head is from what artery?

A

External carotids

161
Q

External arterial supply to the neck is due to what 2 arteries?

A
External carotid arteries
Thyrocervical trunks (from subclavians)
162
Q

The following arteries are branches of what major artery?

Superficial temporal a.
Posterior auricular a.
Occipital a.
Maxillary a.
Facial a.
Ascending pharyngeal a.
Lingual a.
Suprahyoid a.
Superior laryngeal a.
Superior thyroid a.
A

External carotid artery

163
Q

What provides venous drainage for the brain?

A

Dural sinuses to internal jugular veins

164
Q

What 3 veins provide venous drainage of the head?

A

Internal jugular veins
External jugular veins
Vertebral veins

165
Q

What 2 veins provide venous drainage of the neck?

A

Internal jugular

External jugular

166
Q

The circle of willis is an important anastomosis of arteries around the sella turcica (sphenoid bone). What is the primary purpose of the sella turcica?

A

Equalizes blood pressure in brain and can provide collateral channels if a vessel becomes blocked

167
Q

What aspect of the circle of willis is absent in macaques?

A

Anterior communicating artery

168
Q

What is the bovine pattern of the aortic arch?

A

The brachiocephalic trunk gives rise to the L. Common carotid, R. Common carotid, and R. Subclavian arteries

The normal human arch has the R. Carotid and R. Subclavian coming off the brachiocephalic trunk, but the L. Carotid branches directly off the aortic arch itself

The true bovine arch has everything coming off the brachiocephalic trunk, including the left subclavian

169
Q

What are the 3 main digestive system branches of the circulatory system?

A
Celiac trunk (foregut)
Superior mesenteric (midgut)
Inferior mesenteric (hindgut)
170
Q

What are the 3 branches of the celiac trunk?

A

Common hepatic a.
Left gastric a.
Splenic a.

These are all foregut derivatives

171
Q

What are the 4 main components of the hepatic portal system?

A

Hepatic portal vein
Splenic vein
Superior mesenteric vein
Inferior mesenteric vein

172
Q

Name some of the many characteristics of the human reproductive system that make us distinct from other mammals and primates

A
No baculum
Enlarged external genitalia
Heavy menstrual flow
Menopause
Hemochoral placenta
Constricted birth canal d/t bipedalism
Fetal head fits tightly thru F pelvis
Fetus has characteristic passage thru
Longer labor
Assistance to mother required
Relatively altricial infants
High carb maternal milk
Permanent enlargement of F breasts
173
Q

Humans, rodents, and haplorhines have what type of placenta?

A

Hemochorial

174
Q

Dogs and cats have what type of placenta?

A

Endotheliochorial

175
Q

Cows, pigs, horses, and strepsirhines have what type of placenta?

A

Epitheliochorial

176
Q

Define reproductive success

A

Having as many offspring as possible survive into adulthood

177
Q

What subclass of mammals utilizes the following reproductive strategy:

Laying eggs

A

Prototherians

178
Q

What subclass of mammals utilizes the following reproductive strategy:

Retaining egg in uterus for entire ovulatory cycle, fetus flushed out with endometrial lining, underdeveloped fetus emerges from birth canal and stays in pouch

A

Metatherian

179
Q

What subclass of mammals utilizes the following reproductive strategy:

Endometrium is retained, placenta supplies fetus, extended gestation, more developed fetus at birth

A

Eutherian

180
Q

What type of pelvis has a round pelvic inlet, shallow pelvic cavity with short ischial spines, and is thought to be the most suitable for childbirth?

A. Platypelloid
B. Gynecoid
C. Android
D. Anthropoid

A

B. Gynecoid

181
Q

What type of pelvis has a narrow inlet from front to back, with a very shallow pelvic cavity, a shape which makes it difficult for the infant’s head to engage the birth canal?

A. Platypelloid
B. Gynecoid
C. Android
D. Anthropoid

A

A. Platypelloid

182
Q

What type of pelvis has triangular or heart-shaped inlet and is narrow anteriorly, has prominent ischial spines, and tends to be present in taller individuals. This pelvis can make childbirth more difficult.

A. Platypelloid
B. Gynecoid
C. Android
D. Anthropoid

A

C. Android

183
Q

What type of pelvis has an oval shaped inlet that is large from front to back, and transversely narrow, with a larger outlet but relatively small inlet overall. The infant head tends to engage normally, but it is associated with a slower process.

