Community and hospital acquired bacterial infections Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the different shapes of bacteria

A

Cocci
Baccili
Budding and appendaged bacteria- hypha and stalk
Virbio, comma’s form, club rod, helical form, corkscrew’s form, filamentous, spirochete

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2
Q

What is meant by a secretion system

A

How bacteria transfer their virulent factors to the human cells

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3
Q

Define virulence factor

A

Molecules produced by pathogens that contribute to the pathogenicity of the organism

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4
Q

Describe some important bacterial virulence factors

A

Diverse secretion systems
Flagella (movement, attachment)
Pili (important adherence factors)
Capsule (protect against phagocytosis)
i.e. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Endospores (metabolically dormant forms of bacteria)- form spores when their is a shortage of nutrients or in unfavourable conditions
heat, cold, desiccation and chemical resistant
i.e. Bacillus sp. and Clostridium sp.
Biofilms (organized aggregates of bacteria embedded
in polysaccharide matrix – antibiotic resistant)
i. e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
i.e. Staphylococcus epidermidis- normally commensal on the skin- but can form a biofilm on an intravenous catheter- and leaches out to cause bacteraemia and catheter related sepsis- like a biological bunker to protect attack from the immune system and antibiotics- they can’t penetrate the prosthetic device.

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5
Q

What is meant by facultative intracellular organisms

A

Many bacteria are phagocytksed by the host’s macrophages and neutrophils, yet survive within these white blood cells unharmed.
These bacteria inhibit phagosome-lysosome function, thus escaping the host’s deadly hydrogen peroxide and superoxide radicals. inside these cells, these bacteria are safe from antibodies and other immune defences.
Yersinia
Listeria monocytogenes.

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6
Q

What are exotoxins

A

Exotoxins are proteins released by both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. They may cause many disease manifestations. Exotoxins are released by most of the major gram-positives.
Gram-negative bacteria such as Vibrio Cholera, E.coli and others also secrete exotoxins.
Severe diseases caused by bacterial exotoxins include anthrax, botulism, tetanus and cholera.

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7
Q

Describe neurotoxins

A

Neurotoxins are exotoxins that act on the nerves or motor endplates to cause paralysis – Tetanus toxin and botulinum toxin are examples

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8
Q

Describe enterotoxins

A

Are exotoxins that act on the G.I tract to cause diarrhoea. They inhibit NaCl resorption, activate NaCl secretion, or kill intestinal epithelial cells. The common end result is the osmotic pull of fluid into the intestine, which causes diarrhoea.

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9
Q

Describe infectious diarrhoea caused by enterotoxins

A

Bacteria colonise and bind to the G.I tract, continuously releasing their enterotoxin locally.
The diarrhoea will continue until the bacteria are destroyed by the immune system, antibiotics, or the patient dies secondary to dehydration).
NEED TO HAVE THE LIVE ORGANISM
i.e. Vibrio cholera, Escherichia coli, Shigella dysenteriae
and Campylobacter jejuni

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10
Q

Describe food poisoning caused by enterotoxins

A

Bacteria grow in food and release enterotoxin into the fiood.
DON’T NEED LIVE ORGANISM- CAUSED BY ENTEROTOXINS.
The enterotoxin is ingested resulting in diahrrea and vomiting for less than 24 hours.
i.e. Bacillus cereus or Staphylcoccus aureus

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11
Q

Describe pyrogenic exotoxins

A

Pyrogenic exotoxins stimulate the release of cytokines and can cause rash, fever and toxic shock syndrome

i.e. Staphylcoccus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes
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12
Q

Describe tissue invasive exotoxins

A

Tissue invasive exotoxin (allow bacteria to destroy
and tunnel through tissue)
enzymes that destroy DNA, collagin, fibrin, NAD,
red or white blood cells
i.e. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes
Clostridium perfringens

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13
Q

Describe miscellaneous exotoxins

A

Miscellaneous exotoxin (specific to a certain bacterium and/or function not well understood)
i.e. Bacillus anthracis and Corynebacterium diphtheriae
principle virulence factor for that bacteria

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14
Q

What are endotoxins

A

Endotoxin is lipid A, which is a piece of the outer membrane of LPS of gram-negative bacteria.
LipidA/endotoxin is very toxic and is released when the bacteria undergoes lysis (destruction).
Endotoxin is also shed in steady amounts from living bacteria.
Sometimes, treating a patient who has gram-negative infection with antibiotics can worsen the patient’s condition because all the bacteria are lysed, releasing large quantities of endotoxin.
Endotoxins pathogenic to humans have only been confirmed in gram negative bacteria.

