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Anatomy II Comprehensive Exam Review > Comp Questions > Flashcards

Comp Questions Flashcards

1
Q 
Pictures he had us identify:
Trapezius
Compact bone
Lateral cervical triangle boundaries (anterior border of the trapezius had the star on it)
Simple cuboidal
Simple columnar
White adipose tissue
Trochlea on the end of a bone
Infraspinatus
A

!!!!!

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2
Q

The inguinal ligament attaches to which of the following pairs of structures?

a. ASIS and AIIS
b. AIIS and ischial spine
c. ASIS and pubic tubercle
d. ASIS and inferior pubic ramus

A

c. ASIS and pubic tubercle

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3
Q

All of the following features except one are characteristic of the male pelvis in comparison with the female pelvis. Which one is characteristic of the female pelvis?

a. deeper greater pelvis
b. round obturator foramen
c. wide pubic arch
d. large acetabulum

A

c. wide pubic arch

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4
Q

Which of the following features marks the boundary between the false (greater) pelvis and the true (lesser) pelvis?

a. pelvic brim
b. pelvic diaphragm
c. perineum
d. iliac crests

A

a. pelvic brim

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5
Q

The lesser and greater sciatic notches are separated by which of the following landmarks?

a. PSIS
b. PIIS
c. ischial tuberosity
d. ischial spine

A

d. ischial spine

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6
Q

The major constituent of the pelvic diaphragm is the levator ani complex. Which of the following is NOT part of the levator ani complex?

a. puborectalis
b. pubococcygeus
c. coccygeus
d. iliococcygeus

A

d. iliococcygeus

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7
Q

Which of the following forms a muscular sling at the anorectal junction?

a. puborectalis
b. pubococcygeus
c. coccygeus
d. iliococcygeus

A

a. puborectalis

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8
Q

Which of the following structures does not exit the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

a. superior gluteal artery
b. inferior gluteal artery
c. sciatic nerve
d. obturator nerve
e. inferior gluteal nerve

A

d. obturator nerve

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9
Q

Which muscle separates the exit of the superior and inferior gluteal arteries from the pelvic cavity?

a. quadratus femoris
b. obturator internus
c. superior gemellus
d. inferior gemellus
e. priformis

A

e. piriformis

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10
Q

The male and female external genitalia are derived from homologous and embryonic primordia. The genital swellings of the embryo form which of the following adult structures?

a. scrotum
b. labia minora
c. clitoris
d. shaft of the penis

A

a. scrotum

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11
Q

Which of the following layers of the uterus undergo the most pronounced changes during the menstrual cycle?

a. endometrium
b. myometrium
c. perimetrium
d. mensometrium

A

a. endometrium

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12
Q

Which of the following is the longest and widest part of the uterine tube?

a. isthmus
b. ampulla
c. intramural
d. fimbriae

A

b. ampulla

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13
Q

Which of the following ligaments is the primary support for the medial longitudinal arch of the foot?

a. long plantar
b. plantar calcaneonavicular
c. plantar calcaneocuboid
d. deltoid

A

b. plantar calcaneonavicular

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14
Q

The subtalar joints allows for inversion and eversion. Which of the following movements is associated with eversion?

a. adduction
b. supination
c. dorsiflexion
d. plantarflexion

A

c. dorsiflexion

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15
Q

What is the approximate angle of inclination in the average young adult?

a. 175
b. 150
c. 125
d. 74
e. 15

A

c. 125

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16
Q

The navicular bone is a component of which of the following subdivisions of the foot?

a. hindfoot
b. midfoot
c. forefoot
d. mortise and tenon joint

A

b. midfoot

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17
Q

The calcaneus transmits weight from the talus to metatarsals 4 and 5 via which of the following bones?

a. cuboid
b. middle cuneiform
c. navicular
d. lateral cuneiform
e. medial cuneiform

A

a. cuboid

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18
Q

Which of the following represents the lateral boundary of the femoral trinangle?

a. adductor magnus
b. adductor longus
c. sartorius
d. pectineus

A

c. sartorius

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19
Q

Which of the following is found in the femoral triangle but not the femoral sheath?

a. femoral artery
b. femoral vein
c. femoral nerve
d. lymphatics

A

c. femoral nerve

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20
Q

The Trendelenburg test is used to evaluate which of the following muscles?

