Common Phrases Flashcards

1
Q

a fix, point, or object when that fix, point, or object is approximately 90 degrees to the right or left of the aircraft track. Abeam indicates a general position rather than a precise point

A

Abeam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

To terminate a preplanned aircraft maneuver; e.g., an aborted takeoff

A

Abort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Let me know that you have received and understood this message.

A

Acknowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tell me what you plan to do.

A

Advise Intentions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Yes.

A

Affirmative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In-flight weather advisories issued only to amend the Aviation Surface Forecast, Aviation Cloud Forecast, or area forecast concerning weather phenomena which are of operational interest to all aircraft and potentially hazardous to aircraft having limited capability because of lack of equipment, instrumentation, or pilot qualifications. AIRMETs concern weather of less severity than that covered by SIGMETs or Convective SIGMETs. AIRMETs cover moderate icing, moderate turbulence, sustained winds of 30 knots or more at the surface, widespread areas of ceilings less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles, and extensive mountain obscurement.

A

Airmen’s Meteorological Information (AIRMET)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An aircraft’s altitude, transmitted via the Mode C transponder feature, that is visually displayed in 100-foot increments on a radar scope having readout capability.

A

Altitude Readout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Adherence to previously imposed altitude restrictions is no longer required during a climb or descent.

A

Altitude Restrictions Are Canceled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The recommended speed contained in aircraft manuals used by pilots when making an approach to landing. This speed will vary for different segments of an approach as well as for aircraft weight and configuration.

A

Approach Speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A term used by air traffic controllers to taxi an aircraft on the runway opposite to the traffic flow. The aircraft may be instructed to back-taxi to the beginning of the runway or at some point before reaching the runway end for the purpose of departure or to exit the runway.

A

Back-Taxi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A transmission from one station to other stations in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established, but where it is believed that the called stations may be able to receive the transmission.

A

BLIND TRANSMISSION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Phraseology used to indicate that a radio transmission has been distorted or interrupted due to multiple simultaneous radio transmissions.

A

Blocked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An aircraft flown in proximity to another aircraft normally to observe its performance during training or testing.

A

Chase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Used by ATC to inform the pilot that he/she must circle to land because the runway in use is other than the runway aligned with the instrument approach procedure. When the direction of the circling maneuver in relation to the airport/runway is required, the controller will state the direction (eight cardinal compass points) and specify a left or right downwind or base leg as appropriate; e.g., “Cleared VOR Runway Three Six Approach circle to Runway Two Two,” or “Circle northwest of the airport for a right downwind to Runway Two Two.”

A

CIRCLE TO RUNWAY (RUNWAY NUMBER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may not deviate from the provisions of a visual flight rules (VFR) or instrument flight rules (IFR) air traffic clearance except in an emergency or unless an amended clearance has been obtained. Additionally, the pilot may request a different clearance from that which has been issued by air traffic control (ATC) if information available to the pilot makes another course of action more practicable or if aircraft equipment limitations or company procedures forbid compliance with the clearance issued. Pilots may also request clarification or amendment, as appropriate, any time a clearance is not fully understood, or considered unacceptable because of safety of flight. Controllers should, in such instances and to the extent of operational practicality and safety, honor the pilot’s request.14 CFR Part 91.3(a) states: “The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.” THE PILOT IS RESPONSIBLE TO REQUEST AN AMENDED CLEARANCE if ATC issues a clearance that would cause a pilot to deviate from a rule or regulation, or in the pilot’s opinion, would place the aircraft in jeopardy.

A

Clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Used by ATC to advise an aircraft that the departure clearance is automatically canceled if takeoff is not made prior to a specified time. The pilot must obtain a new clearance or cancel his/her IFR flight plan if not off by the specified time.

A

CLEARANCE VOID IF NOT OFF BY (TIME)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ATC authorization for an aircraft to execute a specific instrument approach procedure to an airport; e.g., “Cleared ILS Runway Three Six Approach.”

A

CLEARED (Type of) APPROACH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ATC authorization for an aircraft to execute any standard or special instrument approach procedure for that airport. Normally, an aircraft will be cleared for a specific instrument approach procedure.

A

CLEARED APPROACH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Means the aircraft is cleared to proceed in accordance with the route of flight filed in the flight plan. This clearance does not include the altitude, DP, or DP Transition.

A

CLEARED AS FILED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ATC authorization for an aircraft to depart. It is predicated on known traffic and known physical airport conditions.