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15
Q

Describe how endotoxins differ from exotoxins

A

Endotoxin differs from exotoxin in that it is not a protein excreted from bacterial cells, but rather it is a normal part of the outer membrane that sort of sheds off, especially during lysis.

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16
Q

Define bacteraemia

A

Simply bacteria in the blood

Can trigger the immune system, leading to sepsis and possibly death.

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17
Q

Describe sepsis

A

Sepsis refers to bacteraemia that causes a systemic immune response to the infection. This response can include low or high temperature, elevation of the WBC, and fast heart rate or low breathing rate. Septic patients are described as looking sick.

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18
Q

Describe septic shock/endotoxin shock

A

Sepsis that results in dangerous drops in blood pressure and organ dysfunction is called septic shock. It is also referred to as endotoxin shock because endotoxin often triggers the immune system that results in sepsis and shock.
Since gram-positive bacteria and fungi can also trigger this adverse immune response, the term septic shock is more appropriate and inclusive.

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19
Q

Describe the sequelae of events in septic shock

A

Often begins with a localised site of infection of gram-positive or negative bacteria or fungi.
From this site or from the blood, the organism releases structural components (such as endotoxin and/or exotoxin) that circulate in the bloodstream and stimulate immune cells such as macrophages and neutrophils. These cells, in response to the stimulus, release a host of proteins that are referred to as endogenous mediators of sepsis.

TNF- cachexia and hypotension
IL-1
Prostaglandins
Vasodilation, hypotension and organ system dysfunction.

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20
Q

Describe treatment and management of septic shock

A

The most effective treatment – find the site of infection the microbe responsible and eradicate it. Lung, abdomen and urinary tract are commune places
Use broad-spectrum antibiotics

Blood pressure must be supported with fluids and drug (dopamine and norepinephrine are commonly used) and oxygenation maintained (intubation and mechanical ventilation).

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21
Q

What is meant by an outbreak

A

An outbreak is a greater-than-normal or greater-than-expected number of individuals infected or diagnosed with a particular infection in a given period of time, or a particular place, or both.

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22
Q

How can an outbreak be identified

A

Surveillance provides an opportunity to identify outbreaks

Good and timely reporting systems are instrumental to identify outbreaks

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23
Q

Describe the key features of the E.Coli outbreak in Germany 2011

A

Causative agent: Outbreak was caused by an entero-aggregative
Shiga-toxin producing E. coli O104:H4 strain

Illness: gastroenteritis and hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)

Source: The consumption of sprouts was identified as the most likely vehicle of infection

Time frame: 1 May 2011- 4 July 2011

Scale: Total of 3816 Cases (54 death) in Germany
845 (22%) of these were with hemolytic-uremic syndrome
Smaller outbreak in France

Incubation period was around 8 days with a medium of 5 days from the onset of diarrhea to development of the hemolytic-uremic syndrome

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24
Q

Describe Haemolytic-Uremic syndrome

A

first described in children in the 1950th

characterized by a triad of acute renal failure, hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia

usually found in children and usually caused by the Shiga toxin producing E. coli strain O157:H7

EHEC strains - enterohemorrhagic E. coli

reservoir are normally ruminants – mostly cattle

human infection occurs through the inadvertent ingestion of fecal matter and secondary through contact with infected humans

usually the hemolytic-uremic syndrome is very rare in adults

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25
Q

Describe the time scale of the German E.Coli outbreak in 2011

A

May 19th 2011: First report to German’s national-level public health authority of three cases of the hemolytic-uremic syndrome in children admitted on the same day to a hospital in Hamburg.
May 20th 2011: a team arrived to investigate
Other authorities (i.e. food safety) were also contacted and involved to find source in order to prevent further disease
May 22th 2011 – public informed

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26
Q

Describe a possible epidemic case

A

Any person who developed on or after May 1, 2011:
STEC diarrhoea defined as
- Acute onset of diarrhoea or bloody diarrhoea
AND
- At least one of the following laboratory criteria:
o Isolation of an E. coli strain that produces Shiga toxin 2 (Stx2) or harbors
stx2 gene;
o Direct detection of stx2 gene nucleic acid in faeces without strain isolation.
STEC HUS defined as
Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) defined as acute renal failure and
at least one of the following clinical criteria:
Microangiopatic haemolytic anaemia,
Thrombocytopenia.