A. Platypelloid
B. Gynecoid
C. Android
D. Anthropoid

A

D. Anthropoid

184
Q

Known pelvic material for Australopithecus afarensis suggests a birth canal that is wide from side to side but narrow from front to back, probably due to locomotor requirements than obstetric constraints. Bipedalism requires having an SI joint as close to the _____________ as possible. A wider pelvis supplies better support for hip abductors (small gluteal muscles). Australopiths likely had small brains and small heads. Homo erectus had a relatively larger brain than A. Afarensis and further adaptations to obligate bipedalism. Similar pelvic dimensions with a medium sized head, compared to modern humans would have made for a relatively easy journey through the birth canal

A

Acetabulum

185
Q

_______ _______ is defined as the sequence of anatomical, physiological, and behavioral changes and events that an organism experiences over the course of its lifetime, from its conception to its death

A

Life history

186
Q

What are the 6 primary stages of mammalian life history?

A
  1. Fetal
  2. Infancy
  3. Juvenile
  4. Subadult
  5. Adult
  6. Post-reproductive (females)
187
Q

Minimal investment in individual growth and a high reproductive output is indicative of what type of strategist?

A

R strategist

188
Q

Maximum investment in individual growth and a low reproductive output is characteristic of what type of strategist?

A

K strategist

189
Q

An increase in animal body size and complexity are indicators of a trend toward what type of strategist?

A

K

190
Q

Anatomically, CN I is made up of numerous olfactory axons that are collectively called the ______ _________

A

Fila olfactoria

191
Q

Olfactory info is carried from the MOB to what part of the brain?

A

Paleocortex - phylogenetically oldest portion

192
Q

All vertebrates except aquatic mammals have an MOB. An AOB is present in most vertebrates but not OWM or humans. What is the AOB associated with?

A

The VNO

193
Q

The MOE/MOB senses volatile, airborne stimuli. What is the function of the VNO/AOB?

A

Receives nonvolatile aromatic stimuli called pheromones

194
Q

The ____________ is the moist, naked surface surrounding the nasal openings/nostrisl of most mammals; it is sensitive to touch but lacks olfactory receptors

A

Rhinarium

Note that it also probably assists in delivering pheromones to VNO

195
Q

Which primates are considered wet-nosed?

A

Strepsirrhines

196
Q

Which primates are considered dry-nosed?

A

Haplorrhines (including platyrrhines and catarrhines)

197
Q

Which primates are considered dry-nosed and have downward facing nostrils?

A

Catarrhines

198
Q

Which primates are considered dry-nosed and have side-facing nostrils?

A

Platyrrhines

199
Q

What is the trade-off hypothesis as it relates to special senses?

A

Idea that specialization of one sensory function will impair another. Increased reliance on vision –> decreased reliance on olfaction

200
Q

Which group had a spiracle (primitive opening to inner ear)

A

Early tetrapods

201
Q

Early therapsids were the first to have the articular, quadrate, and stapes involved in sound conduction. What did each of these eventually become in terms of inner ear bones?

A

Articular –> malleus
Quadrate –> incus
Stapes remains

202
Q

The original jaw joint was made up of the quadrate-articular, which later complexed with what would eventually become the sole jaw joint. What bones made up this addition?

A

Dentary-squamosal

203
Q

Pharyngeal arch 1 gave rise to which bone(s) of the inner ear?

A

Malleus and incus

204
Q

Pharyngeal arch 2 gave rise to which bone(s) of the inner ear?

A

Stapes

205
Q

What was the early Jurassic mammal that shows the beginnings of modern therian mammal inner ear anatomy?

A

Dryloestes

206
Q

What area of the brain is specialized for speech recognition and comprehension?

A

Wernicke’s

207
Q

The incudomalleolar joint is between which two bones of the middle ear?

A

Incus and malleus

208
Q

The incudostapedial joint is located between what two bones of the middle ear?

A

Incus and stapes

209
Q

The tensor tympani muscle inserts on which bone of the middle ear?

A

Malleus

210
Q

__________ are swellings at the base of semicircular canals

A

Ampullae

211
Q

________ ________ is the sensory organ of angular acceleration and deceleration in each ampulla

A

Crista ampullaris

212
Q

__________ are the gelatinous components of the crista ampullaris in ampullae

A

Cupula

213
Q

The __________ is the otolith organ within the macula that is oriented horizontally and senses linear acceleration

A

Utricle

214
Q

The _______ is the otolith organ within the macula that is oriented vertically and senses linear acceleration

A

Sacculus

215
Q

What type of lever system has resistance between the fulcrum and applied force?

A

Second class

216
Q

What type of lever system has the force between the resistance and the fulcrum?

A

3rd class

217
Q

What type of lever system has a fulcrum in the middle, between force and resistance?

A

First class

218
Q

In terms of lever systems in the body, a long bone acts as a _______, a joint serves as the ______, and the ________ is generated by the muscle attached to the bone

A

Lever
Fulcrum
Effort

219
Q

The nuchal musculature is an example of what type of lever system?