A

CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ATC authorization for an aircraft to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop and go, or full stop landing at the discretion of the pilot. It is normally used in training so that an instructor can evaluate a student’s performance under changing situations. Pilots should advise ATC if they decide to remain on the runway, of any delay in their stop and go, delay clearing the runway, or are unable to comply with the instruction(s).

A

CLEARED FOR THE OPTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ATC authorization for an aircraft to make intermediate stops at specified airports without refiling a flight plan while en route to the clearance limit.

A

CLEARED THROUGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ATC authorization for an aircraft to land. It is predicated on known traffic and known physical airport conditions.

A

CLEARED TO LAND

24
Q

ATC authorization for an aircraft to climb to VFR conditions within Class B, C, D, and E surface areas when the only weather limitation is restricted visibility. The aircraft must remain clear of clouds while climbing to VFR.

A

CLIMB TO VFR

25
Q

An ATC instruction that requires an aircraft being vectored back onto an arrival or departure procedure to comply with all altitude and/or speed restrictions depicted on the procedure. This term may be used in lieu of repeating each remaining restriction that appears on the procedure.

A

COMPLY WITH RESTRICTIONS

26
Q

An approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR flight plan, having an air traffic control authorization, operating clear of clouds with at least 1 mile flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport in those conditions, may deviate from the instrument approach procedure and proceed to the destination airport by visual reference to the surface. This approach will only be authorized when requested by the pilot and the reported ground visibility at the destination airport is at least 1 statute mile.

A

CONTACT APPROACH

27
Q

When used as a control instruction should be followed by another word or words clarifying what is expected of the pilot. Example: “continue taxi,” “continue descent,” “continue inbound,” etc.

A

CONTINUE

28
Q

A weather advisory concerning convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft. Convective SIGMETs are issued for tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms of any intensity level, areas of thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP level 4 with an area coverage of 4/10 (40%) or more, and hail 3/4 inch or greater

A

CONVECTIVE SIGMET

29
Q

Used by ATC when a specific altitude restriction at a specified fix is required.

A

CROSS (FIX) AT (ALTITUDE)

30
Q

Used by ATC when an altitude restriction at a specified fix is required. It does not prohibit the aircraft from crossing the fix at a higher altitude than specified; however, the higher altitude may not be one that will violate a succeeding altitude restriction or altitude assignment.

A

CROSS (FIX) AT OR ABOVE (ALTITUDE)

31
Q

Used by ATC when a maximum crossing altitude at a specific fix is required. It does not prohibit the aircraft from crossing the fix at a lower altitude; however, it must be at or above the minimum IFR altitude.

A

CROSS (FIX) AT OR BELOW (ALTITUDE)

32
Q

Used in an ATC clearance to authorize a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the clearance. The pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude within this block of airspace. Climb/descent within the block is to be made at the discretion of the pilot. However, once the pilot starts descent and verbally reports leaving an altitude in the block, he/she may not return to that altitude without additional ATC clearance. Further, it is approval for the pilot to proceed to and make an approach at destination airport and can be used in conjunction with:
A. An airport clearance limit at locations with a standard/special instrument approach procedure. The CFRs require that if an instrument letdown to an airport is necessary, the pilot shall make the letdown in accordance with a standard/special instrument approach procedure for that airport, or
B. An airport clearance limit at locations that are within/below/outside controlled airspace and without a standard/special instrument approach procedure. Such a clearance is NOT AUTHORIZATION for the pilot to descend under IFR conditions below the applicable minimum IFR altitude nor does it imply that ATC is exercising control over aircraft in Class G airspace; however, it provides a means for the aircraft to proceed to destination airport, descend, and land in accordance with applicable CFRs governing VFR flight operations. Also, this provides search and rescue protection until such time as the IFR flight plan is closed.

A

Cruise

33
Q

Used by ATC to inform a pilot when an accurate estimate of the delay time and the reason for the delay cannot immediately be determined; e.g., a disabled aircraft on the runway, terminal or center area saturation, weather below landing minimums, etc.

A

DELAY INDEFINITE (REASON IF KNOWN) EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE (TIME)

34
Q

Straight line flight between two navigational aids, fixes, points, or any combination thereof. When used by pilots in describing off-airway routes, points defining direct route segments become compulsory reporting points unless the aircraft is under radar contact.

A

Direct

35
Q

A distress or an urgency condition.

A

Emergency

36
Q

Instructions issued to a pilot making an instrument approach which means continue inbound to the missed approach point and execute the missed approach procedure as described on the Instrument Approach Procedure Chart or as previously assigned by ATC. The pilot may climb immediately to the altitude specified in the missed approach procedure upon making a missed approach. No turns should be initiated prior to reaching the missed approach point. When conducting an ASR or PAR approach, execute the assigned missed approach procedure immediately upon receiving instructions to “execute missed approach.”

