COMP TIA Acronyms 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Is an ASN.1 subnet of Basic Encoding Rules, and give exactly one way to represent any ASN.1 value as an Octet String

A

Distinguished Encoding Rules (DER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is a symmetric key algorithm for the encryption of digital data. Although its short key length of 56 bits makes it too insecure for modern applications, it has been highly influential in the advancement of cryptography

A

Data Encryption Standard (DES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol network for automatically assigning IP addresses and other communication parameters to devices connected to the network using a client-server architecture

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A method used to securely exchange or establish secret keys across an insecure network.

A

Diffie-Hellman Ephermeral (DHE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is an email authentication method designed to detect forged sender addresses in email (email spoofing), a technique often used in phishing and email spam

A

Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

That contains code and data that can be used by more than one program at the same time

A

Dynamic Link Library (DLL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A security solution that identifies and helps prevent unsafe or inappropriate sharing, transfer or use of sensitive data

A

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Is an email security protocol Verifies email senders by building on the Domain Name System (DNS), Domainkeys Identified Mail (DKIM) and Sender Policy Framework (SPF) protocols

A

Domain Message Authentication (DMARC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Each IP datagram contains a Source Address and a Destination Address. Is used to route that datagram to its destination

A

Destination Network Address Transaction (DNAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Turns domain names into IP addresses, which allow browsers to get to websites and other internet sources

A

Domain Name System (DNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Creates a secure domain name system by adding cryptographic signatures to existing DNS records

A

Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Is a type of cyber attack designed to disable, shut down or disrupt a network, website or service

A

Denial-of-Service (DoS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is to ensure that the organization processes the personal data of its staff, customers, providers or any other individuals

A

Data Protection Officer (DPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Is a formal document created by organizations that contains detailed instructions on how to respond to unplanned incidents such as natural disasters, power outages, cyber attacks and any other disruptive events

A

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Uses a key pair consisting of a public key and a private key. The private key is used to generate a digital signature for a message. Public key can be verified by using signers

A

Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is a modern technology that uses existing telephone lines to transport high-bandwidth data, such as multimedia and video, to service subscribers

A

Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Is used to pass the authentication information between the supplicant (the Wi-Fi workstation) and the authentication server (Microsoft IAS or other)

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

It uses no initialization vector or chaining Identical plaintexts with identical keys encrypt to identical ciphertexts

A

Electronic Code Book (ECB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is a key based technique for encrypting data.

A

Elliptic-Curve Cryptography (ECC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is the method used during the key exchange between the server and the client so that the result is a pre-master secret know to both parties

A

Elliptical-Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemera (ECDSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Relies on elliptic curves defined over a finite field to generate and verify signatures

A

Elliptical-Curve Digital Signature Algorithm (ECDSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Also referred to as endpoint detection and threat response

A

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Provides an added layer of protection by encrypting files or folders on various versions of the Microsoft Windows OS

A

Encrypted File System (EFS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Date of an Operating System or Application is the date of which the device will no longer be actively supported

A

End of Life (EOL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Occurs when software updates, patches, and other forms of support are no longer offered, resulting in software becoming prone to future security vulnerabilities

A

End of Service (EOS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Is a software system that helps you run your entire business, supporting automation and processes in financial, human resources, manufacturing, supply chain, services, procurement, and more

A

Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Created by the U.S. Federal Communications Commission (FCC) to uniquely identify mobile devices, form the days of AMPS in the United States starting in the early 1980’s

A

Electronic Serial Number (ESN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Is a member of the Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) set of protocols that encrypt and authenticate the packets of data between computers using a Virtual Private Network (VPN)

A

Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

All access points within the set broadcast the same SSID to let connected devices recognize others as belongings to the same network

A

Extended Service Set Identifier (ESSID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Is a table that informs a computer operating system of the access privileges a user has to a system object, including a single file or a file directory

A

File System Access Control List (FACL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A security method for protecting sensitive data at the hardware level by encrypting all data on a disk drive

A

Full Disk Encryption (FDE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

It examines the integrity of sensitive files, registry keys, and folders within the host operating system and checks whether files have been altered or compromised by tracking logs and comparing the current version to a known baseline

A

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Semiconductor devices that are based around a matrix of configurable logic blocks (CLBs) connected via programmable interconnects

A

Field Programmable Gate Array (FPGA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Probability that the system fails to detect a match between the input fingerprint template and a matching template in the database

A

False Rejection Rate (FRR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Is a standard network protocol used for the transfer of files from one host to another over a TCP-based on network, such as the internet

A

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Is a network protocol that enables secure and encrypted file transfers between a client and a server

A

Secured File Transfer Protocol (FTPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Is a block cipher mode of operations that uses universal hashing over a binary field to provide authenticated encryption

A

Galois/Counter Mode (GCM)

37
Q

Governs how the personal data of individuals in the EU may be processed and transferred

A

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

38
Q

Is any open source version of PGP that allows you to sign and also encrypt a file or an email message

A

GNU Privacy Guard (GPG)

39
Q

U.S. owned utility that provides users with positioning, navigation, and timing (PNT) services

A

Global Positioning System (GPS)

40
Q

Is an electronic circuit that can perform mathematical calculations at high speed

A

Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)

41
Q

Is the process of adding additional information when data is traveling in OSI or TCP/IP models

A

Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

42
Q

Describes systems that are dependable enough to operates continuously without failing

A

High Availability (HA)

42
Q

Is an electro-mechanical data storage device that stores and retrieves digital data using magnetic storage with one or more rigid rapidly rotating platters coated with magnetic material

A

Hard Disk Drive (HDD)

43
Q

An intrusion detection system that monitors the computer infrastructure on which it is installed, analyzing traffic and logging malicious behavior

A

Host-Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)

44
Q

An approach to security that relies on third-party software tools to identify and prevent malicious activities

A

Host-Based Intrusion Prevention System HIPS

45
Q

Is a cryptographic authentication technique that uses a hash function and secret key.

