Communications

Question 1

When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-GFLU should transmit the manufacturer’s name or the type of aircraft, followed by registration as

(1) Lima – Uniform.
(2) Foxtrot – Lima – Uniform.
(3) Golf – Foxtrot – Lima – Uniform.
(4) Charlie – Golf – Foxtrot – Lima – Uniform.

Answer 1

(3) Golf – Foxtrot – Lima – Uniform.

Question 2

When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-FBSQ should transmit the registration as

(1) FBSQ.
(2) Fox, Baker, Sugar, Queen.
(3) Foxtrot, Bravo, Sierra, Québec.
(4) Bravo, Sierra, Québec.

Answer 2

(3) Foxtrot, Bravo, Sierra, Québec.

Question 3

After a Canadian privately registered aircraft has made initial contact with an ATS unit, which items may be omitted from subsequent transmissions? The aircraft type and

(1) any registration letters omitted by ATS in the last communication.
(2) the first two letters of the registration, if initiated by ATS.
(3) the first three letters of the registration.
(4) the phonetic equivalents.

Answer 3

(2) the first two letters of the registration, if initiated by ATS.

Question 4

On initial radio contact with an ATS unit the pilot shall transmit the

(1) manufacturer’s name or type of aircraft and last four letters of the registration in phonetics.
(2) last three letters of the registration in phonetics.
(3) whole registration in phonetics.
(4) type of aircraft and the last three letters of the registration in phonetics.

Answer 4

(1) manufacturer’s name or type of aircraft and last four letters of the registration in phonetics.

Question 5

ATIS is normally provided

(1) to replace the FSS.
(2) to relieve frequency congestion.
(3) for the rapid updating of weather forecasts.
(4) only when VFR conditions exist at airports.

Answer 5

(2) to relieve frequency congestion.

Question 6

Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on first contact with ATC is the

(1) phrase “with the numbers”.
(2) phrase “ATIS received”.
(3) phrase “with the information”.
(4) ATIS phonetic identifier.

Answer 6

(4) ATIS phonetic identifier.

Question 7

Pilots operating VFR en route in uncontrolled airspace should continuously monitor . . . . . and 121.5 MHZ, when practical and not in communication on the MF or ATF frequency.

(1) 126.7 MHz
(2) 123.2 MHz
(3) 122.8 MHz
(4) 122.2 MHz

Answer 7

(1) 126.7 MHz

Question 8

En route aircraft should, whenever possible, maintain a listening watch for aircraft in distress on

(1) the receiver mode of the ELT.
(2) 121.5 MHz on the aircraft receiver.
(3) 121.5 MHz during the first 5 minutes of each hour.
(4) the voice frequency of the navigation aid in use.

Answer 8

(2) 121.5 MHz on the aircraft receiver.

Question 9

MF procedures such as frequency, distance and altitude to follow are given in the

(1) Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) or Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS).
(2) Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH).
(3) Transport Canada Aeronautical Information Manual (TC AIM) - TP 14371.
(4) Flight Training Manual (FTM) - TP1102.

Answer 9

(1) Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) or Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS).

Question 10

Pilots broadcasting on a MF where no ground station is in operation should direct their transmission to the

(1) aerodrome UNICOM.
(2) closest ATC unit.
(3) aerodrome traffic.
(4) first aircraft heard on the frequency.

Answer 10

(3) aerodrome traffic.

Question 11

Pilots operating in VMC and intending to land at aerodromes where no UNICOM exists, should broadcast their intentions on the ATF of

(1) 121.5 MHz.
(2) 123.2 MHz.
(3) 123.45 MHz.
(4) 126.7 MHz.

Answer 11

(2) 123.2 MHz.

Question 12

If a MF is in use, pilots departing VFR shall monitor that frequency until

(1) beyond the specified distance or altitude.
(2) established en route.
(3) established at cruise altitude.
(4) clear of the aerodrome circuit pattern.

Answer 12

(1) beyond the specified distance or altitude.

Question 13

A pilot is cleared to taxi to the runway in use without a hold short clearance. To get there, the aircraft must cross two taxiways and one runway. This authorizes the pilot to taxi to

(1) the runway in use, but must hold short.
(2) the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross each taxiway and runway en route.
(3) position on the runway without further clearance.
(4) the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross the other runway.

Answer 13

(4) the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross the other runway.

Question 14

Ground control authorizes “GOLF ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE TAXI RUNWAY 29 HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY 04”. The pilot should acknowledge this by replying “GOLF ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE TO

(1) RUNWAY 04”.
(2) RUNWAY 29”.
(3) HOLD SHORT OF 29”.
(4) HOLD SHORT OF 04”.

Answer 14

(4) HOLD SHORT OF 04”.

