Common Core Flashcards

1
Q

Conditions that led to the formation of the Navy

A

America’s first based offensive to cut off British resupply lines during the revolutionary war

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2
Q

Qualities that characterize the navy/marine corps team as instruments to support national policies

A

Readiness
Flexibility
Self sustainability
Mobility

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3
Q

Navy’s Birthday

Father of the Navy

A

October 13, 1775

John Paul Jones

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4
Q

What were the conditions that led to the creation of the Seabees?

A

During WWII armed construction workers were critically needed in combat

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5
Q

Significance of March 5, 1942 (Seabees)

A

Seabees name was granted
Bureau of yards and docks
Created by Admiral Ben moreell
Birthday of the Seabees

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6
Q

Battle of Coral Sea

A

May 6-8, 1942, battle fought entirely by aircraft launched from carriers, the two fleets never saw each other
Purpose was to stop invasion of Australia
USS Lexington was sunk

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7
Q

What carriers were involved in the battle of coral sea?

A

USS YORKTOWN
USS LEXINGTON

UN SHO HO
UN SHO KAKU
UN ZUI KAKU

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8
Q

Invasion of Normandy

A

June 4, 1944
Largest amphibious operation in history
Completed landings successfully and eventually pushed on into Germany

Omaha beach 
Utah beach 
Juno beach 
Sword beach 
Gold beach
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9
Q

Battle of midway

A

June 4-7, 1942
The turning point of the war in the pacific
USS Yorktown and USS Hammann sunk

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10
Q

The 6 first frigates and commission date

A
Constellation 
Constitution 
Congress
Chesapeake 
President 
United States 
March 27, 1794
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11
Q

What do the 3 stars on the Coxswain pin mean?

A

The 3 operations of the Vietnam War
Market Time TF115
Game Warden TF116
Mobile Riverine Force TF117

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12
Q

Who is the father of the brown water navy

A

Admiral Elmo R Zumwalt jr
Launched the sealords
October 8, 1968

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13
Q

Conditions that led to the creation of navy explosive ordnance and divers

A

During WWII first volunteers trained with British UN-exploded ordinance (UXO) teams
1941-1945-19 classes graduated and were deployed throughout the pacific
Originally named Mobile Explosive Investigative Units (MEIU)
Handles, defuses and disposed of ammunition and explosives

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14
Q

SECNAV

A

Conducts recruiting, organizing, supplying, equipping, training, and mobilizing and demobilizing
Oversees the construction, outfitting and repair of naval ships, equipment and facilities
Formulates and implements policies and programs that are consistent with the national security policies and objectives established by the president and the secdef

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15
Q

CNO

A

Responsible to the SECNAV for the command, utilization of resources and operating efficiency of the operating forces of the navy and of the navy shore activities assigned by the secretary
A member of the joint chiefs of staff the CNO is the principal naval advisor to the president and to the SECNAV on the conduct of war and is the principal advisor and naval executive to the secretary on the conduct of the activities of the department of the navy

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16
Q

MCPON

A

Senior enlisted person in the navy, serves as the senior enlisted leader of the navy and as an advisor to the CNO and to the chief of naval personnel in the matters dealing with enlisted personnel and their families
An advisor to the many boards dealing with enlisted personnel issues, is the enlisted representative of the department of the navy at special events may be called upon to testify on enlisted personnel issues before congress and maintains a liasion with enlisted spouse organizations

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17
Q

Fleet master Chief

A

The navy’s fleet force CNO directed and command master Chief program is a valuable asset, which stimulates free flowing communications and ensures the highest standards of professionalism are upheld at all levels within the chain of command.
Fleet M/C, Force M/C, CNO directed command M/Cs and command M/C strengthen the chain of command by keeping the commander/commanding officer aware of existing or potential situations as well as procedures and practices which affect the mission, readiness, welfare and moral of sailors in the command

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18
Q

Force master Chief

A

Report directly to their respective commanders/commanding officers. They participate in formulating and implementing policies concerning morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization, and training of navy enlisted personnel by reporting directly to their commanders
Keep their chain of command aware and informed of sensitive and current issues

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19
Q

Commanding Officer

A

As set forth in US navy regulations, the CO is charged with the absolute responsibility for the safety, wellbeing, and efficiency of his or her command.

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20
Q

Executive Officer

A

The XO is the direct representative of the commanding officer. The XO shall be primarily responsible under the CO for the organization, performance of duty and good order and discipline of the entire command. He will recognize the right and duty of a head of department to confer directly with the CO on matters specifically relating the his department

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21
Q

CMDMC

A

The CMDCM is the enlisted advisor to the command on the formulation and implementation of the policies pertinent to the morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization and training of all enlisted personnel and as such the CMC has direct access to the CO.

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22
Q

N1

A

Observe and report to the XO on the effectiveness of an administrative policy, procedures and regulations of the command

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23
Q

N3

A

Reports to the CO concerning operations, intelligence and tactical employment of the unit and assigned aircraft.
Reports to the XO for the administration of the operations department

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24
Q

N4

A

Under the CO, responsible for OPTAR funds, material items and COSAL inventory

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25
Q

N6

A

Operates and administers the end segments or operator positions of the radio and landline facilities at the communication activity

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26
Q

7 NECC commands

A

Coastal riverine force
Maritime civil affairs and training command
Explosive ordinance disposal
Naval construction force
Naval expeditionary intelligence command
Naval expeditionary logistics
Expeditionary combat readiness command

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27
Q

Development of the navy safety and occupational health program

A

Navy historically maintained SOH program to protect its people and property
Navy safety program includes: explosives safety, nuclear safety, aviation safety, acquisition and system safety, traffic safety and off duty safety
Chief of naval operations special assistant for safety matters has traditionally managed the overall SOH program
Safety and occupational health (SOH)

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28
Q

What is the purpose of ORM

A

Decision making tool used by personnel at all levels to increase effectiveness by identifying assessing and managing risks
OPNAVINST 3500.39C

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29
Q

3 types of ORM

A

Time critical -mental and oral review of situation
Deliberate- brainstorm to identify hazards and develop controls
In-depth - deliberate process involving thorough risk assessment

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30
Q

5 steps of ORM

A
I- identify hazards 
A- asses hazards 
M- make risk decisions 
I- implement controls
S- supervise
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31
Q

4 principles of ORM

A

Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost
Accept no unnecessary risk
Anticipate and manage risk by planning
Make risk decisions at the right level

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32
Q

Hazard severity codes

A

Category 1- loss of mission capability, unit readiness or asset, death
Category 2- significantly degraded mission capability or unit readiness, severe injury or damage
Category 3- degraded mission capability or unit readiness, minor damage to equipment
Category 4- little or no impact to mission capability or unit readiness, minimal injury or damage

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33
Q

Mishap probability codes

A

Subcategory A- likely to occur: immediately or within a short period of time
Subcategory B- probably will occur in time: expected to occur several time to an individual item or person
Subcategory C- May occur in time: can reasonably be expected to occur sometime to an individual item or person
Subcategory D- unlikely to occur: not impossible

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34
Q

Hazard Severity

A

An assessment of the potential consequence that can occur as a result of a hazard and is defined by the degree of injury, illness, property damage, loss of assets (time, money,personnel) or effect on the mission or task.
Consideration must be given to exposure potential

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35
Q

Mishap probability

A

As assessment of the likelyhood that a potential consequence may occur as a result of a hazard and is defined by assessment of such factors as location, exposure (cycles or hours of operations) affected populations, experience, or previously established statistical information

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36
Q

Hierarchy or preferred control measures for fall hazards

A

Elimination-removing hazard
Prevention- isolating hazard
Engineering controls- design change
Administrative controls- implementing workplace practices

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37
Q

What is the purpose of the hazmat program

A

Identifies safety and occupational health functions and defines requirements and responsibilities for shore activity and region
Hazardous material control and management, focuses on preventing, minimizing or eliminating the introduction of hazardous materials
Safety handling and disposing of hazardous waste

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38
Q

Safety and occupational health training requirements

A
Safety orientations
Hearing conservation 
Asbestos hazards 
Respiratory protection 
Lead
Exposure monitoring 
Hazardous material 
Confined space entry 
Ergonomics 
Weight handling 
PPE
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39
Q

Purpose of safety standdown

A

Summer months
Winter months
Trends in command

Promotes safety by covering topics mishaps
(Drugs, alcohol, motorcycle, stress.. etc)

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40
Q

Mishap Classifications

A

Class A- resulting in total cost of property damages in an amount of 1 million or more or an injury or illness, result in a fatality or permanent disability
Class B- resulting in total cost of property damage in 200k or more but less than 1million. An injury or illness resulting in partial disability or when 3 or more persons are hospitalized
Class C- total cost of damages is 20k or more but less than 200k, an event involving one or more persons that results in one or more days away from work

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41
Q

Globally harmonized system

A
standard phrases assigned to a hazard class and category that describe the nature of the hazard. 
The symbols, signals words and hazard statements have all been standardized and assigned to specific hazard categories and classes as appropriate 
Hazard pictograms convey health, physical and environmental hazard information
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42
Q

At what decibel is single hearing protection requires

A

85-96 decibels

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43
Q

At what decibel is double hearing protection required

A

96 decibels and above

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44
Q

What are the risk factors of work related musculoskeletal disorders (WMSD)

A
Force 
Repetition
Awkward or static posture 
Vibration 
Contact stress
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45
Q

Palletization

A

The prevent damage to a units cargo and equipment during movement, it is essential to use proper palletizing techniques as listed in military standard 174D, palletized unit loads. Each pallet must be able to withstand inclement weather and rough handling.