A

First class

220
Q

Lifting a dumbbell with the biceps is an example of what type of lever system?

A

Third class

221
Q

Standing on the ball of the foot is an example of what type of lever system?

A

Second class

222
Q

What anatomical difference is seen in the forearm of bears, resulting in very strong but relatively slower flexion?

A

The biceps tendon inserts further down (distally) on the forearm

**So the longer the effort is relative to the load arm, the more efficient the lever system is

223
Q

What anatomical difference in chimps and apes results in their waddle-like gait when walking bipedally?

A

Their small gluteal musculature is not in the same placec as ours, so in order to stabilize themselves they have to center their weight on either leg with each step

224
Q

The femoral angle is an example of what type of lever system?

A

First class

225
Q

The mandible is an example of what type of lever system?

A

Third class

226
Q

What are the 2 paired cranial bones?

A

Parietal

Temporal

227
Q

What are the 4 unpaired cranial bones?

A

Frontal
Occipital
Sphenoid
Ethmoid

228
Q

How many cranial bones do we have?

A

8

229
Q

How many facial bones do we have?

A

14

230
Q

What are the 6 paired facial bones?

A
Zygomatic
Lacrimal
Nasal
Palatine
Maxillae
Inferior nasal conchae
231
Q

What are the 2 unpaired facial bones?

A

Vomer

Mandible

232
Q

What are the 4 paranasal sinuses?

A

Frontal
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Maxillary

233
Q

What suture of the skull is straighter in lower primates and has become progressively more curvevd in humans and our more recent ancestors?

A

Squamous

234
Q

Chewing involving significant lateral motions of the mandible and expansion of the brain and braincase are characteristics of which particular group from the Langdon table?

A

Hominins

235
Q

Anterior protrusion of the skull, development of mastoid process, flexion of the basicranium and retraction of the face, and forehead replacing the supraorbital tori are characteristics of what group from the Langdon table?

A

Modern humans

236
Q

What are the 4 primary muscles of mastication?

A

Temporalis
Masseter
Medial and lateral pterygoids

237
Q

The primate gluteus maximus extends much further down the femur in chimps than in humans. What function does the gluteus maximus serve in other primates that it does not do much of in humans?

A

Abductor

238
Q

The muscle that contributes the most in our gluteal region is the ________, while in chimps and gorillas it is the ___________

A

Gluteus maximus

Gluteus medius

239
Q

What part of the pharynx is intimately tied into both respiratory and gustative function?

A

Oropharynx

240
Q

According to Langdon, what respiratory adaptations are specific to humans?

A

Decoupling of breath from locomotion
Elimination of thermoregulatory breathing
Enlargement of pharynx and its use in speech
Enlargement of spinal canal for increased motor control of breathing
Protruding nose

241
Q

What are the 3 primary theories as to why the Neanderthals had a pneumotized face?

A
  1. Cool body
  2. Warm incoming air
  3. Simply due to relatively large face
242
Q

The posterior nasopharynx wall houses a single pharyngeal tonsil, commonly called __________

A

Adenoids

243
Q

___________ tonsils are on the lateral wall between the anterior palatoglossal arches and posterior palatopharyngeal arches

A

Palatine

244
Q

__________ tonsils are at the base of the tongue

A

Lingual

245
Q

Order the following from superior to inferior: bronchi, trachea, larynx

A

Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi

246
Q

What are the 6 major components of the digestive tract as well as the 4 accessory organs?

A
Esophagus
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine 
Rectum+anus

Associated organs: spleen, pancreas, liver, gallbladder

247
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the small intestine in order?

A

Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum

248
Q

What are the components of the large intestine in order?

A
Cecum
Ascending colon
Transverse colon
Descending colon
Sigmoid colon
249
Q

What are the dietary adaptations for fruit eaters?

A

Broad incisors
Low, rounded molar cusps
Long small intestine

250
Q

What are the dietary adaptations for gum eaters?

A

Stout incisors
Claws for clinging
Long cecum

251
Q

What are the dietary adaptations for leaf eaters?

A

Well developed molar shearing crests
Small incisors
Large cecum

252
Q

What are the dietary adaptations of insect eaters?

A

Sharp cusps

Short and simple gut (chitin from exoskeleton easily passes through)

253
Q

What evolutionarily adaptive behavior led to the ability to detoxify food before eating it?

A

Cooking

254
Q

According to Langdon, what are the mammalian characteristics of the excretory system?

A

Loop of Henle enhances conservation of water

Ureter separates from the female vagina; common cloaca lost

255
Q

According to Langdon, what are the human characteristics of the excretory system?