Question 15

When a clearance for an “immediate take-off” is accepted, the pilot shall

(1) back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off.
(2) taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance.
(3) taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement.
(4) complete the pre-take-off check before taxiing onto the runway and taking off.

Answer 15

(3) taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement.

Question 16

A pilot flying a heading of 270°, receives the following message from ATC, “Traffic 2 o’clock, 5 miles, eastbound”. This information indicates the traffic is

(1) 60° to the left, altitude unknown.
(2) 60° to the right, altitude unknown.
(3) 90° to the right, at same altitude.
(4) 90° to the left, at same altitude.

Answer 16

(2) 60° to the right, altitude unknown.

Question 17

A pilot receives the following ATC clearance “CLEARED TO LAND, TURN RIGHT AT THE FIRST INTERSECTION”. The pilot should

(1) land and attempt to turn off even though the speed is considered too high to safely accomplish the turn.
(2) complete a touch-and-go if it is not possible to safely accomplish the turn.
(3) land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety.
(4) land and do a 180° turn and taxi back to clear the runway at the required intersection.

Answer 17

(3) land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety.

Question 18

The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate serious and/or imminent danger requiring immediate assistance is

(1) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
(2) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.
(3) SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY.
(4) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY

Answer 18

(1) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.

Question 19

The radiotelephone urgency signal to indicate a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vehicle or of some person on board which does not require immediate assistance is

(1) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
(2) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.
(3) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
(4) URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY.

Answer 19

(2) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.

Question 20

What should be included along with the call sign of the aircraft and time, to indicate cancellation of a distress message?

(1) MAYDAY (three times), ALL STATIONS, DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED, OUT.
(2) MAYDAY (once), HELLO ALL STATIONS (three times), THIS IS (the call sign of the station transmitting the message, the filing time of the message, the call sign of the station in distress (once)), SEELONCE FEENEE, OUT.
(3) MAYDAY CANCELLED (three times).
(4) ALL STATIONS (three times), EMERGENCY OVER.

Answer 20

(2) MAYDAY (once), HELLO ALL STATIONS (three times), THIS IS (the call sign of the station transmitting the message, the filing time of the message, the call sign of the station in distress (once)), SEELONCE FEENEE, OUT.

Question 21

A departing flight will normally remain on tower frequency until

(1) the flight is 2,000 feet AGL.
(2) 25 NM from the airport.
(3) 15 NM from the Control Zone.
(4) clear of the Control Zone.

Answer 21

(4) clear of the Control Zone.

Question 22

You advise ATC that you are on the downwind leg. If there is other traffic in the circuit, ATC will then

(1) inform you of your number in the approach sequence or other appropriate instructions.
(2) inform you of the runway in use, wind and altimeter.
(3) advise you of all other circuit traffic.
(4) clear you to land.

Answer 22

(1) inform you of your number in the approach sequence or other appropriate instructions.

Question 23

A radio equipped aircraft has been cleared to land at a controlled airport. The pilot should acknowledge the clearance by

(1) replying ‘Roger’.
(2) replying ‘Wilco’.
(3) clicking the microphone button.
(4) transmitting the aircraft call sign.

Answer 23

(4) transmitting the aircraft call sign.

Question 24

An initial call to Timmins FSS should be ‘Timmins

(1) radio this is…’
(2) Flight Service Station this is…’
(3) UNICOM this is…’
(4) this is…’

Answer 24

(1) radio this is…’

Question 25

A responsibility of a Flight Information Center (FIC) specialist is to provide

(1) air traffic control.
(2) flight planning services.
(3) air traffic service in uncontrolled airspace only.
(4) terminal radar service.

Answer 25

(2) flight planning services.

Question 26

NOTAMs are

(1) available at all flight information centres (FIC)
(2) emailed to all pilots.
(3) issued for airport/aerodrome facility closures only.
(4) valid for 24 hours.

Answer 26

(1) available at all flight information centres (FIC)

Question 27

A new or replacing NOTAM without the term “EST” is valid

(1) for 48 hours only.
(2) for the day it was issued.
(3) until the End Time quoted in the NOTAM.
(4) until a cancelling NOTAM is issued.

Answer 27

(3) until the End Time quoted in the NOTAM.

Question 28

The term “EST” in the End Time in a new or replacing NOTAM means the NOTAM is valid

(1) for an estimated 24 hours.
(2) for an estimated 48 hours.
(3) until the time quoted in the NOTAM.
(4) until a cancelling (NOTAMC) or replacing (NOTAMR) is issued.

Answer 28

(4) until a cancelling (NOTAMC) or replacing (NOTAMR) is issued.

Question 29

ATC advises that your radio transmissions are READABILITY THREE this means that your transmissions are

(1) readable now and then.
(2) readable with difficulty.
(3) readable.
(4) perfectly readable.

Answer 29

(2) readable with difficulty.