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27
Q

Describe a probable epidemic case

A

PROBABLE EPIDEMIC CASE
Any person meeting the criteria for a possible case of STEC diarrhoea or STEC HUS
AND
During the exposure period of 14 days before the onset of illness, meeting at least one of the following epidemiological criteria:
- Stay in Germany or any other country where a confirmed case has probably
acquired infection;
- Consumption of food product obtained from Germany;
Close contact (e.g., in a household) with a confirmed epidemic case.

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28
Q

Describe a confirmed epidemic case

A

Any person meeting the criteria for a possible case,
AND
Isolation of a STEC strain of serotype O104:H4
OR
Isolation of a STEC strain of serotype O104 AND fulfilling epidemiological criteria for a
probable case

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29
Q

Ultimately, what is the difference between a possible, probable and confirmed epidemic case

A

§ Possible epidemic case:

o Any person that has developed the symptoms AND has met a laboratory criteria (e.g. isolation of agent).

§ Probable epidemic case:

o Any person that has met the above criteria AND has been in epidemic country, consumed possibly contaminated food, been in close contact with a confirmed epidemic case.

§ Confirmed epidemic case:

o Any person meeting criteria for a possible case AND has had strain isolated.

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30
Q

Describe how PCR can be used to detect the outbreak strain

A

Isolates can be screened
by multiplex PCR for characteristic features
of the outbreak strain
(rfbO104, fliCH4, stx2, terD)

Can be done on
stool samples

Can for instance use PCR to define if an infection is caused by the outbreak strain or not – different countries have different regulations what is accepted and what is not accepted for diagnosis.

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31
Q

Describe the information gained from genome sequencing of the outbreak strain

A

Isolate is most similar to the enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)

Contains 2 plasmids:
pAA-type plasmids of EAEC strains, which contains the
aggregative adhesion fimbrial operon

ESBL plasmid: harbors the genes encoding for extended-	spectrum b-lactamases. This type of plasmid is widely 	distributed in pathogenic E. coli strains- confers to antibiotic resistance to beta-lactams  

Main significant difference of the outbreak strain to those of EAEC strains is the presence of a prophage encoding the Shiga toxin, which is characteristic for enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) strains- gained by Six phage of EHEC

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32
Q

What family does the Shiga/ Vero toxin belong to

A

Shiga toxin family members have an AB5 subunit composition

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33
Q

Describe the Shiga toxin

A

Subunit a (StxA) is non-covalently associated with a
pentamer of protein B (StxB)
StxA is enzymatically active domain (A1 and A2)
StxB pentamer is responsible for binding to host cell receptors
StxA is an enzyme that cleaves the 28S ribosomal RNA in eukaryotic cells
leads to inhibition of protein synthesis
Bacterial ribosomes are also a substrate for StxA and this will result in decreased proliferation of susceptible bacteria
might affect the commensal microflora in the gut

Shiga toxin does not only block protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells but also affects several other cellular processes

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34
Q

Describe the Shiga toxin on the move

A

Shiga toxins are encoded
on a bacteriophage

highly mobile genetic
elements and contributes
to horizontal gene transfer

Toxins are highly expressed when
the lytic cycle of the phage is activated

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35
Q

Describe the different types of E.coli and where they colonise

A

Pathogenic Escherichia coli colonize various sites in the human body. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC), enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) and diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC) colonize the small bowel and cause diarrhoea, whereas enterohaemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) and enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) cause disease in the large bowel; enteroaggegrative E. coli (EAEC) can colonize both the small and large bowels. Uropathogenic E. coli (UPEC) enters the urinary tract and travels to the bladder to cause cystitis and, if left untreated, can ascend further into the kidneys to cause pyelonephritis. Septicaemia can occur with both UPEC and neonatal meningitis E. coli (NMEC), and NMEC can cross the blood–brain barrier into the central nervous system, causing meningitis.