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46
Q

Weighing and marking cargo

A

To correctly move equipment, it must be prepared, marked and labeled correctly. There are two main divisions; vehicle and general cargo
UIC Marking
NATO
Embarkation boxes, crates & pallet boards
Hazmat ID labels, chemical/safety
Hazmat label (generic shippers declaration) and out on 3 sides of container
SOLID 5 POINT BLACK STAR= used by NATO is to identify US military vehicles

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47
Q

Shoring

A

Shoring and dunnage May be required when loading cargo and equipment on all modes of transportation. The unit owning or presenting the equipment for shipment is responsible for purchasing and providing the shoring and dunnage required for movement

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48
Q

4 types of shoring

A

Sleeper
Rolling
Parking
Approach

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49
Q

Joint inspection

A

JI
Joint inspection is recorded on form DD-2133, joint airlift inspection record
All equipment must be properly prepared and documented before it can be loaded on any aircraft. Must be approved that equipment is safe and ready to fly

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50
Q

463L Pallet System

A

Aluminum shell with soft wood core framed on all sides by aluminum rails
22 tie down rings each of 7500lb restraint capacity 88x108x96in (84x104in usable)
Empty weight 290, 355 with cargo netting
Max load with the use of a complete set of nets is 10,000lbs of cargo
If loads exceeds the limit, shoring must be used to spread the load over a large area

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51
Q

C-130 Hercules

A

Primary use- intra theater
6 pallets, 90 passengers, 62k gallons fuel
Tactical airlift, provides airdrop and air land support to forward operating locations.
Typical missions include moving cargo from main theater staging bases to the front lines
Can take off on shorter distance and land on uneven ground

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52
Q

C-17 globemaster

A

Primary use-intra theater
18 pallets, 102 passengers, 184k gallons
Typical mission: tactical airlift of outsized items of cargo to small austere airfields at or near the battle area, be aerial delivery or air land methods

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53
Q

C5 galaxy

A

Primary use inter theater
36 pallets, 344 passangers, 332,500 gallons of fuel
Strategic airlift of outsized cargo
Typical mission: moves cargo such as large helos, tanks and communications vans.
Largest plane, opens from the front and back.

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54
Q

KC10 Extender

A

Primary use inter theater
22 pallets. 75 passengers, 356k gallons of fuel
Strategic airlift
Typical mission is for refueling

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55
Q

Calculating Center of balance for Cese equipment

A

Weigh all axles (combined weight of axle), establish a reference datum line (RDL) at the front axel, measure distance from RDL to all axels (to center of dual axels) compute moments for all axels or combines axels divide total movements by total weight to determine CB. Mark each axel weight, center balance, and gross weight. Moment equation from a reference datum line (RDL) (front line)
Weight x distance = moment

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56
Q

Time phased force deployment data (TPFDD)

A

The TFPDD is both a force requirements and a prioritized transportation movement document. The TFPDD defines the combatant commanders time-phases lift requirements for supplies, equipment and replacement personnel needed to sustain the forces specified during force planning

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57
Q

3 phases of TFPDD

A

Concept
Plan development
Review

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58
Q

Military sealift command mission

A

The mission of the MSC is to provide ocean transportation of equipment, fuel, supplies, and ammunition to sustain US forces worldwide across the romo for as long as operational RQMTs dictate. MSC provides the sea transportation component for USTRANSCOM. MSC operates ships that provide combat logistics support to USN

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59
Q

Military sealift command strategies

A

Sustainment of sealift capability
Preposition assets at strategic locations
Surge sealift capability of critical weapons and equipment

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60
Q

Maritime pre-positioning force (MPF) (13)

A

Marines, Seabees, HMs
Deploys MAGTF
(marines air-ground task force)
Locations- Rota, Diego Garcia, Guam

Afloat prepositioning force(APF) (over 30)

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61
Q

Op Funds

A

OPTAR funds are derived from the activity’s projected expenditures based on the amount used during the previous 12 months and their operating schedule for the next 12 months. The activity submits it’s budget request to their type commander who then consolidates until it makes its way to the POTUS. He then send Congress a budget. They then pass appropriation bills into law. Those funds are then distributed back through commands.

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62
Q

Army supply Class I

A

Rations- food, free health and comfort items

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63
Q

Army supply Class II

A

Expendables- individuals equipment, tentage, organizational tool sets and kits, hand tools, unclassified maps, administrative and housekeeping supplies and equipment

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64
Q

Army Supply Class III

A

POL- petroleum, oil and lubricants: petroleum, fuels, lubricants, hydraulic and insulating oils, preservatives, liquids and gases, bulk chemical products, coolants, driver and antifreeze compounds and additives of petroleum and chemical products and coal

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65
Q

Army supply Class IV

A

Construction materials, including installed equipment and all fortification and carrier materials

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66
Q

Army supply Class V

A

Ammunition of all types, bombs, explosives, mines, fuses, detonators, pyrotechnics, missiles, rockets, propellants and associated items

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67
Q

Army supply Class VI

A

Personal demand items
Health and hygiene products, soaps, toothpaste, writing materials, snack food, beverages, cigarettes, batteries, alcohol, cameras

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68
Q

Army supply Class VII

A

Major end items such as launchers, tanks. Mobile machine shops, and vehicles

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69
Q

Army supply Class VIII

A

Medical material, equipment and consumables including repair parts to peculiar medical equipment.

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70
Q

Army supply Class IX

A

Repair parts and components to include kits, assemblies and sub assemblies required for maintenance support of all equipment

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71
Q

Army supply Class X

A

Material to support nonmilitary programs such as agriculture and economic development

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72
Q

Army supply Miscellaneous

A

Water, salvage, captured material

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73
Q

Purpose of Table of allowance (TOA) TA77

A

An equipment allowance document which prescribed basic allowances of organizational equipment and provides the control to develop, revise or change equipment inventory data

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74
Q

Government commercial purchase card

A

Intended to streamline small purchase methods, minimize paperwork, eliminate petty cash, streamline payment process and simplify the admin effort associated with purchases of supplies and services

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75
Q

What is the purpose of shipper declaration of dangerous goods

A

Document hazardous cargo
Use a generic shippers declaration for dangerous foods format
Describe hazmat
Provides handling information
Units are required to have MCO P4030.19H readily available
(Preparing hazardous materials for military air shipments )

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76
Q

Cargo containers

A
Side opening container
Flat rock loader
Half-height container (halfcon) 
PALCON
quadruple container 
Triple container 
ISO
ISU
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77
Q

Embarkation

ACL

A

Allowable cabin/cargo load

Amount of the passengers/cargo that may be transported by a specific aircraft

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78
Q

Embarkation

CRE/CRT

A

Contingency response element

Contingency response team

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79
Q

Embarkation

Marshaling

A

Process by which units move equipment, cargo, and personnel to temporary staging area near embarkation points

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80
Q

Embarkation

AACG

A

Arrival airfield control group

Responsible for receiving all airlifted items and movement from airfield to deployment site

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81
Q

Embarkation

DACG

A

Departure airfield control group

Responsible for controlling the flow of personnel, cargo, and equipment from the marshaling area to the aircraft

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82
Q

How many types of shoring are used during embarkation operations?

