COMP TIA NETWORK + Version 9.1 Flashcards

(71 cards)

1
Q

1.1.9

Which of the following networking terms refers to the nodes that send and receive data traffic?

A.) End systems

B.) Intermediate nodes

C.) Network protocols

D.) Network links

A

A.) End systems

End systems, also referred to as hosts, are the nodes that send and receive data traffic in a network. They consume the services provided by servers in a client-server network.

Intermediate nodes perform a forwarding function in a network. They help to route the data but do not send or receive data traffic themselves.

Network links refer to the communication pathways between nodes in a network. They do not send or receive data traffic themselves.

Network protocols are sets of rules that govern data communication over a network. They do not send or receive data traffic.

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2
Q

1.1.9

You own a small business and have decided to set up a network where each computer acts as both a client and a server.

This decentralized model should allow for the provisioning, management, and security of services and data that you want distributed around the network.

What type of network would BEST meet your requirements?

A.) Peer-to-Peer network

B.) Incorrect answer:

C.) Client-Server network

D.) Enterprise network

E.) Virtual Private network

A

A.) Peer-to-Peer network

A Peer-to-Peer network would best meet your requirements. In a peer-to-peer network, each host acts as both a client and a server. This is a decentralized model where provision, management, and security of services and data is distributed around the network, which matches the scenario described.

In a client-server network, servers are more powerful computers that make network applications and resources available to other hosts, while clients consume the services provided by servers. This does not match the scenario described where each computer acts as both a client and a server.

A virtual private network (VPN) is a network that is constructed using public wires (usually the Internet) to connect to a private network, such as a company’s internal network. This does not match the scenario described where each computer acts as both a client and a server.

An enterprise network is a large corporate network that supports many users and comprises many different networks. The network setup described in the scenario does not match the characteristics of an enterprise network.

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3
Q

1.1.9

A growing company has recently moved into a new office space. The company has 50 employees, each with their own workstation. The office also has multiple printers, a centralized server, and requires structured cabling for connectivity.

Which type of network would be MOST effective for this setup?

A.) Data Center

B.) Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) network

C.) Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (SME) network

D.) Wide Area Network (WAN)

A

C.) Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (SME) network

A Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (SME) network is the correct answer. An SME network is designed to support dozens of users and would use structured cabling and multiple switches and routers to provide connectivity. This is the most suitable type of network for a company with 50 employees.

Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) networks are typically designed for smaller setups, often using a single Internet router/switch/access point to provide connectivity. A company with 50 employees would likely require a more robust network setup.

Wide Area Networks (WANs) are typically used to connect multiple networks over long distances, such as connecting a main office site with multiple branch office sites, possibly in different countries. This is not the case for a company with a single office.

A data center is a network that hosts only servers and storage, not end user client devices. In this scenario, the office has end user client devices (the employees’ workstations), so a data center would not be appropriate.

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4
Q

1.1.9

A multinational corporation has its main office in New York and branch offices in London, Tokyo, and Sydney. The corporation needs a network that can connect all these offices together, allowing for seamless communication and data transfer.

Which type of network would be MOST suitable for this setup?

A.) Local Area Network (LAN)

B.) Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (SME) network

C.) Wide Area Network (WAN)

D.) Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) network

A

C.) Wide Area Network (WAN)

Wide Area Network (WAN) is the correct answer. A WAN is a network of networks, connected by long-distance links. A typical enterprise WAN would connect a main office site with multiple branch office sites, possibly in different countries. This is the most suitable type of network for a multinational corporation with offices in different countries.

A Local Area Network (LAN) is confined to a single geographical location and all nodes and segments are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless technologies. It would not be suitable for connecting offices in different countries.

A Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) network is designed for a small number of users in a single location, often using a single Internet router/switch/access point to provide connectivity. It would not be suitable for connecting multiple offices in different countries.

A Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (SME) is designed to support dozens of users in a single location, using structured cabling and multiple switches and routers to provide connectivity. It would not be suitable for connecting multiple offices in different countries.

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5
Q

1.1.9

When referencing network topologies, what distinguishes half-duplex from full-duplex communication in a point-to-point link?

A.) Half-duplex communication uses a single cable for data transmission, whereas full-duplex requires separate cables for each direction.

B.) Half-duplex allows for data transmission in both directions, but not simultaneously; full-duplex permits simultaneous two-way data transmission.

C.) Half-duplex communication can only occur in one direction, while full-duplex allows for data transmission in both directions but not at the same time.

D.) Full-duplex communication is limited to one direction at a time, similar to half-duplex, but it operates at higher speeds.

A

B.) Half-duplex allows for data transmission in both directions, but not simultaneously; full-duplex permits simultaneous two-way data transmission.

The correct answer is half-duplex allows for data transmission in both directions, but not simultaneously; full-duplex permits simultaneous two-way data transmission.

Half-duplex communication can only occur in one direction, while full-duplex allows for data transmission in both directions but not at the same time is incorrect. It inaccurately states that half-duplex communication can only occur in one direction. Half-duplex does allow for two-way communication, but with the limitation that it cannot happen simultaneously.

Full-duplex communication is limited to one direction at a time, similar to half-duplex, but it operates at higher speeds is incorrect. It confuses the capabilities of full-duplex communication. Full-duplex systems can indeed transmit data in both directions simultaneously, not just one direction at a time. The speed of the communication is not the defining difference between half-duplex and full-duplex.

Half-duplex communication uses a single cable for data transmission, whereas full-duplex requires separate cables for each direction is incorrect. It suggests that the use of separate cables is what differentiates half-duplex from full-duplex communication. The distinction between half-duplex and full-duplex is not about the number of cables used but about whether data transmission can occur simultaneously in both directions.

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6
Q

1.1.9

Your company has a network where all devices can communicate with each other as if they were directly connected, regardless of the physical connections.

Your company has a network where all devices can communicate with each other as if they were directly connected, regardless of the physical connections.

What type of network topology does this describe?

A.) Ring topology

B.) Star topology

C.) Mesh topology

D.) Logical topology

A

D.) Logical topology

Logical topology is the correct answer. A logical topology describes the flow of data through the network. In the scenario, each device can send messages to any other device on the network, which is a characteristic of a logical topology.

A star topology is a type of physical topology where each device on the network is connected to a central node or switch. While the scenario describes a network that physically resembles a star topology, the question is asking for the type of network topology that describes the flow of data, which is a logical topology.

In a mesh topology, every device is connected to every other device on the network. This is not the case in the scenario described.

In a ring topology, each device is connected to exactly two other devices, forming a ring. This is not the case in the scenario described.

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7
Q

1.1.9

You manage a network that’s connected using a physical star topology. One of the drop cables connecting a workstation has been removed.

Which of the following BEST describes the effect that this will have on network communications?

A.) All devices except the device connected with the drop cable will be able to communicate.

B.) Devices on one side of the missing cable will be able to communicate with each other, while devices on the other side of the missing cable will not be able to communicate.

C.) No devices will be able to communicate.

D.) Only devices on one side of the missing cable will be able to communicate with each other, while only devices on the other side of the missing cable will be able to communicate with each other.

E.) All devices will be able to communicate.

A

A.) All devices except the device connected with the drop cable will be able to communicate.