Depends on their virulence factors

36
Q

Summarise the action of aggregative adhesive fimbriae - the virulence factor of EAEC

A
genes encoding for AAF are on a plasmid
mobilized between strains
AAF required for adhesion to enterocytes
AAF stimulate a strong IL-8 response
allowing biofilm formation

Additional virulence factors
lead to the disruption of actin cytoskeleton  exfoliations

37
Q

Describe the virulence of EAEC

A

Enteroagreggative E. coli (EAEC) attaches to enterocytes in both the small and large bowels
through aggregative adherence fimbriae (AAF) that stimulate a strong interleukin-8 (IL-8) response, allowing biofilms to
form on the surface of cells. Plasmid-encoded toxin (Pet) is a serine protease autotransporter of the Enterobacteriaceae
(SPATE) that targets α-fodrin (also known as SPTAN1), which disrupts the actin cytoskeleton and induces exfoliation

38
Q

Describe how the EAEC adhered to the intestinal mucosa

A

First, the bacteria adhere to the intestinal
mucosa using aggregative adherent fimbriae (AAF). Second,
these fimbriae cause autoaggregative adhesion, by
which the bacteria adhere to each other in a ‘stacked-brick’
configuration producing a mucous-mediated biofilm on the
enterocyte surface. Third, the bacteria release toxins that
affect the inflammatory response, intestinal secretion, and
mucosal cytotoxicity. Aspects of each of these steps
involve plasmid-encoded traits but also chromosomal encoded
virulence factors

39
Q

State 6 groups of communicable diseases in Europe

A

1) Respiratory tract infections
2) Sexually transmitted infections, including HIV and blood-borne viruses
3) Food- and waterborne diseases and zoonoses
4) Emerging and vector-borne diseases
5) Vaccine-preventable diseases
6) Antimicrobial resistance and healthcare-associated infections

40
Q

State some respiratory tract infections

A

Influenza

Animal influenzas, including avian influenza

SARS - Severe acute respiratory syndrome

Legionnaires’ disease (legionellosis)
Legionella pneumophila (Gram -)
Tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Gram +)
41
Q

Summarise legionella pneumophila

A

Gram-negative bacterium
Lives in amoeba in ponds, lakes, air conditioning units, whirlpools,…
Infection route: inhalation of contaminated aerosols
In humans L. pneumophila will infect and grow in aveolar macrophages
Human infection is “dead end” for bacteria
Important virulence factor type IV secretion system

42
Q

Describe the role of the type IV secretion System in Legionella pneumophila

A

Type IV secretion system allows L. pneumophila
to infect and replicate in human macrophages

Secretion of effector proteins
by the type IV secretion system

allow Legionella to replicate in a
Legionella containing vacuole (LCV)

43
Q

Describe the virulent features of mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Groups with
Gram-positive
bacteria

very different
cell wall –
extra lipid layer
makes treatment 
more difficult- It has a mycolic acid outer membrane – this prevents normal antibiotics from getting into the cell

M. tuberculosis can enter a dormant state
Latent TB - evidence of infection by immunological tests but no clinical signs and symptoms of active disease

44
Q

Describe the epidemiology of mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Around 60,000 cases reported in EU in 2016

Treatment of infections: with antibiotics
BUT TAKES at least 6 months

72% success rate of treatment of new cases

Treatment success rate for second infection is 54%- as a result of resistance to the previous treatment

Multi drug resistant (MDR) treatment success rate in is 32%

45
Q

State the sexually transmitted infections

A
Chlamydia trachomatis infection 
Gonorrhoea (Neisseria gonorrhoeae)
Hepatitis B virus infection 
Hepatitis C virus infection 
HIV/AIDS 
Syphilis (Treponema pallidum)

All three are gram negative

46
Q

What is the causative agent of Syphillis

A

Treponema pallidum the causative agent of Syphilis is a Gram-negative bacterium and it is a spirochete/