A

EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH

37
Q

Used under certain conditions to provide a pilot with an altitude to be used in the event of two-way communications failure. It also provides altitude information to assist the pilot in planning.

A

EXPECT (ALTITUDE) AT (TIME) or (FIX)

38
Q

The time a pilot can expect to receive clearance beyond a clearance limit.

A

EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE (TIME)

39
Q

Used to inform a pilot of the routing he/she can expect if any part of the route beyond a short range clearance limit differs from that filed.

A

EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA (AIRWAYS, ROUTES OR FIXES)

40
Q

Used by ATC when prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an imminent situation. Expedite climb/descent normally indicates to a pilot that the approximate best rate of climb/descent should be used without requiring an exceptional change in aircraft handling characteristics.

A

EXPEDITE

41
Q

Commonly used to mean that an aircraft is on the final approach course or is aligned with a landing area.

A

Final

42
Q

A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury. Each is stated in three digits that represent hundreds of feet. For example, flight level (FL) 250 represents a barometric altimeter indication of 25,000 feet; FL 255, an indication of 25,500 feet.

A

FLIGHT LEVEL

43
Q

Used by pilots to request that the entire route of flight be read verbatim in an ATC clearance. Such request should be made to preclude receiving an ATC clearance based on the original filed flight plan when a filed IFR flight plan has been revised by the pilot, company, or operations prior to departure.

A

REQUEST FULL ROUTE CLEARANCE

44
Q

Proceed with your message. Not to be used for any other purpose.

A

GO AHEAD

45
Q

Instructions for a pilot to abandon his/her approach to landing. Additional instructions may follow. Unless otherwise advised by ATC, a VFR aircraft or an aircraft conducting visual approach should overfly the runway while climbing to traffic pattern altitude and enter the traffic pattern via the crosswind leg. A pilot on an IFR flight plan making an instrument approach should execute the published missed approach procedure or proceed as instructed by ATC; e.g., “Go around” (additional instructions if required).

A

GO AROUND

46
Q

An approach over an airport or runway following an instrument approach or a VFR approach including the go-around maneuver where the pilot intentionally does not make contact with the runway.

A

LOW APPROACH

47
Q

Used by pilots to inform ATC that they have received runway, wind, and altimeter information only.

A

HAVE NUMBERS

48
Q

Flight toward a NAVAID, without correcting for wind, by adjusting the aircraft heading to maintain a relative bearing of zero degrees.

A

HOMING

49
Q

The message will be repeated.

A

I SAY AGAIN

50
Q

A request for a pilot to activate the aircraft transponder identification feature. This will help the controller to confirm an aircraft identity or to identify an aircraft.

A

IDENT

51
Q

Used by ATC in radar approaches to prefix procedures which should be followed by the pilot in event of lost communications.

A

IF NO TRANSMISSION RECEIVED FOR (TIME)

52
Q

Used by ATC or pilots when such action compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation.

A

IMMEDIATELY

53
Q

An ATC procedure used to request pilots to adjust aircraft speed to a specific value for the purpose of providing desired spacing. Pilots are expected to maintain a speed of plus or minus 10 knots or 0.02 Mach number of the specified speed. Examples of speed adjustments are:

A. “Increase/reduce speed to Mach point (number).”

B. “Increase/reduce speed to (speed in knots)” or “Increase/reduce speed (number of knots) knots.”

A

SPEED ADJUSTMENT

54
Q

A. Concerning altitude/flight level, the term means to remain at the altitude/flight level specified. The phrase “climb and” or “descend and” normally precedes “maintain” and the altitude assignment; e.g., “descend and maintain 5,000.”

B. Concerning other ATC instructions, the term is used in its literal sense; e.g., maintain VFR.

A

MAINTAIN

55
Q

Used by ATC to inform a pilot to alter his/her traffic pattern so as to make a short final approach.

A

MAKE SHORT APPROACH

56
Q

A maneuver conducted by a pilot when an instrument approach cannot be completed to a landing. The route of flight and altitude are shown on instrument approach procedure charts. A pilot executing a missed approach prior to the Missed Approach Point (MAP) must continue along the final approach to the MAP.

A

MISSED APPROACH

57
Q

(When used with communication transfer) listen on a specific frequency and stand by for instructions. Under normal circumstances do not establish communications.

A

MONITOR