A cable break in a star topology means that the device connected to the central device (hub or switch) through that cable can no longer communicate on the network. All other hosts will be able to communicate with all other devices.

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8
Q

1.1.9

Which of the following networking topologies connects each network device to a central forwarding appliance?

A.) Ring

B.) Mesh

C.) Star

D.) Bus

A

C.) Star

Star topologies connect each device on a network to a central forwarding appliance.

In ring topologies, each device connects to a neighboring device so that a ring is formed.

A bus topology connects all devices to a trunk cable.

A mesh topology exists when there are multiple paths between any two nodes on a network.

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9
Q

1.1.9

You have a network that’s connected using a full physical mesh topology. The link between Device A and Device B is broken.

Which of the following BEST describes the effect that this will have on network communications?

A.) Device A will not be able to communicate with any other device.

B.) Device A will be able to communicate with any device except for Device B.

C.) Device A will be able to communicate with all other devices.

D.) No devices will be able to communicate with any other device.

A

C.) Device A will be able to communicate with all other devices.

With a mesh topology, a break in a single link has no effect on communications. Data can be routed to the destination device by taking a different (sometimes longer) path through the mesh topology.

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10
Q

1.1.9

You’ve implemented an ad hoc wireless network that doesn’t employ a wireless access point. Every wireless network card can communicate directly with any other wireless network card on the network.

Which type of physical network topology have you implemented in this network?

A.) Mesh

B.) Star

C.) Bus

D.) Ring

A

A.) Mesh

This type of network uses a physical mesh topology. A mesh topology has two key characteristics, which are that there’s no central connecting point, and any host can communicate directly with any other host on the network.

A mesh network is usually impractical on a wired network. Each host would require a separate dedicated network interface and cable. But you can implement a mesh topology with relative ease on a wireless network because wires aren’t an issue.

A ring topology connects neighboring nodes until they form a ring. Signals travel in one direction around the ring.

A star topology uses a hub or switch to connect all network connections to a single physical location.

A bus topology consists of a trunk cable with nodes either inserted directly into the trunk or tapped in with offshoot cables called drop cables.

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11
Q

1.1.9

A team of network consultants is configuring an Internet of Things (IoT) network. The team is considering network topologies in the context of the IoT devices being used, which are all within 100 meters of one another, are battery-powered, and communicate via the Zigbee protocol.

Which of the following network topologies would BEST save power and scale easily to thousands of IoT sensor devices while saving power by cooperating with nearby devices?

A.) Ring

B.) Mesh

C.) Bus

D.) Star

A

B.) Mesh

Mesh networks provide excellent redundancy, because other routes, via intermediary devices, are available between locations if a link failure occurs.

In a star topology, each endpoint node is connected to a central forwarding node, such as a hub, switch, or router. The central node mediates communications between the endpoints.

A physical bus topology is a shared access topology, meaning that all nodes share the bandwidth of the media. All nodes attach directly to a single cable segment via cable taps.

In a physical ring topology, each node is wired to its neighbor in a closed loop. A node receives a transmission from its upstream neighbor and passes it to its downstream neighbor until the transmission reaches its intended destination.

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12
Q

1.2.9

Which of the following are layers of the OSI reference model? (Select three.)

A.) Connection Layer

B.) Encryption Layer

C.) Application Layer

D.) Transmission Layer

E.) Session Layer

F.) Presentation Layer

G.) WAN Layer

A

C.) Application Layer

E.) Session Layer

F.) Presentation Layer

The Application Layer is the seventh layer of the OSI model and provides network services directly to the user’s applications, such as email, file transfer, and other network software services.
The Presentation Layer is the sixth layer of the OSI model and is responsible for the translation, encryption, and compression of data. It ensures that data is in a readable format for the Application Layer.
The Session Layer is the fifth layer of the OSI model and establishes, manages, and terminates connections between applications. It is responsible for setting up, coordinating, and terminating conversations, exchanges, and dialogues between the applications at each end.
Transmission Layer is not a layer of the OSI model. This might be confused with the Transport Layer, which is the fourth layer of the OSI model and is responsible for providing transparent transfer of data between end systems.

Encryption Layer is not a layer of the OSI model. Encryption can occur at several layers, including the Presentation Layer and the Application Layer, but it is not a separate layer.

WAN is a Wide Area Network and describes a network topology and not a layer in the OSI model.

Connection Layer is not a layer of the OSI model. This might be confused with the Data Link Layer, which is the second layer of the OSI model and provides node-to-node data transfers between two directly connected nodes.

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13
Q

1.2.9

What is a Protocol Data Unit (PDU)?

A.) A type of encryption used in data transmission

B.) A chunk of data with protocol-specific headers added at each OSI layer

C.) A device that manages data transmission rates

D.) A measure of data transmission speed

A

B.) A chunk of data with protocol-specific headers added at each OSI layer

A Protocol Data Unit (PDU) is the term used to describe the form that data takes at each layer of the OSI model. As data traverses down the layers on the sending node, each layer encapsulates the data by adding its specific headers (and sometimes footers), creating a PDU appropriate for that layer. This process ensures that data can be correctly processed, transmitted, and understood at each stage of its journey.

A PDU is not a device but a structured form of data as it is handled by network protocols.

A PDU refers to the format of data within network protocols, not a measure of speed.

A PDU pertains to the structure of data for protocol processing, not a method of encryption.

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14
Q

1.2.9

What is the primary purpose of data encapsulation in network protocols?

A.) To add additional data headers for routing and delivery

B.) To compress data for faster transmission

C.) To encrypt data for secure transmission

D.) To convert data into an analog signal for transmission

A

A.) To add additional data headers for routing and delivery

Data encapsulation is a fundamental process in network communication, where data at each layer of the OSI model is wrapped with protocol-specific headers (and sometimes footers). These headers provide essential information such as source and destination addresses, error checking, and more, which are necessary for the correct routing and delivery of data across a network. This process ensures that data packets are handled appropriately at each hop along their path to the destination.

Encapsulation is not about compressing data but organizing it for transmission. Compression is a separate process that might be applied to data before encapsulation.

Encapsulation itself does not involve encryption. Encryption may be applied to data as part of the security protocols at various layers but is distinct from the encapsulation process.

Encapsulation deals with the digital organization of data for transmission, not the conversion of digital signals to analog. The conversion to analog signals, if necessary, is handled at the Physical layer, separate from the encapsulation process.

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15
Q

1.2.9

An engineer uses a type of network adapter to connect a fiber link to a router. The transceiver fits into an optical interface on a layer 3 Ethernet router.

Of the choices, which layer 1 implementation does the engineer utilize?

A.) VoIP endpoint

B.) Media converter

C.) Bridge

D.) Switch

A

B.) Media converter

Media converters are layer 1 devices and are used to convert one cable type to another. These components alter the characteristics of one type of cable to match those of another.

A switch is a layer 2 device. Switches can handle traffic based on a node’s physical address which is also known as a Media Access Control (MAC) address.

A bridge is a layer 2 appliance or application that connects different networks as if they were one network.

A VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) endpoint is a phone system component that can be implemented as software running on a computer or smartphone, or as a dedicated traditional handset.