47
Q

Summarise chlamydia trachomatis

A

obligate intracellular pathogen
cannot culture it outside host cell
Most frequent STI in Europe  410.000 cases/year
Infection likely higher due to underreporting

Other parts of the world  Eye infection:
84 million people infected and about 8 million visually impaired.
It is responsible for more
than 3% of the world’s blindness

48
Q

Summarise Neisseria gonorrhoea

A

Gram- negative diplococcus
Establishes infection in the urogenital tract by interacting with non-ciliated epithelical cells
Important virulence factors and traits:

pili and 
antigenic variation
escape detection
and clearance by the
immune system
49
Q

State the food- and waterborne diseases and zoonoses

A

Anthrax (+ Bacillus anthracis -hoofed animals i.e. sheep, cattle, and goats,
but humans who come into contact with infected animals can get sick )
Botulism (+ Clostridium botulinum - through wounds, canned/preserved food)
Brucellosis (– Brucella spp. caused by ingestion of unsterilized milk or meat)
Campylobacteriosis (Campylobacter sp. mostely C. jejuni)
Cholera (- Vibrio cholera)
Infection with Vero/shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (Gram negative)
Leptospirosis (- Leptospira spp.)
Listeriosis (+ Listeria monocytogenes)
Salmonellosis (- Salmonella sp.)
Shigellosis (- Shigella sp.)
Tularaemia (- Francisella tularensis)
Typhoid/paratyphoid fever (- Salmonella typhi and S. Paratyphi)
Yersiniosis (- Yersinia enterocolitica)

50
Q

Summarise Campylobacter sp (mostly C.Jejuni)

A

Most commonly reported infectious GI disease in the EU
Usually sporadic cases and not outbreaks
Small children 0-4 years – highest risk group
Infection most likely through undercooked poultry
Virulence factor:
Adhesion and Invasion factors,
Flagella motility,
Type IV Secretion system, Toxin

51
Q

Summarise Salmonella sp.

A
One of the most common GI infections in the EU
Undercooked poltry
Outbreaks
Highest infection rate in small children (0-4 years)
Important virulence determinant
Type III secretion systems 
encoded on pathogenicity islands 
(SPI)

Salmonella enterica
Type III secretion system
SPI1: is required for invasion
SPI2: intracellular accumulation

52
Q

Summarise Vibrio Cholerae

A
Cholera is an acute, severe diarrheal disease
Without prompt rehydration, death can occur
	within hours of the onset 
	of symptoms
Latest epidemic in Haiti
Oct 2010 – Jan. 2019
As of 2018 > 800.000 
	cases with ca.10.000 death
Important virulence factor: 
	type IV fimbria
	cholera toxin 
		carried on a phages

Gram positive

53
Q

Describe the actions of the cholera toxin

A

When cholera toxin is released from the bacteria in the infected intestine, it binds to the intestinal cells known as enterocytes (epithelial cell in above diagram) through the interaction of the pentameric B subunit of the toxin with the GM1 ganglioside receptor on the intestinal cell, triggering endocytosis of the toxin. Next, the A/B cholera toxin must undergo cleavage of the A1 domain from the A2 domain in order for A1 to become an active enzyme. Once inside the enterocyte, the enzymatic A1 fragment of the toxin A subunit enters the cytosol, where it activates the G protein Gsa through an ADP-ribosylation reaction that acts to lock the G protein in its GTP-bound form, thereby continually stimulating adenylate cyclase to produce cAMP. The high cAMP levels activate the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR), causing a dramatic efflux of ions and water from infected enterocytes, leading to watery diarrhoea.
One area of anti-diarrhoea treatment lies in the stimulation of enkephalins, which regulate intestinal secretion by acting directly on enterocytes. Enkephalins bind to the opioid receptors on enterocytes, which act through G proteins to inhibit the stimulation of cAMP synthesis induced by cholera toxin, thereby directly controlling ion transport.