A

4
Sleeper- under the frames of vehicles over 20k with balloon tires. Protects vehicles from bouncing
Rolling- protects aircraft parking ramp and cargo from cleated treads
Parking- 3/4” disperses weight
Approach- decreases the approach angle of loading ramps

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83
Q

Convoy troop leading procedures

A
receive the mission 
Issue warning order 
Make a tentative plan 
Initiate movement 
Reconnoiter 
Complete the plan 
Issue the convoy brief 
Supervise
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84
Q

Additional factors for convoy planning

A

Gun trucks
Use of forward security element
Maintain OPSEC
Destruction plan

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85
Q

How does the operating target (OPTAR)/budget impacts your department

A

Funds for administrative and housekeeping items, forms, routine maintenance tools not specifically related to but which may be used in, the repair equipment and other items having a limited shelf life such as lubricants, boiler compound and bilge cleaner

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86
Q

DD FORM 1348-6

A

The DD FORM 1348-6 is recommended for requisitioning material that is not identified by a national stock number (NSN) or NICN

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87
Q

NAVCOMPT 2276

A

Reimbursable work order

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88
Q

NAVSUP 1250-2

A

General MILSTRIP requisitioning forms- will be used only when facilities are not available to the requisitioning activity to enable automated transmission of documents or the requisition coding structure does not provide sufficient data to assist the supply source in making supply decisions

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89
Q

DD FORM 448 (MIPR)

A

Interdepartmental purchase request is a method for transferring funds by one military organization to another to procure purchases of supplies or equipment for the requiring service. The MIPR May be accepted on a direct citation or reimbursable basis

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90
Q

SF44

A

Purchase order/ invoice voucher
A pocket size multipurpose purchase order form designed primarily for on the spot over the counter purchases of supplies and non personal service.
It is a purchase order, receiving report, invoice and public voucher

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91
Q

DD FORM 1155

A

Fuel purchases- used to document all fuel purchases from commercial sources

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92
Q

SF30

A

Modification of change of price

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93
Q

DD FORM 200

A

Survey is the expenditure of material when it is lost, damaged, unserviceable or non-ready for issue (NRFI) and is not economically repairable

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94
Q

Table of allowance

A

An equipment allowance document that prescribes basic allowances of organizational equipment and provides the control to develop, revise, or change equipment authorization inventory data

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95
Q

Joint acquisition review board

A

The MNC-I joint acquisition review board is a review system to ensure the command is make good financial decisions

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96
Q

Joint facilities utilization board

A

A joint board that evaluates and reconciles component requests for real estate, use of existing facilities, inter-service support and construct to ensure compliance with joint civil military engineering board priorities
AKA JFUB

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97
Q

Procedure for gardening vehicles

A

Cover the cargo bed of troop carrying vehicles with at least a double interlocking layer of sandbags. Cover the cab floor of all vehicles with a double layer under the driver seat.
Place a heavy rubber or fiber mat over the sandbags to reduce danger from fragments of sand/metal parts.
Sandbags May also be placed on the good, fuel tank and fenders

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98
Q

Convoy commander/ ACC

A

The leader charger with responsibility for the planning, preparation, execution and tactical employment of a convoy
The ACC is prepared to assume the duties of CC and responsible for logistics and maintenance of vehicles, weapons, communications and other key equipment support of the convoy

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99
Q

Lead vehicle commander

A

Performs convoy navigation duties, communicates checkpoints, turns, danger areas, maintains convoy speed/interval as seen from their location or via radio

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100
Q

Vehicle commander

A

Responsible for standard equipment requirements (ammunition, food, water, fuel, etc)
As well as organizing and rehearsing crew drills of assigned vehicles

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101
Q

Diver/ A driver

A

Primary duty is to drive, scan assigned sector of observation, is prepared to return fire in extreme situations. Can be rotated out when required

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102
Q

Crew served weapons operator

A

Responsible for primary and alternative sectors of fire, targets greatest threat along the route

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103
Q

Designated marksman

A

The purpose of the designated marksman is to facilitate precision fires

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104
Q

Medic

A

Render medical treatment and supervise evacuation of casualties

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105
Q

Littler team

A

ARE personnel that are responsible for providing. Buddy aid, preparation of casualties for movement and or evacuation

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106
Q

Landing zone team

A

The LZ team consists of a minimum of two personnel responsible for establishing and marking the Liz for possible MEDEVAC or other required support provided by air

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107
Q

Assault team

A

Personnel with the convoy to act as an assault element in the event the convoy encounters heavy enemy action requiring the convoy to halt

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108
Q

Recovery team

A

Maintenance recovery personnel and vehicles should be designated to assist with maintenance and recovery of convoy assets along the route

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109
Q

Security personnel

A

All other personnel participating in the convoy

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110
Q

File formation

A

Best used with inexperienced or foreign drivers
Simple, usable at night but interval will have to be compress
Minimizes IED blast effects
Disadvantages- weak left flank security, reduced field of view, reduced headlight coverage at night

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111
Q

Staggered formation

A

Used only on multi lane roads
Allows for all around security, greater flexibility
Permits ease of maneuver during contact, greater headlight coverage at night
Disadvantages- requires more command and control and driver experience, more vulnerable to IED blast effects

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112
Q

Offset formation

A

Used to block third party traffic and assists in changing lanes
Combines flexibility of stagger with the ease of the file formation
Allows COnvoy commander to control third party traffic
Disadvantages- vulnerable to IED blast effects, difficult to command and control

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113
Q

Inverted T formation

A

Used on multi lane roads, convoy runs the centerline if their lanes limits third party vehicle infiltration
Disadvantages- requires experienced drivers, weak left flank security
Difficult to command and control without sufficient communications

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114
Q

Diamond formation

A

Used on multi lane roads
Limits third party vehicle infiltration
Disadvantages- requires experienced drivers, difficult to command and control without sufficient communications

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115
Q

Downed driver

A

Vehicle commander gains control of steering wheel- if possible third person pulls driver out of drivers compartment and vehicle commander moves into drivers seat

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116
Q

Bailout

A

Crew on the cold side dismounts, assumes hasty position to the rear of the vehicle and returns fire
Hot side returns fire until clear to dismount on the cold side. C moves to the front of the vehicle.
Assumes firing positions using the vehicle as cover
Establish 360 degree security
Look for indicators of enemy presence

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117
Q

Hasty vehicle recovery

A

Use a strap, cable, or chain. Position the tie downs beforehand
After fire superiority is obtained, recovery vehicle moves forward. Driver stays in vehicle while VC ties onto disabled. VC gets into disabled vehicle to steer/work on brakes.
Recovery vehicle moves and pulls disabled
Recovery vehicle moves to rally point to reconfig to more stable towing. If unable to get in front of disabled vehicle, push through is an option. Premounting a used tire on the front of the vehicle assists in push through

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118
Q

In stride hasty vehicle recovery

A

If vehicle is disabled, the driver and VC extend the strap from both the disabled and recovery vehicle.
Recovery vehicle moves alongside disabled vehicle.
VC and driver attach connecting device and release straps
Recovery vehicle continues to move forward slowly taking up the slack and pulling the vehicle out.

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119
Q

Dismount/remount procedures

A

Dismount is called by the VC
Dismounts do not get in between any vehicles but protect space between vehicles. Dismounts use buddy teams to over watch each other. They already maintain line of sight with the buddy. Rear security is the only one behind a vehicle but should stay off to the side. If necessary dismounts use hand motions and verbal commands to motion civilians back. If that fails they use weapons at port arms to to motion civilians back. If more force is required dismounts ensure actions taken are in accordance with ROE. Remount given by CC

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120
Q

React to contact- Blow through

A

Speed up
Signal, visual signal to indicate general direction of enemy
Return fire, proportional and accurate fires within the ROE
Send a report
Move to a rally point away from site based on SOP and METT-TC
Establish 360 degree security
Send ACE report
Continue the mission

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121
Q

React to contact, recovery, no obstacle

A

Convoy is forced to stop. Dismount and establish 360 degrees of security. Maintain sector of scan/fire. Look for indications of enemy presence. Achieve fire superiority. Report to higher and request assistance if needed. Recover casualties from cold side. Recovery vehicle executes hasty recovery. Convoy continues movement to rally point, establishes 360 security. CC sends ACE report and convoy continues mission

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122
Q

React to contact- recovery- obstacle

A

Crowd or other impediment prevents movement and convoy is forced to stop. VC and other personnel in vehicles dismount. drivers and CSW operators remain on vehicle and remain ready to react. Establish 360 security, maintain sector, scan for enemy presence, achieve fire superiority. Dismounts recover casualties from cold side
CC assessed situation, establishes a hasty defense and awaits QRF or directs escorts force to assault through ambush using fire and maneuver

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123
Q

Hasty attack

A

Gun trucks, designated marksman, assault force suppress identified threat with accurate fires
Gun trucks maneuver to suitable position to protect convoy and cutoff enemy egress route by fire

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124
Q

Sectors of observation and fields of fire in a convoy

A

Sector of observation is comprised of the entire area visible to the crew member
Drivers sector of observation is from 9 o’clock to 1 o’clock
VCs sector is from 11 o’clock to 3 o’clock

Sector of fire is the area that be covered with direct fire
Drivers sector of fire is from 9 to 11 o’clock
VC sector of fire is from 1 to 3 o’clock

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125
Q

Convoy communications

A

Vehicle internal
Vehicle to vehicle
External to convoy

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126
Q

Characteristics of IED/VBIED

A

Constructed using mortar shells, mines, diesel fuel, rockets
Can be hidden in pot holes, dead animals, on poles, vehicles
Disguised as trash, buckets, bags, cans
Command detonated, victim detonated, timed
Dropped or attached to things
Enemy will usually have line of sight to kill zone
IEDs can be daisy chained.. one sets off all

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127
Q

5 Cs (IED)

A
Confirm 
Clear 
Cordon 
Control
Check
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128
Q

Purpose of first aid

A

To save lives and prevent further injury

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129
Q

Asphyxiation

A

Drowning, choking, exposure to poisonous fumes
Treatment: maintain open airway, head tilt chin lift/ jaw thrust maneuver, remove individual from the hazardous environment