a. pectineus
b. gluteus medius
c. gluteus maximus
d. quadriceps femoris

A

b. gluteus medius

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21
Q

The three capsular ligaments of the hip limit which of the following motions?

a. lateral thigh rotation
b. hip hyperextension
c. hip flexion
d. medial thigh rotation

A

b. hip hyperextension

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22
Q

Which of the following arteries supplies the medial compartment of the thigh?

a. femoral
b. obturator
c. deep femoral
d. saphenous

A

b. obturator

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23
Q

Which of the following structures attach to the menisci to the rims of the tibial plateaus?

a. coronary
b. cruciates
c. collaterals
d. fibular collateral ligament

A

a. coronary

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24
Q

Which of the following muscles is necessary to “unlock” the knee from its extended position?

a. plantaris
b. popliteus
c. soleus
d. lateral head of the gastrocnemius

A

b. popliteus

25
Q

Which of the following is not found in the popliteal fossa?

a. popliteal nerve
b. tibial nerve
c. popliteal artery
d. popliteal vein

A

a. popliteal nerve

26
Q

The malleoli of the tibia and the fibula form the mortise component of the ankle joint. Which of the following forms the tenon?

a. calcaneus
b. cuboid
c. talus
d. medial cuneiform

A

c. talus

27
Q

The tendon of which of the following muscles passes between two sesamoid bones located at the base of the first metatarsus?

a. adductor hallucis
b. peroneus longus
c. flexor hallucis longus
d. abductor hallucis

A

c. flexor hallucis longus

28
Q

Which of the following structures/spaces is associated with the spinal cord but not the brain?

a. arachnoid membrane
b. pia mater
c. subdural space
d. epidural space

A

d. epidural space

29
Q

Which of the following dural sinuses DOES NOT connect directly with the confluence of sinuses?

a. straight sinus
b. transverse sinus
c. superior sagittal sinus
d. inferior sagittal sinus

A

d. inferior sagittal sinus

30
Q

Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye is NOT supplied by the oculomotor nerve?

a. lateral rectus
b. inferior oblique
c. medial rectus
d. inferior rectus

A

a. lateral rectus

31
Q

The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves?

a. facial
b. trigeminal
c. glossopharyngeal
d. hypoglossal

A

b. trigeminal

32
Q

The posterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves?

a. facial
b. trigeminal
c. glossopharyngeal
d. hypoglossal

A

a. facial

33
Q

Which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib?

a. anterior
b. middle
c. posterior
d. all attach to the first rib

A

c. posterior

34
Q

Which of the following represent the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve?

a. C1-4
b. C2-5
c. C3-5
d. C3-7

A

c. C3-5

35
Q

Which of the following is the fontanelle located at the junction of the sagittal and lamboidal sutures?

a. anterior
b. posterior
c. anterolateral
d. posterolateral

A

d. posterolateral

36
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves supplies extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue?

a. cranial nerve IX
b. cranial nerve X
c. cranial nerve XI
d. cranial nerve XII

A

d. cranial nerve XII

37
Q

Olfactory fibers make up the olfactory nerves pass from the olfactory mucosa to the olfactory bulbs through which of the following?

a. sphenoethmoidal recess
b. cribriform plate
c. optic canals
d. lateral pterygoid foraminae

A

b. cribriform plate

38
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles?

a. IX
b. X
c. XI
d. XII

A

c. XI

39
Q

The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve exits the cranial cavity through which of the following foramina?

a. foramen ovale
b. foramen spinosum
c. foramen rotundum
d. foramen lacerum

A

a. foramen ovale

40
Q

The muscles of the suboccipital triangle are innervated by which of the following nerves?

a. occipital nerve
b. cervical nerve 1
c. cervical nerve 2
d. cervical nerve 3

A

b. cervical nerve 1

41
Q

The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity via which of the following foramina?

a. ovale
b. rotundum
c. spinosum
d. lacerum

A

c. spinosum

42
Q

Proper chewing (mastication) requires that the mandible be moved from side to side and to be retracted and protracted. Which of the following muscles of mastication functions to retract the mandible?

a. temporalis
b. lateral pterygoid
c. medial pterygoid
d. temporalis

A

d. temporalis

43
Q

Which of the following muscles consists of two bellies, originating from the body of the hyoid and the superior border of the scapula?