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16
Q

1.2.9

A communications engineer notices that every time it rains the signal becomes very degraded.

Which layer of the OSI model is the engineer most likely troubleshooting?

A.) Application

B.) Data Link

C.) Transport

D.) Physical

A

D.) Physical

The physical layer (PHY) of the OSI model (layer 1) is responsible for the transmission and receipt of the signals that represent bits of data from one node to another node. Wireless is one medium.

The data link layer (layer 2) is responsible for transferring data between nodes on the same logical segment.

At the transport layer on the sending host, the system packages data from the upper layers as a series of layer 4 protocol data units (PDUs), referred to as segments.

The application layer (layer 7) is at the top of the OSI stack. An application-layer protocol does not encapsulate any other protocols or provide services to any protocol.

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17
Q

1.2.9

Which of the following devices operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model? (Select three.)

A.) Gateways

B.) Bridges

C.) Network interface cards (NICs)

D.) Hubs

E.) Repeaters

F.) Routers

G.) Switches

A

B.) Bridges

C.) Network interface cards (NICs)

G.) Switches

Network interface cards (NICs), bridges, and switches all operate at the OSI Data Link layer. They use the physical device address (MAC address) to identify packets.

Hubs and repeaters operate at the Physical layer. They simply repeat packets without regard to addresses.

Routers and gateways function at the Network layer. They examine the logical device and network address to perform routing tasks.

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18
Q

1.2.9

When the Data Link layer performs encapsulation, it adds control information to the payload in the form of header fields.

Which of the following are header fields added by the Data Link layer during encapsulation? (Select three.)

A.) Source hardware address

B.) Sequence number

C.) Checksum for basic error checking

D.) TTL (Time to Live)

E.) Window size

F.) Encryption type

G.) Destination hardware address

A

A.) Source hardware address

C.) Checksum for basic error checking

G.) Destination hardware address

The following are header fields added by the Data Link layer:

Source hardware address: The source hardware address, also known as the source MAC address, is added to the frame by the Data Link layer to indicate the origin of the frame on the network.
Destination hardware address: The destination hardware address, or destination MAC address, is included in the frame by the Data Link layer to ensure the frame reaches the correct device on the local network segment.
Checksum for basic error checking: A checksum is a form of basic error checking added to the frame by the Data Link layer. It helps to verify that the frame has been received intact and without corruption during transmission.
TTL is a field used at the Network layer within IP packets. It is used to limit the lifespan of a packet to prevent it from circulating indefinitely on the network. It is not added by the Data Link layer during encapsulation.

Sequence numbers are used at the Transport layer to keep track of the order of a series of packets or segments. They are not part of the Data Link layer encapsulation process.

Encryption types are related to the security protocols used to protect data during transmission, which are typically implemented at higher layers of the OSI model, such as the Presentation or Application layers, not at the Data Link layer.

Window size is a concept used in flow control at the Transport layer to manage the amount of data that can be sent without receiving an acknowledgment. It is not a header field added by the Data Link layer during encapsulation.

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19
Q

1.2.9

What is the role of an Access Control List (ACL) at Layer 3 (Network layer) of the OSI model?

A.) To act as a routing protocol for determining the best path for data packets

B.) To serve as a list of permissions for file access on the network

C.) To define the maximum size for packets transmitted across the network

D.) To filter network traffic by permitting or blocking packets based on IP addresses and other criteria

A

D.) To filter network traffic by permitting or blocking packets based on IP addresses and other criteria

At Layer 3, ACLs are used to enforce security policies by filtering traffic. They determine which packets are allowed to pass through a network device, such as a router, based on rules that include IP addresses, protocol types, ports, and other criteria.

ACLs do not define packet sizes; this is typically managed by the network protocols in use, such as TCP/IP.

ACLs are not routing protocols. Routing protocols like OSPF or BGP are used to determine the best path for data packets.

ACLs at Layer 3 do not manage file access permissions; they control network traffic. File access permissions are typically managed by the operating system or file system.

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20
Q

1.2.9

In the OSI model, what is the primary function of the Network layer?

A.) The primary function of the Network layer is to move data around an internetwork using logical network and host IDs.

B.) The primary function of the Network layer is to establish, manage, and terminate connections between applications on different hosts.

C.) The primary function of the Network layer is to ensure reliable transmission of data across a physical link.

D.) The primary function of the Network layer is to encode and convert data into signals suitable for transmission over the physical medium.

A

A.) The primary function of the Network layer is to move data around an internetwork using logical network and host IDs.

The primary function of the Network layer is to move data around an internetwork using logical network and host IDs. The Network layer, or Layer 3 of the OSI model, is responsible for the logical addressing of data and its delivery across different networks, or an internetwork. It uses logical addresses, such as IP addresses, to ensure data packets are routed to the correct destination network and ultimately to the correct host within that network. Routers, which operate at this layer, use the information contained in the packet’s network layer header to make forwarding decisions, guiding the packet through the internetwork hop by hop until it reaches its destination.

Encoding and converting data into signals suitable for transmission over the physical medium is the primary function of the Physical layer, or Layer 1 of the OSI model. Layer 1 is responsible for the transmission and reception of raw bit streams over a physical medium. It deals with the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional aspects of the physical connection between devices.

Establishing, managing, and terminating connections between applications on different hosts is the primary function of the Session layer, or Layer 5 of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for setting up, managing, and then tearing down sessions between presentation layer entities on different hosts. It provides mechanisms for controlling the dialogue between the two hosts, including synchronization and checkpointing.

Ensuring reliable transmission of data across a physical link is the primary function of the Transport layer, or Layer 4 of the OSI model. The Transport layer is responsible for providing reliable data transfer services to the upper layers. This includes the segmentation of data, acknowledgment of receipt, error correction through retransmission, and flow control.

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21
Q

1.2.9

Which of the following functions are performed by the OSI Transport layer? (Select three.)

A.) Path identification and selection

B.) Reliable message delivery

C.) Packet formatting for delivery through a medium

D.) Data segmentation and reassembly

E.) Consistent data formatting between dissimilar systems

F.) End-to-end flow control

G.) Media access control, logical topology, and device identification

A

B.) Reliable message delivery

D.) Data segmentation and reassembly

F.) End-to-end flow control

The Transport layer is responsible for breaking upper-layer data into segments and allowing reliable communication through end-to-end flow control, error detection, and error correction.

Message transmission through a medium is performed at the Physical layer.

Media access, logical topology, and device identification occur at the Data Link layer.

Path identification and selection is a function of the Network layer.

Data formatting is performed at the Presentation layer.

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22
Q

1.2.9

A security engineer configures software-based port security on a hardware firewall.

Which OSI model layer identifies the application ports to configure?

A.) Layer 3

B.) Layer 1

C.) Layer 2

D.) Layer 4

A

D.) Layer 4

The transport layer (layer 4) manages end-to-end communications. At layer 4, a port number identifies each application, such as 80 for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) web traffic.

Layer 1 (the physical layer) uses physical ports and cabling to connect and create a local area network.

Ethernet switching by using hardware-based media access control (MAC) addresses and wireless to wired bridging make use of physical layer adapters at layer 2.

At layer 3, the network layer, the routing part of the router (such as a SOHO router), makes forwarding decisions between the local private network and the public Internet.

