COMMON NON-TRAUMATIC SURGICAL DISEASES PART 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four embryologic folds involved in abdominal wall formation?

A

Cephalic, Caudal, Right lateral fold, Left lateral fold

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2
Q

What structure surrounds the 2 umbilical arteries, 1 umbilical vein, and yolk sac during embryologic development?

A

Umbilical ring

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3
Q

At what weeks of fetal development does rapid intestinal growth outside the abdominal cavity occur?

A

Between the 5th and 10th weeks

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4
Q

When does the midgut return to the abdominal cavity after temporary herniation?

A

12th week of gestation

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5
Q

What completes the process of abdominal wall formation?

A

Contraction of the umbilical ring

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6
Q

What results from failure of the caudal fold to close?

A

Exstrophy of the bladder or cloaca

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7
Q

What defect results from failure of cephalic fold closure?

A

Sternal defects such as congenital absence of the sternum

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8
Q

What results from interruption of central migration of lateral folds?

A

Omphalocele

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9
Q

What condition results from intrauterine rupture or hernia of the umbilical cord?

A

Gastroschisis

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10
Q

How can umbilical cord hernia be distinguished from omphalocele?

A

Umbilical cord hernia is <4 cm and looks like omphalocele with a sac

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11
Q

When is an umbilical hernia usually diagnosed?

A

After desiccation of the umbilical cord

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12
Q

What covers an umbilical hernia?

A

Normal skin covering the defect

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13
Q

What is the primary cause of umbilical hernia?

A

Failure of the umbilical ring to close

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14
Q

At what size do umbilical hernias usually close spontaneously?

A

<1 cm

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15
Q

By what age do small umbilical hernias typically close spontaneously?

A

4 to 5 years

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16
Q

What are signs of umbilical hernia incarceration that require immediate exploration?

A

Abdominal pain, bilious emesis, pseudo-obstruction, tender hard mass protruding from the umbilicus

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17
Q

When is surgical correction for an umbilical hernia delayed until?

A

5 years if small and likely to close spontaneously

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18
Q

What is the procedure for umbilical hernia repair?

A

Small curving incision at umbilical crease, sac dissected free, fascial defect closed

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19
Q

What condition can increase risk of umbilical hernia recurrence?

A

Elevated intra-abdominal pressure (e.g., ventriculoperitoneal shunt)

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20
Q

What is the embryologic origin of a patent urachus?

A

Failure of urachus obliteration, maintaining connection between bladder and umbilicus

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21
Q

What is the first sign of patent urachus?

A

Moisture or urine flow from the umbilicus

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22
Q

What diagnosis presents with a fleshy mass in the umbilicus resolving with silver nitrate?

A

Umbilical granuloma

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23
Q

What diagnostic imaging can help confirm patent urachus?

A

KUB ultrasound

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24
Q

What is the definitive treatment for patent urachus?

