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Personal Card Deck > COMP Recalls > Flashcards

COMP Recalls Flashcards

1
Q

What values increase in COPD?

A

FRC, RV, TLC

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2
Q

What is the equation for accuracy?

A

TP + TN / everything

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3
Q

Dizygotic twins and the amnion, chorion, etc.:

A

Dizygotic have separate everything, 2 eggs, 2 different sperm, 2 separate amniotic sacs and 2 separate placentas (0-4 days)

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4
Q

Least addictive first line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?

A

Fluoxetine (SSRI)

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5
Q

Side effects of Finasteride?

A

Gynecomastia and sexual dysfunction

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6
Q

What is serum lipase most specific for?

A

Acute pancreatitis

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7
Q

Labs for a patient with anxiety that is hyperventilating:

A

Low PCO2, High pH, Normal HCO3

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8
Q

What is the treatment for Chron’s disease?

A

Inflixamab

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9
Q

What is the pathogenesis of anemia in CLL patients?

A

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia; a Warm-Aggultinin (IgG)

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10
Q

When does the trachea deviate away from the lesion?

A

Tension pneumothorax

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11
Q

Macrocytic anemia with the presence of seizures is due to what?

A

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) Deficiency

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12
Q

In Waardenburg Syndrome, what gene is deficient and how will this present?

A

Baby with two different colored eyes; PAX3 gene mutation.

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13
Q

Familial Hypercholestremia will have a defect with what problem?

A

Clartharin-coated vesicles

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14
Q

Liver cirrhosis will distend what vessel?

A

The IVC.

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15
Q

What are the features of Churg-Strauss?

A

Asthma, sinusitis, eosinophilia, and (+) p-ANCA

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16
Q

Labs of Graves disease?

A

Low TSH, High T3, and T4

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17
Q

Where does ADH work in the kidney?

A

At the collecting duct.

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18
Q

Patient lost in the desert for 10 days, other than liver, what is maintaining blood glucose?

A

The muscle.

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19
Q

How do you diagnose Legionella?

A

Antigen in the urine

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20
Q

What cannot be destroyed by autoclave?

A

Prions

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21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Gabapentin?

A

Inhibits voltage gated Ca2+ channels; is a GABA analog

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22
Q

What are the signs of PCP toxicity and treatment?

A

CF: Nystagmus, impulsitivity, agitation and psychosis
Tx: Benzodiazepines

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23
Q

Patient develops rash after beginning treatment for depression, what drug is it?

A

Clozapine, due to risk for agranulocytosis.

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24
Q

Where does aldosterone act in the renal tubule??

A

The collecting duct on principle cells.

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25
Q

A patient with an absent gag reflex and difficulty swallowing most likely has what muscle effected?

A

Stylopharyngeus via CN IX which is formed by the the 3rd brachial arch

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26
Q

What association is atrial fibrillation closely associated with?

A

Hyperthyroidism

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27
Q

What disorder is CD20+, and CD 103+?

A

Hairy-Cell Leukemia; dry-tap on aspirate.

28
Q

If you start a patient on an ACE inhibitor, what findings would correlate with this?

A

Increased Ang I, bradykinin, renin

Decreased Ang II, Aldosterone

29
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ethosuxamide?

A

Inhibits T-type Ca2+ channels at the thalamus.

30
Q

If you give a patient with hyperthyroidism some radioactive iodine, what side effect could you see?

A

Hypothyroidism

31
Q

What drug is used to treat Influenza A and B?

A

Oseltamivir, Zanamivir which inhibits viral neuramidase to decrease the release of the virion.

32
Q

In a patient who took Sildenafil and then developed hypotension, what drug interaction could cause this?

A

Taking nitrates (such as nitroglycerin)

33
Q

What are the lab findings for Iron Deficiency Anemia?

A

Low Iron, Low Ferritin, High TIBC

Opposite of hemochromatosis.

34
Q

If you increase the testing requirements for PPD to be 15, from it’s original 10, what would happen to incidence and prevalence?

A

Both would decrease

35
Q

If the TATA box is mutated what enzyme would be rendered inactive?