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23
Q

1.2.9

What role does the Presentation layer (layer 6) of the OSI model play in terms of data compression and encryption?

A.) The Presentation layer is primarily responsible for the physical encryption of data using hardware-based methods.

B.) The Presentation layer handles the routing of data between different networks and supports encryption protocols like IPsec.

C.) The Presentation layer is involved in the logical organization of data into frames for transmission.

D.) The Presentation layer supports data compression and encryption to prepare data for network transmission.

A

D.) The Presentation layer supports data compression and encryption to prepare data for network transmission.

The Presentation layer transforms data to ensure that it is in the correct format for the application or network. This includes data compression to reduce the size of the data for transmission and encryption to secure the data during transfer.

The Presentation layer deals with data transformation and representation, not physical encryption methods, which are typically implemented at lower layers or by specific security hardware.

The logical organization of data into frames is a function of the Data Link layer (layer 2) of the OSI model.

Routing is a function of the Network layer (layer 3), and while the Presentation layer can be involved in encryption, IPsec is a protocol that operates at the Network layer, not the Presentation layer.

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24
Q

1.2.9

Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of the Session layer (layer 5) in the OSI model?

A.) The Session layer is used for character set conversion, such as between ASCII and Unicode.

B.) The Session layer administers the process of establishing, managing, and terminating a dialog between client and server.

C.) The Session layer is responsible for routing packets across different networks.

D.) The Session layer provides the physical transmission of data over network media.

A

B.) The Session layer administers the process of establishing, managing, and terminating a dialog between client and server.

The correct answer is that the Session layer administers the process of establishing, managing, and terminating a dialog between client and server. The Session layer is crucial for controlling the dialog between two computers or network devices. It establishes, manages, and terminates connections, ensuring that data is properly synchronized and organized during communication sessions.

The Session layer is responsible for routing packets across different networks is incorrect because routing is a function of the Network layer (layer 3) of the OSI model, not the Session layer.

The Session layer provides the physical transmission of data over network media is incorrect because the physical transmission of data is the responsibility of the Physical layer (layer 1) of the OSI model.

The Session layer is used for character set conversion, such as between ASCII and Unicode is incorrect because character set conversion is a function of the Presentation layer (layer 6), which is responsible for data representation and encoding, not the Session layer.