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130
Q

Hemorrhage

A

Loss of blood from the circulatory system due to gun shots, stab wounds, punctured and IED

Treatment: direct pressure/ compression, elevation and pressure points

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131
Q

Cardiac arrest

A

Irregular beating of the heart, lower chambers

Treatment- CPR, AED, higher medical care

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132
Q

Fractures

A

A break in a bone or cartilage due to blunt force trauma, falls, auto accident or weak bones
Treatment- control bleeding if present, splint as found, seek higher medical attention

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133
Q

Burns

A

Caused by sun, electricity, chemical agents and scalding heat
Treatment- remove from source, remove constricting clothes, treat for shock, control bleeding, and loose apply moist dressing

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134
Q

Shocks

A

Result from trauma, blood loss, heat stroke and allergic reaction
Treatment- keep casualty warm and calm, treat any life threatening injury, transport to higher medical care

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135
Q

2 types of fractures

A

Simple(closed) a simple fracture is one in which the injury is entirely internal
Treatment-splint,do not move casualty until injury has been splinter unless necessary to save life or prevent further injury

Compound (open) an open fracture is where the bone protrudes through the flesh
Treatment- stop bleeding by direct pressure, treat wound then fracture

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136
Q

Arterial bleed

A

Bright red blood spurts from the wound

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137
Q

Venous bleed

A

Dark red blood flows from the wound

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138
Q

Capillary bleed

A

Bleeding is slow oozes from the wound

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139
Q

Bleed control techniques

A

Direct pressure- first and most effective
Pressure dressing- aid in blood clotting and compress the open blood vessel
Indirect pressure- in conjunction with direct pressure and elevation
Tourniquet- last resort

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140
Q

Systems of shock

A
Anxiety
Nausea
Weak pulse
Thirst 
Pale skin
Shallow breathing 
Enlarged pupils
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141
Q

Treatment of shock

A
Maintain open airway 
Control breathing 
Keep warm
Elevate legs 
Give nothing by mouth 
Request medical assistance
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142
Q

Rule of 9s

A

Of greater importance that the depth of the burn in evaluating the seriousness of the condition is the extent of the burned area. A first degree burn over 50% of the body surface area may be more serious than a third degree burn over 3%. The rule of 9s is used to give a rough estimate of the surface area affected

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143
Q

Thermal burn

A
Caused by fire
Hot objects 
Hot liquids 
Gases
Nuclear blast it fireball
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144
Q

Electrical burn

A

Caused by electrical wires, current or lighting

Treatment- monitor basic functions, CPR, treat for shock, cover entrance and exit wounds, transport to medical facility

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145
Q

Chemical burn

A

Contact with wet or dry chemicals or white phosphorus
Treatment- quickly flush the area with water, remove all clothing, neutralize any chemical remaining on affected area, flush again with water, pat dry and move to medical facility

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146
Q

First degree burn

A

Slight redness, mild swelling, tenderness and painful at sight

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147
Q

Second degree burn

A

Skin blisters, fluid plasma loss at the surface, severe pain and redness at sight

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148
Q

Third degree burn

A

Extends through all layers of the skin, skin may look white or charred. Skin, muscle and even bone may be destroyed

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149
Q

Chest wounds

A

Stop the bleeding, seal wound on both sides, give nothing by mouth, monitor and treat for shock

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150
Q

Abdominal wounds

A

Stop the bleeding. Keep exposed intestines moist and covered with abdominal dressing, treat for shock, place casualty in most comfortable position tolerable, do not push intestines back into body

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151
Q

Head wounds

A

Give no medications, lightly wrap injury, monitor away, lie victim down and maintain C-spine precautions, treat for shocks, seek higher medical care

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152
Q

Eye injury

A

Cover one or both eyes, seek higher medical care

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153
Q

Facial wounds

A

Maintain airway, remove any obstructions such as teeth, place victim into a recover position to prevent choking in blood or other items that may induce vomiting. Give nothing by mouth.

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154
Q

Hypothermia

A

Abnormally low body temperature, due to a prolong exposure to the cold elements
Shivering, drowsiness, troubled breathing, eyes glossy, weak or absent pulse
Treatment- remove from environment, observe airway, CPR if needed, treat other injuries, remove wet clothing, warm by water or skin to skin, treat for shock

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155
Q

Frost bite

A

Ice crystals form in tissue
Reddens, numbness, hard to touch, loss of feeling in toes and fingers
Treatment- remove wet clothing, warm thawed extremities, do not rub, sterile gauze between tors and fingers

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156
Q

5 methods to transporting a victim

A
Stokes stretcher 
Blanket drag
Fireman carry 
Arm carry 
Pack strap carry 

**move casualty feet first

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157
Q

Heat stroke

A

Extremely high body temperature 104 degrees or more
Headache, nausea, dizziness, or weakness, flushed, dry and hot, pupils will constrict and pulse fast and strong
Move casualty to cool area, remove as much clothing as possible, douse with cool water, apply ice packs to head, neck, arm outs, groin and ankles, IV fluids
Move to higher medical care

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158
Q

Heat exhaustion

A

Signs similar to shock
Temperature 99-103.9 degrees
Ashen gray, skin is cool, moist and clammy and the pupils may be dilated
Most common heat related injury
Treat as if in shock, give cool water, loosen clothing and apply wet clothes to head, maxilla, groin and ankles

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159
Q

Heat cramps

A

Move victim to cool place and gently massage muscles to relieve spasms, give cool water: salt (1 tsp/quart water)
Excessive sweating can lead to pain cramps in the muscles in the abdomen, legs and arms. Heat cramps may also result from drinking too much ice water or other cold drinks or drinking them too quickly

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160
Q

Tactical casualty combat care (TCCC) triage

A

Immediate- require lifesaving surgery
Delayed- in need of time consuming surgery
Minimal- relatively minor injuries, can care for self
Expectant- wounds so extensive; survival would be unlikely; provide comfort measures for these casualties

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161
Q

TCCC Care under fire

A
  1. Expect casualty to stay engaged as a combatant if appropriate
  2. Return fire as directed or required
  3. Try to keep yourself from being shot
  4. Try to keep casualty from sustaining additional wounds
  5. Airway management is generally best deferred until tactical field care phase
  6. Stop any life threatening external hemorrhage
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162
Q

TCCC Tactical field care

A
  1. casualties with an altered mental status should be disarmed immediately
  2. airway management
  3. breathing
  4. bleeding
  5. IV
  6. Fluid resuscitation
  7. Inspect and dress known wounds
  8. check for additional wounds
  9. Analgesia as necessary
  10. Sprint fractures and recheck pulse
  11. Antibiotics: for all open wounds
  12. Communicate with patient .. 13. CPR
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163
Q

TCCC tac-evac

A
  1. airway management
  2. breathing 3. Bleeding
  3. IV 5.fluid resuscitation
  4. Prevent hypothermia 7. Penetrating eye tra
  5. inspect and dress known wounds
  6. Check for additional wounds
  7. Provide analgesia
  8. reassess fractures and recheck pulses
  9. Antibiotics
  10. The pneumatic anti-shock garment (PSAG) May be useful for stabilizing pelvic fractures and controlling pelvic and abdominal bleeding
  11. Documentation of care
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164
Q

What special gauze is used in the field to aid in the control of bleeding?

A

Combat gauze- used on extremities only, applied with at least 3 minutes of direct pressure

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165
Q

What does most stand for?

A

M- mechanism of injury

I- injuries or illness

S- symptoms and vital signs

T- treatment given

Given after a 9 line MEDEVAC

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166
Q

What are the 3 methods of communications in areas where oral communication is not reliable?

A

Whistle signals

Special signals (horn, klaxon, Siren, pistol, rifle)

Arm and hand signals

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167
Q

What is the comms plan?