Belongs to the AB5 family

54
Q

Describe how vibrio cholerae developed its virulence

A

Infected by a TCP phage- leading to the expression of adhesive pili
Further infection with CTX phage- leading to production of cholera toxin

55
Q

Summarise listeria monocytogenes

A

Risk group immuno-compromised, elderly, pregnant and their fetus
Listeria can enter non-phagocytic cells and cross three tight barriers
Intestinal barrier, Blood / brain barrier and Materno / fetal barrier
They can enter non-phagocytic cells and cross tight barriers (e.g. BBB and maternal-foetal barrier)
actin-based cell motility
pregnant women should not eat unpasteurised cheese

56
Q

Describe the impact of research on Listeria

A

Instrumental for our current understanding of fundamental concepts in cell biology such as actin based cell mobility

Great importance in the field of immunology 
	MHC class I presentation
57
Q

State the emerging and vector-borne diseases

A
Malaria 
Plague (Yersinia pestis; Gram-) 
Q fever (Coxiella burnetti; Gram –)
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) 
Smallpox  
Viral haemorrhagic fevers (VHF). 
West Nile fever 
Yellow fever
58
Q

State the vaccine preventable diseases

A
Diphtheria (Clostridium diphtheriae Gram +)
Invasive Haemophilus influenzae disease (Gram -)
Invasive meningococcal disease 
		(Neisseria meningitidis Gram -)
Invasive pneumococcal disease (IPD) 
		(Streptococcus pneumoniae Gram +)
Measles 
Mumps 
Pertussis (Bordetella pertussis Gram -)
Polio, Rabies, Rubella 
Tetanus (Clostridium tetani Gram +)
59
Q

Describe the impact of vaccine preventable diseases

A

Smallpox and poliomyelitis have been eradicated

Other diseases virtually eradicated (98-99% reduction)

60
Q

Define antimicrobial

A

Antimicrobial

interferes with growth & reproduction of a ‘microbe’

61
Q

Define antibacterial

A

Antibacterial

commonly used to describe agents to reduce or eliminate harmful bacteria

62
Q

What is the difference between antimicrobial and antibacterial

A

Antibiotic is a type of antimicrobial
used as medicine for humans, animals
originally referred to naturally occurring compounds
may wipe out gut microbiota too

some antibiotics are synthesised- research now looking at unexplored environmental antibiotics.

63
Q

What is meant by hospital-acquired infections

A

Healthcare-associated infections (HAI) are infections that occur after exposure to healthcare

Infections starts > 48 after admission to the hospital

64
Q

Describe the epidemiology of hospital acquired infections

A

3.2 million patients acquire a healthcare-associated infection in the EU each year (1 in 18 patients acquires an health care associated infection every day)

About 37.000 of them die as the direct consequence of the infection.

The most frequent types of HAI are surgical site infections, urinary tract infections, pneumonia, bloodstream infections and gastrointestinal infections.

65
Q

Describe the socio-economic burden of hospital-acquired infections

A

estimated extra cost £1 billion
By increasing the length of stay

longer hospital stays
increased healthcare costs
increased mortality

66
Q

Describe hospital intervention as a cause of hospital-acquired infection

A
Lines 
Intravenous 
Central 
Arterial 
CVP/Pulmonary artery

Catheterisation

Intubation

Chemotherapy- immunosuppression

Prophylactic antibiotics
Inappropriate prescribing

Prosthetic material

67
Q

Describe some other factors that increase the risk of hospital acquired infections

A

Dissemination by healthcare staff

Concentration of ill patients

68
Q

Describe the original ESKAPE pathogens

A
Enterococcus faecium 
Staphylococcus aureus 
Klebsiella pneumoniae 
Acinetobacter baumanii 
Pseudomonas aeruginosa 
Enterobacter species
69
Q

What are the ESCAPE pathogens

A

Enterococcus faecium

Staphylococcus aureus

Clostridium difficile

Acinetobacter baumanii

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Enterobacteriaceae
(E.coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Enterobacter sp.)