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25
1.2.9 Match each networking function or device on the left with its associated OSI model layer on the right. Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Model Layers: A.) Presentation layer B.) Session layer C.) Transport layer D.) Network layer E.) Data Link layer F.) Application layer Network or device function: A.) HTTP B.) Translates data C.) Session ID number D.) Port number E.) Router F.) Switch
F.) Application layer goes with A.) HTTP A.) Presentation layer goes with B.) Translates data B.) Session layer goes with C.) Session ID number C.) Transport layer goes with D.) Port number D.) Network layer goes with E.) Router E.) Data Link layer goes with F.) Switch The following describes how devices function at different layers of the OSI model: HTTP functions at the Application layer. Encapsulation happens at the Presentation layer. Session IDs are assigned at the Session layer. Port numbers are assigned at the Transport layer. Routers function at the Network layer. Switches function at the Data Link layer.
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1.2.9 A network engineer is designing a network in various offices to create multiple broadcast domains. Each has its own Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN). When configuring these multiple broadcast domains on the switch, the switch will be operating at what layer of the OSI model? A.) Layer 4 (Transport Layer) B.) Layer 7 (Application Layer) C.) Layer 1 (Physical Layer) D.) Layer 2 (Data Link Layer)
Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) Layer 2 (Datalink Layer) is the correct answer. VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) are a Layer 2 technology. When configuring VLANs on a switch, the network engineer is working at the Data Link Layer. This layer is responsible for segmenting the network into multiple broadcast domains using VLAN IDs. Devices like switches and bridges operate at this layer to manage MAC addresses and frames, which are essential for VLAN functionality. The Physical Layer is responsible for the physical connection between devices, including cables, transceivers, and media converters. It deals with the transmission and reception of raw bit streams over a physical medium. Configuring VLANs, which involves creating multiple broadcast domains, is not a function of the Physical Layer. The Transport Layer is responsible for end-to-end communication and error recovery. It deals with the segmentation and reassembly of data, as well as flow control and error correction. Configuring VLANs, which involves creating multiple broadcast domains, is not a function of the Transport Layer. The Application Layer is the topmost layer of the OSI model and is responsible for providing network services directly to end-users and applications. It deals with protocols like HTTP, FTP, and SMTP. Configuring VLANs, which involves creating multiple broadcast domains, is not a function of the Application Layer.
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1.3.11 A freelance photographer is setting up a home office. They need to connect a desktop, a laptop, a network printer, and occasionally, guests' devices to the Internet and to each other for file sharing and printing. Which type of network is MOST suitable for this scenario? answer A.) CAN (Campus Area Network) B.) SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) Network C.) PAN (Personal Area Network) D.) MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)
B.) SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) Network A SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) network is the correct answer because SOHO networks are specifically designed for small office or home office environments where a small number of computing hosts need to be interconnected. They typically rely on a single integrated appliance (like a SOHO router) for local and Internet connectivity, making it perfect for the photographer's needs. PANs are designed for personal use within a very limited area, connecting devices like phones, laptops, and wearable devices to a single person's devices. While it could support some of the photographer's needs, it is not ideal for connecting multiple types of devices like printers and guests' devices efficiently. MANs are intended to cover larger geographic areas than LANs, typically a city or large campus. This scenario describes a need for a network within a single home office, which is much smaller in scale than what MANs are designed for. CANs are used to connect networks in a limited geographical area, such as a university campus, school, or corporate facility. The scenario involves a much smaller scale network, suitable for a single home office, making a CAN overly complex and extensive for the photographer's needs.
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1.3.11 Which of the following interfaces does a SOHO router provide at the Physical Layer of the OSI model? (Select three.) answer A.) WAN port for Internet Service Provider (ISP) connection B.) VGA ports for video output C.) USB ports for direct computer connection D.) HDMI ports for multimedia streaming E.) RJ-45 ports for a local cabled network F.) Radio antennas for wireless signal transmission G.) SATA ports for internal storage connection
A.) WAN port for Internet Service Provider (ISP) connection E.) RJ-45 ports for a local cabled network F.) Radio antennas for wireless signal transmission The following are the correct answers for the interfaces that a SOHO router provides at the Physical Layer: RJ-45 ports are typically provided on a SOHO router to implement a local cabled network, usually labeled as LAN ports. These ports are essential for wired connections within the network. Radio antennas are a crucial part of a SOHO router, enabling it to transmit and receive wireless signals. This allows devices like PCs, tablets, smartphones, and printers to connect to the network without physical cables. The WAN port on a SOHO router is designed to connect to the Internet Service Provider's (ISP's) network, facilitating internet access. This port can vary in type, including RJ-45 for fiber connections, RJ-11 for DSL services, or a coaxial F-connector for cable services, depending on the router model and the type of internet service used. Although some routers may feature USB ports for connecting devices such as printers or for network storage, they are not used for the primary function of implementing a local cabled network or connecting to an ISP's network at the Physical Layer. HDMI ports are used for transmitting high-definition video and audio signals from one device to another and are not used in SOHO routers for network connectivity or internet access. SATA ports are used for connecting internal storage devices like hard drives and SSDs within computers and are not typically found on SOHO routers, as they do not serve a networking or internet connectivity function at the Physical Layer. VGA ports are used for video output to monitors and projectors and do not serve a purpose in the networking capabilities of a SOHO router at the Physical Layer.
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1.3.11 Which of the following functions does a SOHO router implement at layer 2 to make use of its Physical layer adapters? (Select two.) answer A.) Network Address Translation (NAT) B.) Ethernet switch C.) Firewall D.) DHCP server E.) Wireless access point
B.) Ethernet switch E.) Wireless access point The following are the functions that a SOHO router implements: Ethernet switch. The RJ-45 jacks on a SOHO router are connected internally by an Ethernet switch, allowing multiple wired devices to communicate within the same network segment. This is a key function at layer 2, facilitating the use of Physical layer adapters for wired connections. Wireless access point. A SOHO router includes a wireless access point, which uses radio antennas to implement a version of the Wi-Fi standard. This allows wireless devices such as PCs, tablets, smartphones, and printers to form a network. The access point is also connected to the Ethernet switch internally, bridging the wired and wireless segments into a single logical data link network. While a DHCP server is a common feature in SOHO routers, it operates at a higher layer (Layer 3 - Network Layer) by assigning IP addresses to devices on the network. It is not a function implemented at Layer 2, which deals with physical addressing and access to the media. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. Firewalls operate at Layer 3 (Network Layer) and above, making decisions based on IP addresses and other higher-layer protocols, not at Layer 2. NAT is a method used to remap one IP address space into another by modifying network address information in the IP header of packets while they are in transit across a traffic routing device. This function is performed at the Network Layer (Layer 3), not at the Data Link Layer (Layer 2), as it involves the manipulation of IP addresses.
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1.3.11 A small office/home office (SOHO) network is configured to use the private IP address range of 192.168.1.0/24. If you are setting up a SOHO router for this network, which of the following IP addresses would be the MOST appropriate for the router? answer A.) 203.0.113.1 B.) 192.168.2.1 C.) 192.168.1.255 D.) 192.168.1.1
D.) 192.168.1.1 192.168.1.1 is the correct answer. This IP address is within the specified private IP address range of 192.168.1.0/24 and is commonly used as the default gateway address for devices on the network. It is a suitable choice for the router's IP address, allowing it to manage traffic between the local network and the Internet. The 192.168.2.1 IP address is not within the specified private IP address range of 192.168.1.0/24. It belongs to a different subnet (192.168.2.0/24), which means it cannot be used for a router within the 192.168.1.0/24 network. The 192.168.1.255 IP address is the broadcast address for the 192.168.1.0/24 network. It is reserved for broadcasting messages to all hosts within the network and cannot be assigned to any single device, including the router. The 203.0.113.1 IP address is a public IP address and would not be used for a router within a private network using the 192.168.1.0/24 range. Public IP addresses are used on the WAN (Wide Area Network) side of a router for communication over the Internet, not for internal network addressing.
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1.3.11 What is the MOST effective method for protecting the management interface of a SOHO router? answer A.) Setting the router to automatically accept firmware updates B.) Configuring a strong administrative account passphrase C.) Enabling UPnP (Universal Plug and Play) D.) Disabling the firewall
B.) Configuring a strong administrative account passphrase Configuring a strong administrative account passphrase is a critical security measure for protecting the router's management interface. A strong passphrase helps prevent unauthorized access to the router's settings, where malicious changes could compromise the entire network's security. Enabling UPnP (Universal Plug and Play) is a convenience feature that allows devices to automatically discover and communicate with each other on a network. While it can simplify network setup and device interaction, it does not provide protection for the router's management interface. Disabling the firewall would decrease the network's security rather than protect the management interface. The firewall is an essential feature that helps block unauthorized access and potential attacks from the Internet. Setting the router to automatically accept firmware updates, while generally a good practice for ensuring the router is up-to-date with the latest security patches, does not directly protect the management interface. Unauthorized individuals could still attempt to access the interface if the administrative passphrase is weak or compromised.