A

The primary purpose of tactical communication is to enable and support C2. Communications planning must be detailed enough to provide clarity, but also flexible enough to respond to the chaos inherent in the battle space and during the conduct of military operations

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168
Q

Command and control

A

Enables the naval commander to understand the situation in his battle space

As defined in joint publication 142 command and control is “the exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission

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169
Q

Process of command and control

A

Plan , directing, coordinating, and controlling of forces and operations from a high level
It’s a continuous cyclical process called the decision and execution cycle AKA the OODA loop (observe, orient, decide, act)

Command and control allows a commander to make effective decisions and direct the successful execution of military operations

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170
Q

What are the 3 levels of intelligence

A

Strategic
Operational
Tactical

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171
Q

What is the purpose of naval intelligence

A

Intelligence is the product resulting from the collection, exploitation, processing, integration, analysis, evaluation and interpretation of available information concerning foreign countries or areas

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172
Q

What are the 5 principles of intelligence

A
Know the adversary 
Ensure unity of intelligence effort 
Commanders needs are paramount 
Plan for combat 
Use an all source approach
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173
Q

7 key attributes of intelligence

A
Timeliness 
Objectivity
Usability
Availability 
Thoroughness 
Accuracy
Relevance
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174
Q

What are the 5 steps of the intelligence cycle

A
Planning and direction 
Collection
Processing 
Production
Dissemination
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175
Q

OPLAN

A

Operation plan- detained statement of a course to be followed to accomplish a future mission

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176
Q

OPORD

A

Operation Order- OPORD puts the OPLAN in effect, it is a formal statement issued by the senior commander to subordinate commanders that outlines the coordinated execution of a future operation in the field

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177
Q

WARNORD

A

Warning order- a brief statement outlining the patrols general or special organization, specific uniforms, ammo, weapons, equipment, chain of command, time schedule

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178
Q

FRAGO

A

Fragmentary order- an abbreviated form of an operation order issued as needed after an operation order to change or modify that order or the execute a branch or sequel to that order

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179
Q

EXORD

A

Execution order- initiates supply personnel and admin procedure required for a unit movement

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180
Q

DEPORD

A

Deployment order- May be contained in a warning order. Is a change to alert status of units and movement of selected forces to preposition for impending operations

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181
Q

CONOPS

A

Concept of operations- a doctrine, defined as being the “a verbal or graphic statement that clearly and concisely expresses what the joint force commander intends to accomplish and how it will be done using available resources

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182
Q

Message precedence

A

R- routine: 6 hours or less

P- priority: 3 hours or less

O- immediate: 30 minutes or less

Z- flash: ASAP, objective less than 10 minutes

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183
Q

Two-person integrity (TPI)

A

Two person integrity is the security measure taken to prevent single person access to COMSEC keying material and crypto maintenance manuals

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184
Q

Access

A

The ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge of classified information

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185
Q

Classification

A

The determination that official information requires in the interest of national security, a specific degrees of protection against unauthorized disclosure, coupled with a designation signifying that such a determination has been made
FOUO, unclass, classified, secret, top secret

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186
Q

Compromise

A

A security violation which has resulted in confirmed exposure of classified information or material to a person

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187
Q

Need to know

A

A determination made by an authorized holder of classified information that a prospective recipient requires access to specific classified information

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188
Q

Clearance

A

A formal determination that a person meets the personnel security standards and is thus eligible for access to classified information other than that protected in a special access program

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189
Q

3 types of clearances

A

Confidential
Secret
Top secret

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190
Q

EEFI codes

A
01- position 
02- capabilities 
03- operations 
04- electronic warfare 
05- personnel 
06- COMSEC 
07- wrong circuit
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191
Q

EEFI

A

Elements of friendly information, identify specific items of information which is revealed, transmitted immediately to and correlated with other information, which would degrade unit safety and security.

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192
Q

Bead window

A

Real time procedure used to alert circuit operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred over a non-secured circuit

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193
Q

HF radio Freq

A

High frequency

3MHZ - 30MHZ

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194
Q

VHF radio Freq

A

Very high frequency

30MHZ - 300MHZ

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195
Q

UHF radio freq

A

Ultra high frequency

300MHZ - 3GHZ

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196
Q

SATCOM radio freq

A

Satellite communications

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197
Q

CEOI

A

Communications electronic operating instruction

Instruction that contains your command and signal portion of your SMEAC, passwords and challenges, call signs, frequencies, crypto, circuits, phone directories

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198
Q

What is he purpose of a day time group on a message?

A

For identification purposes

Day-time- time zone-month and year

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199
Q

What is the purpose of an unexploded ordnance report?

A

Takes immediate action to prevent death, injury or damage to material, reported UXO hazard using the UXO spot report format

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200
Q

OPCON

A

Operation control commanders at or below the combatant commander exercise OPCON as their command authority. OPCON is inherent in COCOM and is the authority to perform the functions of command over subordinate forces.

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201
Q

TACON

A

Tactical control the CNIC uses TCON to limit the authority to direct the tactical use of combat forces. Normally limited to the detailed and specified local direction of movement and maneuvers of the tactical force to accomplish assigned task

202
Q

ADCON

A

Administrative control direction or exercise of authority necessary to fulfill military department statutory responsibilities for admin and support

203
Q

COCOM

A

Combatant commands commands authority authorized by title 10, us code, section 164 or as directed by the president. Provides full authority to organize and employ commands and forces as the combatant commander considers necessary to accomplish assigned missions

204
Q

OPREP 3, NAVY BLUE

A

Incidents of high level, US NAVY interest

Armed attack against navy vessel

205
Q

OPREP 3, UNIT SITREP

A

Incidents that do not meet the PINNACLE OR NAVY BLUE reporting criteria

(DUI, Domestic violence)

206
Q

Factors that affect radio comms

A

Weather, terrain, antenna, power, location of radio
Trying to communicate near man made objects (bridges/buildings)
Static interference (near power lines/generators)
Interference from other radio stations, bad weather or enemy jamming

207
Q

Dug in emplacements

A

Fighting positions provide cover and camouflage/concealment for personnel and physical assets. At the same time, fighting positions must allow soldiers/marines and their weapon systems to engage and destroy enemy forces from the position

208
Q

Survivability operations

A

Survivability is quality or capability of military forces which permits them to avoid or withstand hostile actions or environmental conditions while retaining the ability to fulfill their primary mission

209
Q

Individual fighting positions

A

Individual fighting positions protect one or more dismounted soldiers/marine armed with individual weapons intended to be operated by an individual rather than by a crew while supporting their ability to engage the enemy from the position
Individual fighting positions are generally constructed in defense in generally rural areas, made as small as possible to present the smallest target to the enemy but wide enough to accommodate an mans shoulders and deep enough to use entrenching tools at the bottom

210
Q

Hasty

A

Dig up dirt in front and quick as possible

211
Q

One man fighting

A

Rifle length and width.

The height is up to the armpits. 30% angle for a genade sump, 10% angle for the water sump.

212
Q

Two man fighting

A

2 rifle length and one rifle width, the height is up to the shorted mans armpit, 30% angles for a genade sump, 10% angle for the water sump

213
Q

Three general rules for camouflage

A

Take advantage of all available natural concealment
Camouflage by altering the for , shadow, texture, and color of objects
Camouflage against both ground and air observation

214
Q

Utilizing BAMCIS, describe the planning process for issuing a five paragraph order

A

Troop-leading steps (BAMCIS)
The troop leading steps are a sequence of events which unit leaders use in most tactical operations. These steps do not always occur in a specific order, many times two or more may occur concurrently. The troop leading steps are simply a tool which aids leaders in formulating initial plans and time schedules upon receipt of a mission

215
Q

BAMCIS

- B

A

Begin planning
The receipt of a mission triggers the entire BAMCIS cycle, however, tactical planning is anticipatory and continuous. To make effective use of available time, the leader issues a warning order to his subordinates.

216
Q

BAMCIS

- A

A

Arrange for reconnaissance
If possible the unit leader arranges for a physical reconnaissance of his objective, route or defensive position. He considers the route, security, subordinates to accompany him and the time for available for reconnaissance. If a physical reconnaissance is impossible the commander should at least use a map, aerial photo or visual reconnaissance from a vantage point in order to conduct his leaders reconnaissance.

217
Q

BAMCIS

- M

A

Make reconnaissance
The commanders recon will either confirm his plan or cause him to make adjustments. On a physical reconnaissance selected subordinate leaders normally accompany him. The personnel accompanying the leader will vary according to the tactical situation. The leader should take as many subordinate leaders as the situation requires, while other subordinate leaders supervise the preparations necessary for the upcoming mission

218
Q

BAMCIS

- C

A

Complete the plan
After updating his estimate of the situation (METT-T) with information gained during his reconnaissance, the leader makes his decision as to how he will accomplish the mission and completes his operation order

219
Q

BAMCIS

- I

A

Issue the order
The leader issues his order orally to his subordinate leaders. Combat orders introduces operation orders and order issuing techniques

220
Q

BAMCIS

- S

A

Supervise
The leader ensures that his plan is adhered to by listening to his subordinate leaders as they issue orders by inspecting marines and their equipment and by observing them as they conduct rehearsals. He also ensures adherence to any established time line. If any changes to the original plan are required due to recent changes in the situation. The commander must adjust his plan accordingly

221
Q

2 tapes of compass

A

Lensatic

M2

222
Q

Lad Nav requires what

A

Map
Compass
Pace count

223
Q

Grid system utilized on all military maps

A

The military grid reference system is the geo coordinate standard used by NATO militaries for locating points on earth

224
Q

Land nav

Intersection

A

The location of an unknown point by successively occupying at least two, preferably the known positions and sightings on the unknown point. It is used to locate features not depicted on the map or not readily identifiable.