A

Hash-Based Message Authentication Code (HMAC)

46
Q

Is an event based OTP where the moving factor in each code is based on a counter. Each time is requested and validated, the moving factor is incremented based on a counter

A

HMAC-Based One Time Password (HOTP)

47
Q

Are hardened, tamper-resistant hardware devices that secure cryptographic processes by generating, protecting, and managing keys used for encrypting and decrypting data and creating digital signatures and certificates

A

Hardware Security Module (HSM)

48
Q

Is a subscription-based offering where customers can use a hardware security module in the cloud to generate, access, and protect their cryptographic key material, separately from sensitive data

A

Hardware Security Module as a Service (HSMaaS)

49
Q

Is the data code that is used to structure a web page and its content

A

Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)

50
Q

Is the secure version of HTTP, which is the primary protocol used to send data between a web browser and a website

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

51
Q

A cloud computing model that provides on-demand access to computing resources such as servers, storage, networking, and virtualization

A

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

52
Q

Making sure that only the right people can access an organization’s data and resources

A

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

53
Q

Is used for reporting errors and performing network diagnostics

A

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

54
Q

Focuses on ensuring the security and safe function of industrial control systems

A

Industrial Control System (ICS)

55
Q

Is a form of symmetric key block cipher encryption

A

International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA)

56
Q

Is a free standing or wall-mounted rack for managing a interconnecting a telecommunications cable between end-user devices and the main distribution frame

A

Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)

57
Q

Is a system that creates, stores and manages digital identities

A

Identity Provider (IdP)

58
Q

A network security technology originally built for detecting vulnerability exploits against a target application or computer

A

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

59
Q

A security key management protocol that is used to set up a secure, authenticated communications channel between two devices

A

Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

60
Q

A programming interface (API) from the IETF-that enables a user’s email program to access the mail server

A

Internet Message Access Protocol v4 (IMAP4)

61
Q

Evidence left behind by an attacker or malicious software that can be used to identify a security incident

A

Indicators of Compromise (IoC)

62
Q

The collective network of connected devices and the technology that facilitates communication between devices and the cloud, as well as between the devices themselves

A

Internet of Things (IoT)

63
Q

A protocol, or set of rules, for routing and addressing packets of data so that they can travel across networks and arrive at the correct destination

A

Internet Protocol (IP)

64
Q

Is a network security tool (which can be hardware or software) that continuously monitors a network for malicious activity and takes action to prevent it, including reporting, blocking, or dropping it, when it does occur

A

Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

65
Q

Is the effort to quickly identify an attack, minimize its effects, contain damage, and remediate the cause to reduce the risk of future incidents

A

Incident Response (IR)

66
Q

Is a text-based chat system for instant messaging

A

Internet Relay Chat (IRC)

67
Q

Is a written document that helps your organization before, during and after a security incident

A

Incident Response Plan (IRP)

68
Q

Is designed to sit between two or more points on the internal network to allow visibility, control and mitigation of traffic between those arguments

A

Internal Segmentation Firewall (ISFW)

69
Q

Provides organizations with guidelines to consistently achieve university recognized standards

A

International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

70
Q

A company that provides individuals and organizations access to the internet and other related services

A

Internet Service Provider (ISP)

71
Q

Protects the IT infrastructure of companies, organizations, or agencies

A

Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO)

72
Q

The plans, policies, procedures and technical measures that enable the recovery of IT operations after an unexpected incident

A

IT Contingency Plan (ITCP)

73
Q

Is an input to a cryptographic primitive being used to provide the initial state

A

Initialization Vector (IV)

74
Q

A part of a cryptosystem intended to reduce the risks inherent in exchanging keys

A

Key Distribution Center (KDC)

75
Q

Is a virtual private network (VPN) protocol that creates a connection between your devices and a VPN server without encrypting your content

A

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

76
Q

A computer network that links devices within a building or group of adjacent buildings

A

Local Area Network (LAN)

77
Q

Helps users find data about organizations, persons, and more

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

78
Q

Is a proprietary wireless LAN authentication method developed by Cisco Systems

A

Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol (LEAP)

79
Q

Is a cloud-based framework for the deployment of monitoring functionalities for various other services and applications within the cloud

A

Monitoring as a Service (MaaS)

80
Q

The methods and protocols used to control access to a communication medium in a computer network

A

Media Access Control (MAC)

81
Q

Provides coordination and control capabilities for an organization’s IT expert or team of administrators

A

Mobile Application Management (MAM)

82
Q

Stores information on which primary partitions have been created on the hard disk so that it can then use this information to start the machine

A

Master Boot Record (MBR)

83
Q

Is a cryptographic hash algorithm that can be used to create a 128-bit string value from an arbitrary length string

A

Message Digest 5 (MD5)

84
Q

Is the main computer room for servers, hubs, routers, DSL’s, etc. to reside

A

Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

85
Q

Is a proven methodology and toolset used to provide a workforce mobile productivity tools and applications while keeping corporate data secure

A

Mobile Device Management (MDF)

86
Q

A multi-step account login process that requires users to enter more information than just a password

A

Multifactor Authentication (MFA)

87
Q

Is a device that can perform multiple functions, such as printing, scanning, copying and faxing

A

Multifunction Device (MFD)

88
Q

The use and development of computer systems that are able to learn and adapt without following explicit instructions, by algorithms and statistical models to analyze and draw inferences from patterns in data

A

Machine Learning (ML)