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1.3.11 At layer 4 of the OSI model, how is each application identified to facilitate proper routing and delivery of data? answer A.) Through the application's unique username and password B.) Through the use of encryption algorithms C.) By a unique port number assigned to the application D.) By the MAC address of the destination device
D.) By a unique port number assigned to the application At layer 4, the Transport Layer, each application is identified by a unique port number. This port number is used to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application on a device. For example, web traffic typically uses port 80 for HTTP or port 443 for HTTPS, and email might use port 25 for SMTP. This system allows multiple applications to run on a single device without their data streams getting mixed up. MAC addresses are used at layer 2 (Data Link Layer) of the OSI model to identify devices on the same local network. Layer 4, the Transport Layer, does not use MAC addresses for identifying applications. Encryption algorithms are used to secure data in transit rather than to identify applications. While encryption is crucial for security, it does not play a role in the identification or routing of applications at layer 4. An application's unique username and password are used for authentication purposes, not for identifying applications at the Transport Layer. Usernames and passwords ensure that only authorized users can access an application, but they do not play a role in the routing or delivery of data at layer 4.
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1.3.11 Which of the following BEST describes a demarcation point in the context of telecommunications? answer A.) The central hub where all ISPs connect and exchange data B.) The protocol used for encrypting data over the Internet C.) The maximum data transfer rate achievable by the ISP D.) The point at which the telco's cabling enters the customer premises
D.) The point at which the telco's cabling enters the customer premises The demarcation point (often shortened to "demarc") is the point where the telecommunications company's (telco's) responsibility ends and the customer's responsibility begins; typically where the telco's cabling enters the building or premises. The maximum data transfer rate achievable by the ISP refers to the bandwidth or speed of an internet connection provided by an ISP, not to the physical or logical point of demarcation between the ISP's network and the customer's premises. The central hub where all ISPs connect and exchange data resembles an Internet Exchange Point (IXP), where ISPs interconnect and exchange internet traffic. The demarcation point, however, is specific to the boundary between the telecommunications provider's network and the customer's network. The protocol used for encrypting data over the internet refers to encryption protocols, such as SSL/TLS, used for securing data transmitted over the Internet. It has no relation to the concept of a demarcation point, which is about the physical boundary and responsibility between a telco's network and the customer's premises.
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1.3.11 What do Internet Service Providers (ISPs) use to establish links between their networks within an Internet eXchange Point (IXP) data center? answer A.) Peer-to-peer file sharing B.) Bluetooth connectivity C.) Transit and peering arrangements D.) NFC (Near Field Communication)
C.) Transit and peering arrangements Within an Internet eXchange Point (IXP) data center, ISPs establish links between their networks using transit and peering arrangements. These arrangements allow them to carry traffic to and from parts of the Internet they do not physically own, facilitating the exchange of internet traffic between different ISPs' networks. Peer-to-peer file sharing is a method of distributing or accessing digital media using a peer-to-peer networking technology. It is not used by ISPs to establish links between their networks. ISPs require more formal and scalable arrangements to exchange traffic. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances. It is primarily used for connecting personal devices and is not suitable or used for establishing links between ISPs' networks within an IXP data center. NFC is a set of communication protocols for communication between two electronic devices over a distance of 4 cm or less. It is commonly used for contactless payment systems and simple data exchange between devices. NFC is not used by ISPs to establish links between their networks at IXPs.
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1.3.11 What is the decimal form of the following binary IP address? 11001101.00111001.10101001.01000010 answer A.) 206.58.170.67 B.) 190.42.154.51 C.) 205.57.169.66 D.) 238.90.202.99
C.) 205.57.169.66 The decimal equivalent of the 11001101.00111001.10101001.01000010 IP address is 205.57.169.66. To convert from binary to decimal, use the decimal equivalent of the following binary numbers: 10000000: 128 01000000: 64 00100000: 32 00010000: 16 00001000: 8 00000100: 4 00000010: 2 00000001: 1 To find the decimal form of a binary number, add up each decimal equivalent for each 1 bit in the address. For example, the equation for the number 11001101 is 128 + 64 + 8 + 4 + 1 = 205.
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1.3.11 Which of the following sets correctly represents the possible values that can be represented by each digit in hexadecimal notation? answer A.) 0 through 7 B.) 1 through 10 C.) 0 through 9 and A through E D.) 0 through 9 and A through F
C.) 0 through 9 and A through F In hexadecimal notation, each digit can represent sixteen different values. The numerals 0 through 9 are used for values zero to nine, and the letters A through F are used for values ten to fifteen, respectively. 0 through 7 corresponds to the octal (base 8) numbering system, not hexadecimal. In octal, each digit can represent values from 0 through 7. 0 through 9 and A through E almost correctly represents the range of values for hexadecimal notation but misses the value 'F'. Hexadecimal notation includes the numerals 0 through 9 and the letters A through F, with 'F' representing the decimal value 15. 1 through 10 does not align with any standard base numbering system. In hexadecimal notation, the values start at 0 (not 1) and include more than just numeric digits, extending to include letters A through F to represent values ten through fifteen.
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1.4.11 When verifying a solution to a reported problem, what is the primary goal? answer A.) To change the system's configuration settings B.) To implement additional features unrelated to the problem C.) To validate that the solution fixes the reported problem without affecting the system's overall functionality D.) To ensure the system functions faster than before
C.) To validate that the solution fixes the reported problem without affecting the system's overall functionality The primary goal of verifying a solution is to ensure that the applied fix resolves the reported issue without causing new problems or negatively impacting the system's overall functionality. This involves checking that the system continues to operate normally after the solution is applied. While improving system performance might be a desirable outcome, the primary goal of verifying a solution is to ensure that the specific problem is resolved without negatively impacting the system's overall functionality. Speed enhancement is not the main focus of solution verification. The verification process focuses on ensuring that the applied solution effectively resolves the reported issue. Adding unrelated features does not contribute to verifying the solution's effectiveness and may introduce unnecessary complexity or new issues. Changes to configuration settings are not a systematic approach to problem-solving. Solution verification requires targeted actions to ensure that the specific issue is resolved. Random changes can potentially cause more problems instead of verifying a solution.
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1.4.11 What should you do when you discover symptoms of more than one problem while investigating a user's system issue? answer A.) Advise the user to only report the most severe problem to avoid complicating the troubleshooting process. B.) Focus on the most complex problem first, assuming solving it will automatically resolve the others. C.) Treat each problem as a separate case, even if they seem related. D.) Immediately escalate all discovered problems to a higher-level support team without further investigation.
C.) Treat each problem as a separate case, even if they seem related. When multiple problems are discovered, it's important to address each one individually. This approach ensures that each issue is thoroughly investigated and resolved, rather than assuming they are interconnected. Treating each problem separately also helps in documenting and tracking the resolution process more effectively. Focusing on the most complex problem first can lead to oversight of simpler issues that could be resolved quickly, and it assumes a relationship between the problems that may not exist. It's more efficient to evaluate and address each problem on its own merits. Encouraging users to report only the most severe problem can result in minor issues being overlooked, which may escalate into bigger problems over time. It's important for support teams to have a complete understanding of all issues to provide comprehensive solutions. Escalating all problems without initial investigation can overwhelm higher-level support teams and delay the resolution of issues that could have been solved at the first level. Initial investigation can often resolve some issues immediately and provide valuable information for more complex problems that do need escalation.
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1.4.11 When troubleshooting a software issue reported by a user who is unfamiliar with technical terms, which type of question is MOST effective to begin the diagnostic process? answer A.) Asking if they have experienced this issue before B.) Asking them to describe what they were doing when the issue occurred C.) Asking for the error code displayed on the screen D.) Asking if they have tried rebooting their computer
B.) Asking them to describe what they were doing when the issue occurred Asking them to describe what they were doing when the issue occurred is the correct answer. This is an open question that encourages the user to provide a detailed account of their actions leading up to the problem. It allows the troubleshooter to gather valuable context about the issue without requiring the user to use technical terms. This approach can help identify patterns or specific actions that may be contributing to the problem. Asking for the error code displayed on the screen is not the most effective initial question, especially for users who are unfamiliar with technical terms. It assumes that an error code is always displayed, which might not be the case. Additionally, it does not encourage the user to provide a broad context of the problem. Asking if they have experienced this issue before can provide useful information about the recurrence of the problem. However, it is a closed question that limits the user's response to a simple yes or no. It does not allow the user to provide detailed information about the issue at hand. Asking if they have tried rebooting their computer, while a common troubleshooting step, is a closed question that expects a yes or no answer. It does not facilitate the collection of detailed information about the problem itself. Starting the diagnostic process with this question might overlook the opportunity to understand the issue more comprehensively.