A

Urine concentrating ability is slightly less than that predicted for body size

Eccrine sweat glands supplement the nephrons in filtration and excretion of wastes

256
Q

What are the components of the urinary system as well as the major accessory organ(s)

A

Kidneys
Ureters
Urinary bladder
Urethra

Accessory organ = adrenal glands

257
Q

What are the 4 major regions of the brain?

A

Cerebrum
Diencephalon
Brainstem
Cerebellum

258
Q

What are the 5 lobes of the brain?

A
Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Occipital
Insula
259
Q

Which lobe of the brain contains the primary motor cortex and motor speech area (Broca’s)

A

Frontal

260
Q

What cerebral lobe contains the primary visual cortex?

A

Occipital

261
Q

What cerebral lobe contains the primary gustatory cortex?

A

Insula

262
Q

What cerebral lobe contains the primary somatosensory cortex as well as part of Wernicke’s area?

A

Parietal

263
Q

What cerebral lobe contains the primary auditory cortex as well as olfactory areas and part of Wernicke’s area?

A

Temporal

264
Q

What is the one cerebral lobe that cannot be seen from the surface?

A

Insula

265
Q

__________ _________ are paired irregular masses of gray matter buried deep within central white matter

A

Cerebral nuclei

266
Q

CN I

A

Olfactory

267
Q

CN II

A

Optic

268
Q

CN III

A

Oculomotor

269
Q

CN IV

A

Trochlear

270
Q

CN V

A

Trigeminal

271
Q

CN VI

A

Abducens

272
Q

CN VII

A

Facial

273
Q

CN VIII

A

Vestibulocochlear

274
Q

CN IX

A

Glossopharyngeal

275
Q

CN X

A

Vagus

276
Q

CN XI

A

Accessory (spinal accessory)

277
Q

CN XII

A

Hypoglossal

278
Q

What CN supplies all extraoccular eye muscles except superior oblique and lateral rectus, as well as ciliary muscles and constrictor pupillae?

A

CN III - Oculomotor

279
Q

What CN supplies the superior oblique m. of the eye?

A

CN IV - Trochlear

280
Q

What CN supplies the lateral rectus muscle of the eye?

A

CN VI - Abducens

281
Q

What CN supplies the intrinsic and extrinsic tongue muscles except the palatoglossus?

A

CN XII - Hypoglossal

Palatoglossus is controlled by CN X

282
Q

What CN is responsible for supplying taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

CN VII - Facial (via chorda tympani which carries preganglionic parasympathetics - piggy backs on V3)

283
Q

What CN provides general sensation and taste to the posterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal

284
Q

What CN provides sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

CN V - Trigeminal (V3 branch)

285
Q

The chambers of the eye are located within the anterior cavity, with the _______ as the partition between the two chambers

A

Iris

286
Q

What are the 4 types of papillae on the tongue?

A

Filiform
Fungiform
Vallate
Foliate

287
Q

What type of papillae are the least numerous yet the largest, are arranged in an inverted V shape on posterior tongue, and most of our taste buds are housed in their walls?

A. Filiform
B. Fungiform
C. Vallate (circumvallate)
D. Foliate

A

C. Vallate (circumvallate)

288
Q

What type of papillae are distributed on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue surface and do not house taste buds, so they have no sensory role in gustation?

A. Filiform
B. Fungiform
C. Vallate (circumvallate)
D. Foliate

A

A. Filiform

289
Q

What type of papillae are primarily located on the tip and sides of tongue, and contain only a few taste buds each?

A. Filiform
B. Fungiform
C. Vallate (circumvallate)
D. Foliate

A

B. Fungiform

290
Q

What type of papillae are not well developed on the human tongue and extend as ridges on the posterior lateral sides? These only house a few taste buds during infancy and childhood

A. Filiform
B. Fungiform
C. Vallate (circumvallate)
D. Foliate

A

D. Foliate

291
Q

What are the 5 basic taste sensations the human tongue can detect, and what chemical stimuli are these in response to?

A
Salty
Sweet - glucose
Sour - acidity
Bitter - alkalinity
Umami - glutamic acid (savoriness)
292
Q

What are the 3 salivary glands, specify which is the largest and which produces the most saliva.

A

Parotid - largest
Sublingual
Submandibular - most saliva

293
Q

Infants have 20 deciduous teeth. How many teeth do adult humans have?

A

32

294
Q

What is the dental formula of humans and catarrhines?

A

2:1:2:3

295
Q

Salivation is a parasympathetic function. What CN’s contribute to the 3 salivary glands?

A

Parotid = CN IX (glossopharyngeal)

Sublingual and Submandibular = CN VII (Facial) via chorda tympani