225
Q

Land nav

Resection

A

Is the location of the users unknown position by sighting on two or three known features that are identifiable on the map

226
Q

SALUTE

A
S-size 
A-activity 
L-location 
U-unit 
T-time 
E-equipment 

When observed activities of the enemy do not pose a threat

227
Q

SPOT

A

S-size
P-position
O-observation
T-time

Modified salute report
Rapid way to inform COC of the vital information and should be followed up with a salute report

228
Q

Security Patrol

A

Concerned with defensive combat

229
Q

Reconnaissance Patrol

A

Information gathering patrols

230
Q

Twelve Patrol and planning and preparation steps

A
  1. Study Mission
  2. Plan the used time
  3. Study terrain and situation
  4. Organize Patrol
  5. Select equipment/personnel
  6. Issue warning order
  7. Coordinate
  8. Make recon
  9. Complete detail plans
  10. Issue Patrol order
  11. Supervise
  12. Execute
231
Q

Organization of a Patrol for movement

A

The patrols task organization establishes the elements and teams needed to accomplish the mission in the objective area to and from the objective. The patrol leader determines the formation in which the patrol moves to the objective area

232
Q

What is the purpose of combat hand and arm signals?

A

Communicate without sound. Short and to the point

233
Q

What are the 4 Fire team formations

A

Column
Wedge
Skirmishers
Echelon

234
Q

Fire team formation

Column

A

Permits rapid, controlled movement favors fire and maneuver to the flanks
Vulnerable to fire from the front and provides the least amount of fire to the front

235
Q

Fire team formation

Wedge

A

Permits good control
Provides all around security
Formation is flexible
Fire is adequate in all directions

236
Q

Fire team formation skirmishers

A

Maximum firepower to the front

Used when the location and strength of the enemy are known, during the assault, mopping up and crossing short open areas

237
Q

Fire team formation echelon

A

Provides heavy firepower to front and echeloned flank

Used to protect an open or exposed flank

238
Q

Article 1 code of conduct

A

I am an American, fighting in the forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense

239
Q

Article II of code of conduct

A

I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.

240
Q

Article III code of conduct

A

If I am captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and to aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.

241
Q

Article IV code of conduct

A

If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information or take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am Senior I will take command. If not, I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way.

242
Q

Article V code of conduct

A

When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service member and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause.

243
Q

Article VI code of conduct

A

I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my god and in the United States.

244
Q

Procedures for handling detainees/ enemy prisoners of war

A
Never attack those who surrender 
Never kill, torture 9or mistreat prisoners 
Never take personal property 
Do not violate their civil rights 
You may have to relocate civilians 
You may not use poison or poison weapons
245
Q

What are the 6 S and T of Enemy prisoner of war

A
Search
Secure
Silence 
Segregate 
Safeguard
Speed 
Tag
246
Q

Firing techniques

Pieing

A

The weapon is aimed at a sector of a window, doorway, corner or hallway and slowly moved at different angles, sectoring off the window, doorway, corner, or hallway until each sector is cleared of any threat. As soon as a hostile threat is seen, immediate, accurate fire can be placed on the threat.

247
Q

Firing techniques

Aim quick fire

A

As the rifle is brought up the firing eye looks through or just over the rear sight aperture and the front sight post is used to aim at the target. The marine fires two quick shots. Focus remains on the front sight post throughout the aiming process

248
Q

Firing techniques

Pointed quick fire

A

When a target appears the marine will keep both eyes open, concentrating intensely on a small specific focal point near the base of the target mass. The rifle is brought simultaneously to the hollow of the shoulder. The head is held high, stock welded to the jaw. The eyes are 2-3 inches over the top of the sights, staring intently at the Target. As soon as the rifle is brought to the shoulder, two quick shots are fired. Focus on the target is not broken during the interval between seeing the target and discharging the rifle.

249
Q

Firing techniques

Instinctive shooting

A

If possible the marine should engage the threat by using the tip of the front sight post. However, speed may be more important. The marines weapon and body are quickly pointed and the target is engaged. It is important that the body be turned with the weapon in order to achieve a natural point of aim.

250
Q

Trajectory

A

Path of a projectile through the air

251
Q

Burst of fire

A

The number of shots in a burst of fire is limited by several factors, including the size and shape of the target, ground formation and ammunition supply.

252
Q

Cone of fire

A

When a burst is fires, the vibrations of the gun and tripod, variations in ammunition and conditions of the atmosphere give each bullet a trajectory differing slightly from that of the others. The resulting group of trajectories is known as the cone of fire.

253
Q

Beaten zone

A

the area on the ground which the cone of fire falls

254
Q

Dead space

A

An area within the maximum range of a weapon which cannot be covered by fire or observation from a particular position because of intervening obstacles, the nature of the ground, the characteristics of the trajectory or the limitations of the pointing capabilities of the weapon

255
Q

Danger spaces

A

The area from the muzzle of the gun, out to and including the beaten zone, where a standing man will be hit, somewhere on his body by some part of the cone of fire.

256
Q

Point targets

A

Targets having a width or depth no greater than the beaten zone for the ground in which they are located are considered as point targets and are engaged by fixed fire

257
Q

Wide targets

A

When a pair of guns engage frontal targets which are 100 miles or less in width for the heavy gun and 50 miles or less in width for the medium gun and are also less than the length of the beaten zone in depth, the normal traversing Method is used

258
Q

Oblique targets

A

Using a squad of guns, oblique targets are engaged with combined traversing and searching fire

259
Q

Area targets

A

Targets which cannot be covered by either traversing fire or searching fire alone or by combined traversing and searching fire are called area targets. The area which can be covered effectively by a squad of guns or by a selection of four guns is small because of time and ammunition required by this type.

260
Q

Moving targets

A

The fundamentals used to hit loving targets are the small as those needed to hit stationary targets. However, the procedures to engage moving targets vary as the angle, speed, and range of the target vary. Targets moving directly at the gunner are engaged the same as the stationary target. There is no change in the application of the fundamentals. Fast moving targets are varying ranges and angles do require changes in the application of steady position and aiming.

261
Q

Sectors of fire and fire discipline

A

Lateral limit- line of sight

Forward limit- firing range

262
Q

Elements of mission planning

A
Mission analysis 
COA development 
COA war game 
COA comparison and development 
Order development
263
Q

Elements of a mission plan

SMEAC

A
S- situation 
M- mission
E- execution 
A- administration and logistics 
C- command and signal
264
Q

METT-TC

A
M- mission analysis 
E- enemy forces 
T-terrain/weather another analysis 
T- troop and support available 
T- time available 
C- civilian consideration
265
Q

KOKOA

A
K- key terrain 
O- observation
C- cover and concealment 
O- obstacles of approach 
A- avenue of approach
266
Q

SAFE

A

S- secure area
A- automatic weapons
F- fields of fire
E- entrenchments

267
Q

DRAW-D

A
D-defend 
R-re-enforce
A-attack
W-withdraw 
D-delay
268
Q

METOC

A

Meteorological and oceanographic

Provides detailed data on topography and environmental parameters

269
Q

FPCON Normal

A

General threat

270
Q

FPCON Alpha

A

Increased threat

271
Q

FPCON Bravo

A

More predictable threat

272
Q

FPCON Charlie

A

Intel indicates or an actual event occurs

273
Q

FPCON Delta

A

Area in which an attack has occurred

274
Q

Antiterrorism and force protection plan

A

Specific measures and procedures to protect critical assets, capabilities, infrastructure and personnel. Based on terrorist threat level, assets critical to the mission, ability to execute mission of attacked, risk of attack and capability to penetrate physical security systems.

275
Q

Assessment zone

A

Assessment zone around the ECP includes the visual range of the base gate guard, pier watch or quarterdeck watch. It is within the assessment zone that active and passive security measures are employed to identify, detect, classify and assess possible threats

276
Q

Warning zone

A

The warning zone at an ECP is a physically separated area closer to the critical asset than the assessment zone where unknown and authorized personnel are inspected and identified. In this zone, IDs and access lists are checked and the purpose of the visits is confirmed.

277
Q

Threat zone

A

The area past the ECP standoff zone to the protected asset or area. No unauthorized personnel should be allowed in this area. All watch standers should clearly understand authorized used of force in the threat zone.

278
Q

Performing a vehicle search

A
Note time of inspection 
Walk completely around vehicle 
Tap drivers side front tire 
Tap passengers side front tire 
Tap passengers side rear tire 
Tap drivers side rear tire 
Check trunk 
Close trunk 
Look in exhaust pipe
279
Q

Deadly force

A

Force that a person uses causing or that a person knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm

280
Q

8 circumstances for deadly force

A
  1. Inherent right of self defense
  2. Defense of others
  3. Assets vital to national security
  4. Inherently dangerous property
  5. National critical infrastructure
  6. Serious offense against persons
  7. Arrest or apprehension
  8. Escape
281
Q

Escalation of force

A
Presence 
Verbal 
Soft control
Hard control
Intermediate weapons 
Deadly force
282
Q

What is the purpose of SROE?