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1.4.11 Before escalating a troubleshooting problem, what should you be able to do? (Select two.) answer A.) Wait for the problem to resolve itself before taking any action. B.) Immediately escalate the problem without attempting any troubleshooting. C.) Change system settings randomly in hopes of stumbling upon a solution. D.) Establish the basic facts surrounding the problem. E.) Be able to communicate the basic facts clearly to the person to whom you are referring the incident.
D.) Establish the basic facts surrounding the problem E.) Be able to communicate the basic facts clearly to the person to whom you are referring the incident. Before escalating a troubleshooting problem, you should be able to do the following: Establish the basic facts surrounding the problem. Before escalating a problem, it's crucial to gather and understand the basic facts about the issue. This includes what the problem is, under what conditions it occurs, and any patterns or triggers identified. Establishing these facts ensures that you're providing a solid foundation for the next level of support to begin their investigation, making the escalation process more efficient and effective. Be able to communicate the basic facts clearly to the person to whom you are referring the incident. Clear communication of the problem's basic facts to the person or team you're escalating to is essential. This ensures that they have a clear understanding of the issue from the start, which helps in diagnosing and resolving the problem more quickly. It also minimizes the risk of miscommunication and ensures that the escalation process is smooth. Waiting for a problem to resolve itself is not a proactive troubleshooting approach. Problems often require intervention to be resolved, and waiting could lead to further complications or dissatisfaction, especially in a support context. Escalating a problem immediately without attempting any initial troubleshooting can overwhelm senior technicians or support teams with issues that could have been resolved at a lower level. It's important to attempt basic troubleshooting based on your knowledge and capabilities before escalating. Randomly changing system settings can lead to further issues and complicate the troubleshooting process. It's important to follow a methodical approach to troubleshooting, based on understanding the problem and applying logical steps to diagnose and attempt to resolve it before considering escalation.
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1.4.11 You are a network technician troubleshooting a connectivity issue in your company's network. After identifying the problem and establishing a theory of probable cause, you have successfully tested your theory and determined the cause of the issue. You have just finished establishing a detailed plan of action to resolve the problem, which includes replacing a faulty network switch that has been causing intermittent connectivity issues for several users. What is the next step you should take according to the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology? answer A.) Verify full system functionality by asking users if they are still experiencing issues. B.) Establish a new theory of probable cause for the connectivity issue. C.) Document the problem and the solution in the company's knowledge base. D.) Implement the solution by replacing the faulty network switch.
D.) Implement the solution by replacing the faulty network switch. According to the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology, after establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem, the next step is to implement the solution. In this scenario, the plan of action involves replacing a faulty network switch that has been identified as the cause of the connectivity issues. Therefore, the correct next step is to proceed with the implementation of this solution. Documenting the problem and the solution is an important step in the troubleshooting process, but it comes after the solution has been implemented and the system's full functionality has been verified. It is not the immediate next step after establishing a plan of action. Verifying full system functionality is an important step, but it comes after implementing the solution. Establishing a new theory of probable cause is a step that would be taken if the initial theory was not confirmed during testing or if the implemented solution did not resolve the problem. Since the scenario indicates that a plan of action has already been established based on a confirmed cause, establishing a new theory is not the appropriate next step.
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1.4.11 When you have diagnosed the symptoms of a network issue and know what is likely causing them, what should you do next? answer A.) Document the symptoms without further action. B.) Ignore the symptoms and focus on unrelated components. C.) Immediately replace all network components. D.) Test each possible cause until you find the right one.
D.) Test each possible cause until you find the right one. Testing each possible cause until you find the right one is the correct approach. Once you have identified the symptoms and understood what could be causing them, the next step is to methodically test each possible cause. This process helps in isolating the issue and finding the exact cause, which can then be addressed to resolve the problem. Ignoring the symptoms and focusing on unrelated components is incorrect because ignoring the diagnosed symptoms and focusing on unrelated components would not efficiently lead to identifying and resolving the issue. It's essential to address the symptoms directly to find the root cause. Immediately replacing all network components is not advisable because it is both time-consuming and costly. Without identifying the specific cause of the problem, replacing all components does not guarantee a resolution and could introduce new issues. Documenting the symptoms without further action is an incorrect approach. While documenting the symptoms is an important part of the troubleshooting process, taking no further action will not resolve the issue. The purpose of documentation is to keep a record of the problem and the steps taken to resolve it, not to replace the action of troubleshooting and fixing the problem.
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1.4.11 A user is unable to print to a network printer. Which of the following is the first step that a technician should take to troubleshoot the issue? answer A.) Identify the problem. B.) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. C.) Establish a theory of probable cause. D.) Implement preventative measures.
A.) Identify the problem. The first step should always be to identify the actual problem so that the technician can then proceed with other steps to resolve the problem. Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem will be part of the process; however, this is not the first step in this scenario. Establishing a theory of probable cause will be part of the process; however, this is not the first step in this scenario. Implementing preventative measures will be part of the process; however, this is not the first step in this scenario.
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1.4.11 When trying to identify the cause of a problem, which of the following are key questions to ask? (Select two.) answer A.) Did it ever work? B.) What has changed since it was last working? C.) Can the problem be solved by buying new hardware? D.) Is the system turned on? E.) Should we switch to a different software platform?
A.) Did it ever work? B.) What has changed since it was last working? The following are the key questions to ask: Did it ever work? Knowing whether the system ever functioned correctly helps to determine if the issue is with the initial setup or configuration, or if something has caused a previously working system to fail. This question helps to narrow down the troubleshooting approach. What has changed since it was last working? Identifying any changes made to the system since it last worked correctly can pinpoint the cause of the problem. Changes could include software updates, hardware modifications, or environmental factors, and are often the root cause of new issues. While asking if the system is turned on is a basic troubleshooting step, it is not a key question for identifying the cause of more complex problems that occur while the system is in use. Asking if the problem can be solved by buying new hardware jumps to a solution without first identifying the cause of the problem. It's important to diagnose the issue before considering solutions, especially costly ones like purchasing new hardware. Asking if you should switch to a different software platform suggests a drastic solution without understanding the root cause of the problem. Switching software platforms can be a significant undertaking and may not address the underlying issue.
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1.4.11 What is the recommended action when applying a solution that is disruptive to the wider network during troubleshooting? answer A.) Disconnect the network to ensure no one is using it before applying the solution. B.) Consider the most appropriate time to schedule the reconfiguration work and plan how to notify other network users. C.) Proceed with the solution without informing anyone to avoid causing panic. D.) Apply the solution immediately to minimize troubleshooting time.
B.) Consider the most appropriate time to schedule the reconfiguration work and plan how to notify other network users. When a solution is likely to disrupt the wider network, it is crucial to plan the implementation carefully. This includes choosing a time that minimizes the impact on users (such as after hours or during low-usage periods) and communicating the planned changes, the expected impact, and the duration of the disruption. This approach helps ensure that the solution is implemented smoothly and with minimal negative impact on network users. Failing to inform relevant stakeholders and users about potential disruptions can lead to confusion, frustration, and a lack of trust. It is important to communicate effectively about planned changes, especially those that may impact network availability, to manage expectations and minimize disruptions. While it may seem efficient to apply a solution immediately, doing so without considering the impact on the wider network and without planning can lead to significant disruptions. It is essential to balance the urgency of the solution with the potential impact on users and services. While ensuring the network is not in use might seem like a way to prevent disruption, abruptly disconnecting the network without prior notification or planning can cause significant issues and data loss for users. It is better to schedule the work during a time of minimal impact and to notify users in advance, rather than cutting off access unexpectedly.