A

DNA Polymerase.

36
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Paclitaxel?

A

To stabilize microtubules and inhibit break down

37
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Colichine?

A

To inhibit microtubule polymerization

38
Q

What are the features of Sickle Cell Trait C?

A

Small size, 10% sickled, with 90% normal, and normal colour

39
Q

What will you see in order to confirm Leishmaniasis, which presents with spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, and pancytopenia (maybe skin ulcers too)

A

Macrophages with amastigotes inside them.

40
Q

What is the ROT of Norovirus?

A

Fecal-oral

41
Q

What Influenza causes a pandemic and through what mechanism?

A

Influenza A, and through antigenic shift.

42
Q

What agar is used for Clostridium perfringes?

A

Anaerobic or Tryptose-Sulfite-Cycloserine Agar

43
Q

What nerve is associated with mid-shaft humorous fracture, and what is the presentation?

A

Radial; presents as wrist drop

44
Q

Where does the left renal vein drain into?

A

IVC directly

45
Q

What does Clomiphene do?

A

Stimulates estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, causing an increased LH and FSH release; used to tx infertility and inovulation.

46
Q

What type of hydrocephalus is seen in Parkinson’s?

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus; contrast with hydrocephalus ex-vacou in Alzheimer’s

47
Q

What vessel provides collateral circulation of the lungs?

A

Bronchial veins

48
Q

Prostate surgery happened, then the man could not obtain erections, what nerve is effected?

A

Cavernous Plexus (S2-S4)

49
Q

What are the LH and testosterone levels associated with Leuprolide?

A

Both decrease in constant secretion.

50
Q

What is associated with increased fibrinogen levels on a bleeding problem?

A

Fibrinogen is an Acute Phase Reactant; can be seen in Stroke, Coronary Artery Disease, MI, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Glomerulonephritis, Peripheral Artery Disease, Trauma, etc.

51
Q

What drug do you give to a breast cancer patient with ER (+) cells?

A

Tamofexin

52
Q

What drug do you give to a breast cancer patient with ER (-) but Her-2 (+)

A

Trastuzamab

“TrasTWOzumab”

53
Q

What are the movement problems in the common peroneal nerve?

A

Inability to dorsiflex or evert

54
Q

If the renal artery is down or ruptured, what is affected first?

A

Medulla.

55
Q

What murmur increases intensity when laying down and passive leg raise?

A

Aortic Stenosis

56
Q

What are the lab values for sideroblastic anemia, and it’s presentation?

A

CF: Ringed-sideroblast, basophilic stippling
Labs: Increased Iron and Ferritin
Decreased (or Normal) TIBC

57
Q

What are features of CML?

A

Decrease in RBCs, but Increase in Platelets

Mature and maturing granulocytes with splenomegaly.

58
Q

What causes aortic dissection and how does it present?

A

Hypertension; presents with ripping pain tearing into the back.

59
Q

What are the features of NF2?

A

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas, juvenile cataracts, meningiomas, ependymomas.

Involved with loss of function of NF2 tumor suppressor gene on Chromosome 22

60
Q

What is the presentation of TTP?

A

Low RBCs, and Low Platelets; presents with: Thrombocytopenia, MAHA, Acute Kidney Injury + Neurological symptoms.

Typically seen in women; ADAMST13 def.

61
Q

What are the PDA features associated in the heart?

A

Decreased systemic PO2

62
Q

If the arcuate artery is stenosed, what region of the kidney is affected the most?

A

The cortex.

63
Q

Patient without menstrual cycle in 4 months, who is diagnosed with premature ovarian failure, what labs would you see?

A

High FSH, LH

Low Estrogen

64
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis in a pregnant patient is treated with what?

A

Azithromycin

65
Q

What is methoxsalane, used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis, contraindicated in?

A

Poryphria Cutanea Tarda; because methoxsalane uses UV light

66
Q

What cell has the most influence on a patient with osteoporosis?

A

Osteoclasts.

67
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Tetracyclines?

A

Inhibits binding of tRNA at A-side in the 30s ribosome; inhibiting translocation.

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