NOTE:

ESC are Gram-positive

APE are Gram-negative

70
Q

Describe the issue of the ESCAPE pathogens with antibiotic resistance

A

Enterococcus faecium (vancomycin resistance)
Staphylococcus aureus (methicillin resistant - MRSA)
Clostridium difficile (can establish infection
because of previous antibiotic treatment)- wipes out gut microbiota- leading to reduced competition for colonisation
Acinetobacter baumanii (highly drug resistant)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (multi drug resistant
i.e fluoroquinolone-resistant)
Enterobacteriaceae
pathogenic E. coli (multi drug resistant)
Klebsiella pneumoniae (multi drug resistant)
Enterobacter species (multi drug resistant)

71
Q

Why is antibiotic resistance such an issue for clinicians

A

Clinicians are forced to use older, previously discarded drugs, such as colistin, that are associated with significant toxicity and for which there is a lack of robust data to guide selection of dosage regimen or duration of therapy
Our therapeutic options for these pathogens are so extremely limited that clinicians are forced to use older, previously discarded drugs, such as colistin,

72
Q

Summarise pathogenic E.coli

A

Most frequent cause of bacteraemia by a Gram-negative bacterium
Most frequent cause of community and
hospital acquired UTI

Increase in multi-drug resistant strains
Occurrence of resistance to 3rd generation cephalosporsins as high as 20% in some countries
Most isolates that are resistance to cephalosporin express the extended spectrum beta lactamase (ESBL)
Still sensitive to carbapenems

73
Q

Describe cephalosporins

A
are a class of 
b-lactam antibiotics

Target pathway
Inhibit peptidoglycan
synthesis

Target protein
Inhibit the activity
of penicillin binding
proteins (PBPs)

74
Q

Describe resistance to cephalosporins

A

Extended spectrum
b-lactamase (ESBL)

encoded on a plasmid
Mobile

ESBL enzyme cleaves cephalosporin

75
Q

Describe carbapenems

A
are a class of 
b-lactam antibiotics

Target pathway
Inhibit peptidoglycan
synthesis

Target protein
Inhibit the activity
of penicillin binding
proteins (PBPs)

76
Q

Describe resistance to carbapenems

A

carbapenemase enzyme,
blakpc
encoded on a tranposon
mobile genetic element

enzyme cleaves carbapenem

77
Q

Summarise Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

Important cause of UTI and respiratory tract infections
Risk group: immuno compromised
High proportion of resistance to 3rd generation cephalosporins, fluroquinolones and aminoglycosides
carbapenem-resistant Klebsiella pneumoniae (CRKP) is the species of CRE most commonly encountered in the United States

78
Q

Summarise pseudomonas aeringuosa

A

Important cause of infection in immuno-compromised
High proportions of strains are resistant to several antimicrobials
In ½ of EU countries resistance to carbapenems is above 10%

79
Q

Summarise MRSA

A

MRSA is the most important cause of antimicrobial resistant infection worldwide

80
Q

Describe Methicillin

A

Is a b-lactam antibiotics

Target pathway
Inhibit peptidoglycan
synthesis

Target protein
Inhibit the activity
of penicillin binding
proteins (PBPs)

81
Q

Describe resistance to Methicillin

A

Expression of additional
penicillin binding protein

PBP2A has low affinity for methicillin and can still function
in the presence of the antibiotic

MRSA strains can synthesis peptidoglycan and survive in the presence of methicillin

82
Q

Summarise Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus faecium

A

Third most frequently identified cause of nosocomial blood stream infections (BSI) identified in the US
Vancomycin resistance is around 60%

83
Q

Describe the action of vancomycin

A

Target pathway
Inhibit PG
synthesis

Target
binds to PG precursor

84
Q

Describe resistance to Vancomycin

A

multiple proteins
genes encoded on plasmid or transposon

Results in the synthesis of a different PG precursor

85
Q

Summarise the gram negative antibiotic resistance infections

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa: hospital acquired pneumonia, UTI, particularly affects immune compromised hosts (e.g. chemotherapy, individuals with cystic fibrosis). Survives on abiotic surfaces.

ESBL: Extended spectrum beta-lactamase producers. E. coli, Klebsiella.

Acinetobacter baumanii: ITU infections, Survives on abiotic surfaces.

86
Q

Summarise the gram positive antibiotic resistance infections

A

Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus: colonises skin and nasopharynx, causes line associated sepsis, urinary tract infections, bloodstream infections, disseminated spread.

Enterococcus faecium: commensal of gastrointestinal tract. Causes line and urinary tract infection.