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1.4.11 How is identifying the location and scope of a problem helpful in the troubleshooting process? (Select two.) answer A.) It helps prioritize the problem in relation to other incidents. B.) It allows for the immediate resolution of the problem without further analysis. C.) It automatically resolves any related issues without intervention. D.) It helps identify the source of the problem. E.) It eliminates the need for gathering further information from users.
A.) It helps prioritize the problem in relation to other incidents. D.) It helps identify the source of the problem. The following are the ways in which identifying the location and scope of a problem are helpful in the troubleshooting process: It helps prioritize the problem in relation to other incidents. By understanding the scope of a problem, whether it affects a large number of systems or is confined to a specific area, IT professionals can better prioritize it in relation to other ongoing incidents, ensuring that resources are allocated efficiently. It helps identify the source of the problem. Knowing the location and the number of systems affected can provide valuable clues about the source of the problem. For example, if an issue is localized to a specific network segment, this information can narrow down potential causes. It allows for the immediate resolution of the problem without further analysis is incorrect. Identifying the location and scope is an initial step in troubleshooting. While it is crucial, it does not typically allow for the immediate resolution of the problem without further analysis and investigation. It eliminates the need for gathering further information from users is incorrect. Even after identifying the location and scope, gathering detailed information from users is often necessary to fully understand the problem. User input can provide insights that are not apparent from system data alone. It automatically resolves any related issues without intervention is incorrect. Identifying the location and scope of a problem is a diagnostic step and does not resolve the problem or any related issues. Resolution typically requires further investigation, troubleshooting, and specific actions based on the nature of the problem.
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1.4.11 As the IT support specialist for a small company, you are approached by an employee who complains that they can't connect to the Internet. Preliminary checks show that the issue is isolated to this single workstation. Other devices on the same network are connecting without any issues. You decide to employ the bottom-to-top OSI model approach to systematically troubleshoot and resolve the problem. Using the bottom-to-top OSI model approach, which of the following steps should you take first to troubleshoot the internet connectivity issue on the employee's workstation? answer A.) Check the Ethernet cable and the network interface card (NIC) for any physical damage or disconnection. B.) Confirm that the workstation is obtaining a valid IP address from the DHCP server. C.) Ensure that the workstation's firewall settings are not blocking internet access. D.) Verify that the web browser settings on the workstation are correctly configured.
A.) Check the Ethernet cable and the network interface card (NIC) for any physical damage or disconnection. When employing the bottom-to-top OSI model approach for troubleshooting, the first step is to start at the lowest layer (Layer 1, Physical Layer) and work your way up. Since the issue is isolated to a single workstation, it's logical to first check the physical connections, such as the Ethernet cable and NIC, for any signs of damage or disconnection. Physical connectivity problems are common and can prevent a device from accessing the network. Then move to the data link layer (Layer 2) components, such as switches, and verify they are functioning correctly. Then move to Layer 3 might to verify IP address configuration. Ensuring that the workstation's firewall settings are not blocking internet access involves checking the Transport Layer (Layer 4), which is important for managing end-to-end communication and error checking. However, it's recommended to start troubleshooting from the Physical Layer (Layer 1) and work your way up through the OSI model. Checking the firewall settings at this early stage might miss physical or network configuration issues that are preventing internet access. Verifying that the web browser settings on the workstation are correctly configured focuses on the Application Layer (Layer 7), which is the top layer of the OSI model. While it's important to ensure that the web browser settings are correct, this should be considered later in the troubleshooting process, especially since the issue might be related to lower layers of the OSI model, such as physical connectivity or IP configuration.
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1.4.11 A help desk operator is troubleshooting a site that is no longer responsive. Which of the following is the last step the operator should perform? answer A.) Document findings B.) Establish plan of action C.) Implement solution D.) Determine cause
A.) Document findings The last step in troubleshooting is to document findings. This gives you the opportunity to add a complete description of the problem and its solution, including findings, actions, and outcomes. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary occurs before verification. The technician has to apply the solution first, or there would not be much point in verifying. Testing the theory to determine the cause occurs after establishing the theory. Once confirming the theory, determine the next steps to resolve the problem. If the theory is not confirmed, then re-establish a new theory or escalate. This step is not the final step in the process. After determining the cause, the operator should establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects. This is not the final step in the process.
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1.4.11 When troubleshooting network issues using the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting method, it's important to carry out tasks in a specific order. Drag each trouble shooting task on the left to the correct step on the right. answer Step: Establish a plan of action Step: Implement the solution or escalate Step: Test the theory to determine the cause Step: Establish a theory of probable cause Step: Identify the problem Step: Document findings, actions, and outcomes Step: Verify full system functionality
Step 1: Identify the problem. Step 2: Establish a theory of probable cause. Step 3: Test the theory to determine the cause. Step 4: Establish a plan of action. Step 5: Implement the solution or escalate. Step 6: Verify full system functionality. Step 7: Document findings, actions, and outcomes. The following is a general approach to network troubleshooting: 1. Identify the problem. 2. Establish a theory of probable cause. 3. Test the theory to determine the cause. 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects. 5. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary. 6. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. 7. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
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1.4.11 A system that contains custom applications routinely crashes. IT decides to upgrade the operating system after speaking with application support personnel, and testing the problem. What should IT do next to troubleshoot the issue? answer A.) Determine if anything has changed. B.) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. C.) Establish a plan of action. D.) Identify the problem.
C.) Establish a plan of action. Establishing a plan of action, such as a maintenance window or scheduled downtime to fix an issue, is the best practice. Researching the impacts of any fixes should also be considered. While it is important to take enough time to identify the problem, IT has already identified the problem by speaking with support personnel, and they now need to establish a plan of action in order to resolve the issue. Determining if anything has changed is part of the testing process to see if the identified problem is consistently manifesting itself. IT has already completed this step in the troubleshooting process Verifying full system functionality is useful to identify the results and effects of a solution. It also includes ensuring that the problem is not repeatable and putting possible safeguards and restrictions in place to help prevent further issues. Once again, this is part of the testing process which has already been completed by IT.
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1.4.11 Which of the following MOST correctly describes using the divide and conquer approach of the OSI model for troubleshooting network issues? answer A.) Checking all layers of the OSI model simultaneously to quickly identify and resolve network issues without considering the logical order of the layers B.) Identifying the most likely layer causing the issue based on symptoms and preliminary information, then working either up or down the OSI model as needed to isolate and resolve the problem C.) Focusing solely on the Application Layer (Layer 7) to identify and resolve any software-related issues before considering network infrastructure problems D.) Starting the troubleshooting process at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) and sequentially checking each layer until the Application Layer (Layer 7) is reached
B.) Identifying the most likely layer causing the issue based on symptoms and preliminary information, then working either up or down the OSI model as needed to isolate and resolve the problem The divide and conquer approach involves starting the troubleshooting process at the layer of the OSI model that is most likely to be the source of the problem, based on the symptoms and any preliminary information gathered. This approach allows for a more targeted and efficient troubleshooting process, as it narrows down the focus to the most probable cause of the issue. Once the starting layer is identified, the troubleshooter can work either up or down the OSI model, depending on the results of their tests and observations, to isolate and resolve the problem. Starting the troubleshooting process at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) and sequentially checking each layer until the Application Layer (Layer 7) is reached refers to a top-down or bottom-up approach, not the divide and conquer approach. These methods involve systematically checking each layer in sequence, either from the bottom layer up or the top layer down, rather than focusing on the most likely source of the problem first. Focusing solely on the Application Layer (Layer 7) to identify and resolve any software-related issues before considering network infrastructure problems incorrectly suggests that troubleshooting should always begin at the Application Layer (Layer 7), regardless of the symptoms or nature of the issue. It does not reflect the flexibility and targeted nature of the divide and conquer approach, which considers all layers based on the symptoms and information available. Checking all layers of the OSI model simultaneously to quickly identify and resolve network issues without considering the logical order of the layers is not practical or efficient, as it suggests an unstructured attempt to troubleshoot all layers at once without prioritizing based on the most likely causes. The divide and conquer approach, by contrast, focuses on isolating the problem to a specific layer based on logical deduction and evidence, rather than attempting to address all layers simultaneously.
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