A

Excision of urachal tract and closure of bladder with absorbable suture

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25
What is the risk of leaving a patent urachus untreated?
Development of transitional cell carcinoma
26
What is the difference between patent urachus and patent omphalomesenteric duct?
Patent urachus connects to bladder (urine drainage), omphalomesenteric duct connects to small intestine (stool drainage)
27
What covers the abdominal contents in omphalocele?
Peritoneum and amniotic membrane
28
What is the size cutoff for omphalocele?
4 cm or more
29
Omphalocele is associated with what syndromes?
Exstrophy of the cloaca, Beckwith-Wiedemann, Cantrell's Pentalogy
30
What is the prognosis for small to medium omphaloceles?
Significantly better than giant omphaloceles
31
What organ's presence in the omphalocele sac is a poor prognostic factor?
Liver
32
What is the treatment for small to medium omphalocele?
Primary repair with membrane resection and fascial closure
33
What treatment approach is used for giant omphaloceles with small abdominal domains?
Non-operative with topical treatment for sac hardening, followed by staged repair after re-epithelialization
34
What abdominal wall defect features uncovered intestinal contents protruding to the right of the umbilicus?
Gastroschisis
35
What is the usual size of the gastroschisis defect?
<4 cm
36
What is the first-line treatment for gastroschisis?
Urgent surgical treatment with fluid resuscitation and primary closure if feasible
37
What is the purpose of a plastic spring-loaded silo in gastroschisis?
Covers bowel, allows for gradual reduction into abdominal cavity
38
What embryologic structure fails to close in congenital inguinal hernia?
Processus vaginalis
39
What is the female counterpart to the processus vaginalis?
Canal of Nuck
40
What is a communicating hydrocele?
Fluid accumulation in the scrotum with persistent communication to peritoneal cavity
41
How are all congenital hernias classified?
Indirect inguinal hernias
42
What side is more commonly affected in congenital inguinal hernia and why?
Right side; right testicle descends later than left
43
What is the silk glove sign in inguinal hernia?
Thickened spermatic cord on affected side
44
What is the difference between incarcerated and strangulated hernia?
Incarcerated: firm, tender bulge; Strangulated: ischemic, skin changes, edematous
45
What is the treatment for all congenital inguinal hernias?
Surgical repair once diagnosed
46
What is the recommended management for non-communicating hydrocele in infants?
Observe until 12 months, surgical correction if persists
47
What is the surgery for inguinal hernia repair?
Herniotomy with high ligation of hernial sac
48
What is the difference between umbilical hernia and umbilical cord hernia?
Umbilical hernia covered by skin, umbilical cord hernia found at birth with sac
49
What causes cryptorchidism?
Failure of testis descent into scrotum
50
What are common locations for undescended testis?
Retroperitoneum, internal ring, inguinal canal, external ring
51
What is the incidence of undescended testes in preterm and term infants?
30% preterm, 1-3% term
52
What exam finding may suggest undescended testis?
Poorly rugated or hypoplastic scrotum
53
Why are undescended testes at higher risk for infertility?
Higher temperature impairs spermatogenesis
54
At what age should undescended testes be surgically repositioned?
By 1 year of age
55
What is the risk if undescended testes are not corrected?
Infertility, malignancy, torsion
56
What is an ectopic testis?
Testis located outside scrotum after passing inguinal canal
57
What hormone therapies can be used in undescended testis?
Chorionic gonadotropin, testosterone replacement
58
What is the most common primary malignant tumor of the kidney in children?
Wilms' tumor
59
At what age is Wilms' tumor most commonly diagnosed?
Between 1 and 5 years old (peak at age 3)
60
What is the most common presenting sign of Wilms' tumor?
Asymptomatic abdominal or flank mass
61
What symptom helps differentiate Wilms' tumor from neuroblastoma?
Hematuria
62
What syndrome is associated with Wilms' tumor
aniridia
63
What is the chromosomal abnormality associated with Wilms' tumor?
Deletion of WT1 and PAX6 on chromosome 11p13
64
What imaging is used to characterize Wilms' tumor and check for metastases?
Abdominal and chest CT
65
What imaging is used to check for renal vein or vena caval extension in Wilms' tumor?
Abdominal ultrasound
66
What is the preferred initial treatment approach for Wilms' tumor in the United States?
Surgery followed by chemotherapy
67
What is the preferred initial treatment approach for Wilms' tumor in Europe (SIOP)?
Preoperative chemotherapy followed by surgery
68
What surgical procedure is performed for Wilms' tumor?
Radical nephroureterectomy
69
What is the hallmark of Stage I Wilms' tumor?
Tumor limited to the kidney and completely excised
70
What defines Stage III Wilms' tumor?
Residual tumor confined to the abdomen (e.g.
71
What defines Stage IV Wilms' tumor?
Hematogenous metastases or distant lymph node involvement
72
What defines Stage V Wilms' tumor?
Bilateral renal involvement
73
What is the third most common pediatric malignancy?
Neuroblastoma
74
What is the most common extracranial solid tumor in children?
Neuroblastoma
75
What embryonic origin do neuroblastomas arise from?
Neural crest cells
76
What is the most common site of origin for neuroblastomas?
Adrenal glands
77
What is a common presenting sign of neuroblastoma?
Asymptomatic abdominal mass crossing the midline
78
What metastatic sign is associated with neuroblastoma and causes proptosis and periorbital ecchymosis?
Retrobulbar metastasis
79
What paraneoplastic syndrome can occur in neuroblastoma causing severe watery diarrhea?
Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide (VIP) secretion
80
What paraneoplastic syndrome in neuroblastoma causes opsoclonus-myoclonus?
Cerebellar involvement
81
What diagnostic test is used to detect catecholamine metabolites in neuroblastoma?
Urine VMA and HVA
82
What is the minimum diagnostic criterion for neuroblastoma?
Biopsy or elevated catecholamines
83
What is the goal of surgery for neuroblastoma?
Complete surgical resection (≥95%)
84
What is Stage 4S neuroblastoma?
Localized tumor with metastases limited to skin
85
What type of teratoma contains all 3 germ layers?
Mature teratoma
86
What is the most common teratoma in neonates?
Sacroccocygeal teratoma
87
At what age does sacrococcygeal teratoma risk malignant transformation?
After 2 months of age
88
What is the most common malignant liver tumor in children?
Hepatoblastoma
89
At what age is hepatoblastoma usually diagnosed?
Before age 4
90
What liver tumor is associated with elevated AFP?
Hepatoblastoma
91
What is the most common benign liver lesion in children?
Hemangioma
92
What is the peak age range for hepatocellular carcinoma in children?
10-15 years
93
What imaging determines resectability of pediatric liver tumors?
Abdominal CT scan
94
What is the treatment goal for pediatric liver tumors?
Complete surgical resection
95
When is liver transplantation indicated for pediatric liver tumors?
When tumors are massive or multicentric
96
What defines Stage I pediatric liver cancer?
Completely resected tumor with no metastasis
97
What defines Stage IV pediatric liver cancer?
Distant metastases present