A

To provide implementation guidance on the application of force for mission accomplishment and the exercise of the inherent right of self defense per joint chief of staffs

283
Q

Combatant

A

Armed forces: uniformed/armed; participating directly in armed conflict during hostilities

284
Q

Non-combatants

A
Civilian populace, non-uniformed/unarmed 
Includes:
Medical officers 
Corpsmen
Chaplains 
Technical representative 
Civilian war correspondents
285
Q

Examples of violations of the LOAC

A

Offenses against non-combatants, wounded, sick, POWs, deliberate attacks on medical transports and unlawful destruction and pillaging of public and private property

286
Q

Open fire

A

Gunners are clear to open fire assuming a clear field of fire exists

287
Q

Cease fire

A

Gunners cease fire immediately while keeping positive control of their weapons

288
Q

Check fire

A

Gunners stop firing to check the effect of rounds fired

289
Q

Response to commands

A

Gunners depart all orders given by coxswain

290
Q

MHE

A

Material handling equipment

Forklifts

291
Q

WHE

A

Weight handling equipment

Cranes

292
Q

9-11240/13

A

Operators inspection guide, trouble report

Record of discrepancies

293
Q

DD 1970

A

Motor equipment utilization record or an activity generated trip ticket, shall be employed as the basic document for information concerning the utilization of motor vehicles and shall be prepared in accordance with instructions on the back of the form

294
Q

Organic CESE

A

Basic allowance of equipment approved by CNO and published twice a year as a naval facilities engineering command notice
On our TOA(table of allowance)
Identify with blue triangle and white writing

295
Q

Augment CESE

A

Requested when an assigned project requires more equipment then the organic allowance supplies
Not on out TOA(table of allowance) has to import equipment from another source
Identify with opposite of organic equipment. White triangle with blue writing

296
Q

Standard form 91 mishap report

A

Detailed statement of incident, record damage to government motor vehicles
5Ws

297
Q

P-300

A

Provides administrative and technical instructions to be used by all people concerned with the administration, operation, and maintenance of automotive vehicles, construction and railway equipment referred to as CESE

298
Q

P-307

A

Provides requirements for the maintenance, inspection, test, certification, repair, alteration and/ or use of cranes under the technical cognizance of the naval facilities engineering command

299
Q

OF/346

A

Standard government motor vehicle license. This form is carried when operating a government vehicle on and off base. It lists the types of vehicles the individual is licensed to operate.
Good for 3 years

300
Q

11260/2

A

Construction equipment license. Maintained by the license examiner and kept in the operators record
Good for 2 years

Gives proper authority to operate the equipment

301
Q

Class A assigned CESE

A

Continuing assignments, full-time assignment of a specific nonstandard vehicle to an individual billet

302
Q

Class B assigned CESE

A

Recurring dispatch assignments, automotive vehicle authorized in writing by the local commander to an organizational unit of the command or a tenant activity on a regular or continuous basis for conduct of official business

303
Q

Class C assigned CESE

A

Pool vehicles, all DOD vehicles not designated as class A or class B, pooled for performance of services on an on call basis

304
Q

Security zones

A

Established to provide protection to HVAs and to control civilian/ commercial vessel traffic in a designated area. DOD has authority over security zones outside US government. USCG has authority over security zones within areas of Us government

305
Q

What are the 3 security zones

A

React
Intercept
Assessment

306
Q

React

A

Ideally zone extends 1000yds from HVA, distance for this zone may be based on FPCON in effect for AO

307
Q

Intercept

A

Ideally zone extends 1000yds from the other boundary of react, distance for this zone may be based on the FPCON in effect for that AO, physical characteristic of terrain, activity and corresponding threat analysis

308
Q

Assessment

A

Outermost security zone from HVA, extends to reach of organic and inorganic sensors, establishing authorities will specify procedures and limits of zone in appropriate OPORD or directive for operational area

309
Q

What are the factors that determine navigability of waterways

A
Currents 
Depth of waterways 
Water levels 
Natural obstacles 
Manmade obstacles
310
Q

SITREP

A

Report of a situation, disposition and status of forces including overview, intelligence, operations, logistics, communications, personnel and commanders assessment

311
Q

high seas AT/FP

A

Provides comprehensive approach in addressing terrorist threats
Ships and aircrafts are sovereign diplomatic clearance for entry in foreign areas

312
Q

Waterborne threat

Small craft

A

Personnel armed with small arms could injury personnel and cause equipment casualties, also assualts by explosives or RPGs

313
Q

Waterborne threats

Aircraft

A

Determining hostile intent and engagement can be difficult, warning zones, broadcasts and procedures must be established that are consistent with ROE/RUF

314
Q

Waterborne threats

Deep draft vessels

A

Block major port/waterways, cause closure of key ports, tankers, container ships, merchant ships can be used as a bomb transport vehicles

315
Q

Waterborne threats

Subsurface threats

A

Come in the form of swimmers/divers, submerged delivery vehicles, mines; low cost and simple

316
Q

Waterborne threats

Swimmers/divers

A

Used to insert recon and saboteur teams, mines or torpedos, summers will take advantage of night divers may use breathing apparatus/ bubble free rebreather equipment

317
Q

Waterborne threats

Mines/IED

A

Can cause serious damage to shipping and block ports

318
Q

SCOF Level 1

A
Show presence 
Hail by radio, warn to remain clear
Verbal hail 
Sound siren/5 horn blasts/ flash lights 
Hand movements 
Man weapon stations 
Use ambiguous warning device 
Aggressively maneuver between COI and HVA to encourage COI change of course 
Herd contact to change to desired direction
319
Q

SCOF Level II

A

Use of flares or other authorized visual/audible warning devices
Shines spotlight on COI pilothouse
Blocking the COI by positioning boat to counter the COIs heading
Shouldering/ herding the COU to cause course change in desired location
Train weapons on COI

320
Q

SCOF level III

A
Warning the COI it will be fired upon 
Warning shots (across bow)
321
Q

SCOF Level IV

A

Use disabling fire

Use directed destruction fire

322
Q

Waterborne defense in depth

A

Established by creating assessment, warning and threat zones. Should be created large enough to determine hostile intent and to engage small boat threat as far as possible from HVA

323
Q

SLIST chemical protective ensemble

A

Service lightweight integrated suit technology
Provides protection against liquid, solid and/or vapor CB agents and radioactive alps and beta particles. It is a lightweight garment and it can be laundered up to 6 times for personal hygiene

324
Q

What is the shelf life of the SLIST chemical protective ensemble?

A

5 years

325
Q

How long can the SLIST chemical protective ensemble last when opened?

A

45 days

326
Q

How long can a SLIST chemical protective ensemble last while contaminated?

A

24 hours

327
Q

What do you do after laundering the SLIST chemical protective ensemble?

A

Mark the tag after washing

328
Q

What does NAAK stand for?

A

Nerve agent antidote kit

329
Q

What does NAAK contain?

A

3 atropine injections

3- 2 Pam chloride

330
Q

What are the 3 types of anti-personnel agents?

A

Chemical
Biological
Radiological

331
Q

Chemical agents

A

Chemicals intended for military operation to kill, seriously injure or incapacitate personnel

332
Q

Biological agents

A

Is the use of biological agents (pathogens or toxins) as a weapon

333
Q

Radiological agents

A

Is when radiation (nuclear bomb) is used as a weapon

334
Q

Effects of biological agents

A

Biological operations use living organisms to cause death or disease. They act on living matter only. Most organisms that produce disease enter the body of the victim and grow in the human tissues. Some organisms produce toxins in food and water and the poison causes disease after the victim eats or drinks it

335
Q

Effects of nuclear weapons

A

Nuclear weapons produce explosions of great force and heat and release nuclear radiation. The primary purpose is the mass destruction of property and personnel. Their effects are divided into 3 categories, blast, heat, And nuclear radiation

336
Q

What are he 4 categories of radiological warfare?

A

Blast
Thermal radiation (heat)
Nuclear radiation
Electromagnetic pulse (EMP)

337
Q

Blast

A

Extremely high temperature and pressure generated by a nuclear burst immediately converts all material in the fireball into hot compressed hard. The gases expand rapidly in all directions, creating a shock wave in the surrounding medium. Pressure increases sharply producing overpressure which is a crushing force with accompanying winds

338
Q

Thermal radiation (heat)

A

Thermal energy is actually a form of electromagnetic radiation. As such it travels at the speed of light and it reaches the ship before most other weapon effects. The temperature reaches tens of millions in degrees

339
Q

Nuclear radiation

A

Variable forms of emissions from both the detonation process and residual radioactive debris that result in subatomic rearrangement of matter or the formation of ion particles

340
Q

Electromagnetic pulse (EMP)

A

An intense electromagnetic field that builds up to maximum strength within fractions of a second after a nuclear explosion. It can damage unprotected electrical and electronic equipment by inducing strong electric currents into the circuitry (similar to lightning)

341
Q

What are the 3 types of nuclear explosions

A

Air burst
Surface burst
Sub-surface burst

342
Q

Air burst

A

The shockwave that produces in the air by explosion

343
Q

Surface burst

A

Detonation is above the surface of the earth. Fireball touches the surface of the earth, producing air blast, thermal radiation and electromagnetic pulse

344
Q

Sub-surface burst

A

Detonation is below the surface of water, produces underwater shock

345
Q

What are the four types of nuclear radiation

A

Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Neutrons

346
Q

Alpha particles

A

Only travels a few centimeters, they cannot penetrate even a thin sheet of paper

347
Q

Beta particles

A

Can travel several feet, they cannot penetrate a sheet of aluminum but they can penetrate a uniform

348
Q

Gamma rays

A

A form of EM radiation that can travel great distances in air. Pure energy, not easily stopped; penetrates every region of the body, most damaging from initial blast.