a. omohyoid
b. digastric
c. geniohyoid
d. cervicohyoid

A

a. omohyoid

44
Q

Almost all infrahyoid muscles are characterized by which of the following innervation patterns?

a. hypoglossal nerve
b. ansa cervicalis
c. C2
d. C2-C3

A

b. ansa cervicalis

45
Q

Postganglionic fibers from which of the following regions of the sympathetic trunk supply all smooth muscles and glands of the head?

a. superior mesenteric ganglion
b. middle sympathetic ganglion
c. inferior sympathetic ganglion
d. stellate ganglion

A

a. superior mesenteric ganglion

46
Q

Which of the following represents the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity?

a. infraglottic cavity
b. rima glottidis
c. rima vestibuli
d. space between the vestibular folds

A

b. rima glottidis

47
Q

Cranial nerves characterized by the special visceral motor modality supply which of the following?

a. smooth muscles of the gut tract
b. skeletal muscles
c. muscles derived from pharyngeal arches
d. autonomic motor muscles

A

c. muscles derived from pharyngeal arches

48
Q

Special visceral motor (SVM) modality supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle via which of the following cranial nerves?

a. cranial nerve IX
b. cranial nerve X
c. cranial nerve XI
d. cranial nerve XII

A

a. cranial nerve IX

49
Q

Cell bodies of sensory neurons carrying general sensory information from the dura of the middle and anterior cranial fossae, the external surface of the ear drum, and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following cranial ganglia?

a. trigeminal (semilunar)
b. geniculate
c. superior salivary nucleus
d. inferior salivary nucleus

A

b. geniculate

50
Q

The medullary rhythmicity center is located in the same area of the brain as the cardiac center and the vasomotor center. The pneumotaxic and apneustic centers are located in which of the following parts of the brain?

a. pons
b. medulla
c. mesencephalon
d. thalamus

A

a. pons

51
Q

Extensive bilateral lesions involving the mid-pons and the midbrain reticular formation are associated with which of the following conditions?

a. consciousness but quadriplegic
b. coma
c. hypotinia
d. unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities

A

b. coma

52
Q

Which of the following is the newest addition to the telencephalon in mammals?

a. pallium
b. mid-ventricular ridge
c. neocortex
d. paleoxortex

A

c. neocortex

53
Q

Which of the following areas of the brain stem is thought to be involved in pain suppression?

a. red nucleus
b. restiform bodies
c. periaquaductal gray
d. vagal lobes

A

c. periaquaductal gray

54
Q

Floccular lobes in the cerebellum of reptiles may correspond to restiform bodies in cartilaginous fish. This function is most likely related to which of the following?

a. taste
b. sight
c. memory
d. equilibrium

A

d. equilibrium

55
Q

The magnocellular zone of the RAS is characterized by a specific type of neuron with long radiating dendrites spread out in a plane perpendicular to the long axis of the brain stem. It has been suggested that the function of this area of the brain stem may be associated with which of the following?

a. carrying information from the pineal body to the RAS
b. connecting the superior and inferior colliculi
c. picking up information from a variety of sources
d. linking olfactory and taste sensations to the autonomic nervous system

A

c. picking up information from a variety of sources

56
Q

Cranial nerve nuclei V, VI, and VII are found in which of the following subdivisions of the brain?

a. medulla
b. pons
c. midbrain
d. diencephalon

A

b. pons

57
Q

The thalamus is a paired complex of many nuclei, some of which are associated with relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. Others relay motor information from the cerebral cortex, and some serve to integrate the others. Which of the following relay information to the primary auditory cortex of the cerebral cortex?

a. medial geniculate
b. lateral geniculate
c. ventral posterior
d. anterior

A

a, medial geniculate

58
Q

Increase in sexual activity, compulsive tendency to place objects in mouth, decreased emotionality, changes in eating behavior and visual angosia are characteristics of the Kluver-Bucy syndrome. This results when which of the following is/are bilaterally destroyed?

a. substantia nigra
b. red nucleus
c. amygdala
d. thalamus

A

c. amygdala

59
Q

Melanin-containing, dopaminergic neurons and iron-containing cells that secrete serotonin and GABA are major components of which of the following?

a. substantia nigra
b. thalamus
c. RAS
d. superior colliculi

A

a. substantia nigra

Anatomy II Comprehensive Exam Review (1 decks)

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