349
Q

Neutrons

A

Greatest penetrating power, most prevalent during initial blast. Does not affect most materials in any visible manner, but radioactive contamination is hazardous to personnel

350
Q

What is MOPP

A

Mission oriented protected posture system
It’s a flexible system for protection against chemical agents
Facilitated mission accomplishment in chemical warfare

351
Q

MOPP 0

A

Mask carry

352
Q

MOPP 1

A

Mask carry

Suit is worn

353
Q

MOPP 2

A

Mask carry
Suit
Boots

354
Q

MOPP 3

A

Mask worn
Suit
Boots
Hood

355
Q

MOPP 4

A
Mask worn 
Suit
Boots 
Hood 
Gloves
356
Q

M8 chemical agent detector paper

A
Detects liquid nerve or blister agents 
Hazard areas determines, through a color change of the paper comparison on the M8 booklet 
Red H and L blister 
Yellow G series nerve 
Green VX nerve
357
Q

M9 chemical agent detector tape

A

A tape that detects liquid chemical agents by color changes. Sense spots can be various shades of red, blue, yellow, green
gray or black spots are not from a liquid chemical agent, these are false positives

358
Q

M256 chemical agent detector kit

A

Used to detect and identify blood, blister and nerve agents present either as liquid or vapor. May be used to determine when it is safe to unmask, to locate and identify chemical hazards also to monitor decontamination effectiveness.

359
Q

What is in an M256 chemical agent detector kit?

A

Booklet of M8 paper
12 disposable sampler detectors individually sealed in a plastic laminated foil envelope and a set of instruction cards attached by a lanyard to the plastic carrying case

360
Q

2 categories of chemical warfare

A

Chemical agents

Chemical compounds

361
Q

2 classifications of biological warfare

A

Pathogens

Toxins

362
Q

Radiological marker sign

A

White with black atom marking

363
Q

Biological marker sign

A

Blue with red bio marking

364
Q

Chemical marker sign

A

Yellow with red gas marking

365
Q

Chemical minefield marker sign

A

Red with yellow gas mines marking with yellow strip under the marking

366
Q

M291 skin decontamination kit

A

Used to decontaminate exposed skin in a chemical environment and prior to entering the contamination control area.

367
Q

M296 individual equipment decontamination kit

A

M295 kit allows personnel to decontaminate their individual equipment through physical removal and sorption of chemical agents

368
Q

What are the three types of chemical warfare agents?

A

Casualty agents
Incapacitating agents
Harassing agents

369
Q

Casualty agents

A

Highly poisonous and are intended to kill someone

370
Q

Incapacitating agents

A

Interferes with mental processes that control bodily functions (shock or fatigue)

371
Q

Harassing agents

A

Tear and vomiting gases that cause temporary disability

372
Q

What are the 4 types of casualty agents?

A

Blister agents
Blood agents
Choking agents
Nerve agents

373
Q

When and where was the first large scale use of chemical weapons in a war?

A

April 22, 1915
Leper, Belgium
Used several types of chemical weapons including mustard gas, resulted in 90k deaths and over 1 million casualties during the war

374
Q

What are the SECNAVS operational energy goals and desired outcomes?

A

By 2020 50% of total energy consumption will come from alternative sources
DON will produce at least 50% off shore based energy requirements from alternative sources. 50% of DON installations will be net zero

375
Q

What are our units operational energy goals

A

Reduce fuel consumption by 15% when compared to FY 2008 baseline by changing how equipment is used.
Increase fuel efficiency of end items by 15% when compared to the baseline

376
Q

What is the first step that has to be established in regards to measuring fuel usage

A

NECC fuel data architecture AS IS and TO BE model will be developed to understand the gaps between current methods to capture fuel use. The two options to capture fuel usage data manually and by the use of sensors

377
Q

What are the top five energy consumers in the table of allowance

A
MTVR 36% 
Construction Equipment, MHE, and motor transport group 31%
Watercraft group 17%
Generator group 10% 
ECU Group 5%
378
Q

What are the five initiatives to increase energy efficiency

A

More efficient environmental control units
Improved energy efficiencies for CESE
insulated shelters
Highly efficient portable water generation capability
LED lighting

379
Q

what is DODs 3 fold approach to meeting operational energy goals

A

More flight, less fuel- reduce the demand for energy in military ops
More options, less risk- expand and secure supplies for military
More capability, less cost- build energy security into the future force

380
Q

What are the most common types of alternative energy sources

A

Renewable energy- wknd and solar
Alternative fuels- biofuels and fu derived from coal
Fuel cells

381
Q

PMS

A

Planned maintenance system

382
Q

MDS

A

Maintenance data system

383
Q

MRC

A

Maintenance requirement card

384
Q

MIP

A

Maintenance index page

385
Q

LOEP

A

Lost of effective pages

386
Q

FR

A

Force revision

387
Q

EGL

A

Equipment guide list

388
Q

TGL

A

Tag guide list

389
Q

CSMP

A

Current ships maintenance project

390
Q

CASREP

A

Casualty report

391
Q

JSN

A

Job sequence number

392
Q

EVS

A

Equipment validation sheet

393
Q

FTSC

A

Fleet technical support center

394
Q

What instructions cover 3M

A

OPNAVINST 4790.4C 3M manual
OPNAVINST 4790.4D 3M navy policy manual
OPNAVINST 5100.23G Navy occupational safety and health program ashore

395
Q

When do you use a danger tag?

A

Prevent death or serious bodily harm and severe damage to equipment

396
Q

When do you use a caution tag

A

It is used for giving temporary special instructions, prevent minor damage or injury

397
Q

What information is on the MRC

A
Hazmat/ MSDS 
Man hours 
Steps for maintenance actions 
Tools required 
Tag out requirements
398
Q

How do you verify an MRC?

A

MRC to MIP
MIP to LOEP
LOEP to change page (FR)

399
Q

What does the W-1 and A-1 indicate of the MRC periodic code?

A

W- weekly

A- annually

400
Q

What maintains the 13 week report?

A

The work center sup

401
Q

Why is the 13 week report maintained?

A

Maintained for a record of personal accountability of PMS accomplishment

402
Q

Who is the 3m manager?

A

The XO

403
Q

What is the function of the 3 M coordinator?

A

The functional manager of the 3m program and is responsible to the XO

404
Q

What is 3m

A

A management tool that provides efficient and uniform methods for conducting and recording preventative, alterative and corrective maintenance. Ensures the extended life and operation of naval equipment and assets

405
Q

What are the 3 types of maintenance

A

Preventive
Alterative
Corrective

406
Q

What is IEM

A

Inactive, Equipment Maintenance

407
Q

What is IEM status I and II

A

Status I- used if Equipment is in a nonuse status for prolonged amount of time
Status II- used when Equipment is down and in need of repair and awaiting parts/ corrective action, or when being removed from station/shipped out

408
Q

When are periodicity checks for 3m

A
Daily
Weekly 
Monthly 
Quarterly 
Semiannual 
Annual
Every 24 months 
Situational/ when required 
Layup 
Start up
409
Q

What are the non calendar checks?

A

R- situational/when required
LU- layup
SU- start up

410
Q

What document provides your work center with a list of active and cleared tag outs?

A

Tag out index and record of audit sheet

411
Q

What situations would require you to tag out the equipment

A

Operating the equipment would place personnel in harms way

Turning on the equipment could damage the equipment

412
Q

What is the first step in tagging out a piece of CESE

A

Obtaining the authorizing officers permission

413
Q

What functions is a tag out index and record of audit sheet is used for?

A

Assist in auditing tagouts
Ensure that tags are issued sequentially by serial #s
Provide a list of archives and cleared tagouts

414
Q

What document lists all MIPS applicable to the workcenter

A

LOEP

415
Q

What is the basic list of all MRCs for a piece of equipment

A

Maintenance index page

416
Q

What block of the MEC would contain caution notes

A

Safety precaution

417
Q

What block on the MRC includes info on where the equipment is stowed

A

Location block

418
Q

Who fills in the serial and date blocks of the category A&B feedback report

A

3M coordinator

419
Q

What feedback report is submitted via naval message

A

Urgent

420
Q

What feedback report do you submit in clarification of 3M instruction and other matters related to PMS administration

A

Category A, non technical

421
Q

What PMS board forms the basis for long term scheduling

A

Cycle board

422
Q

How often is the quarterly schedule updated

A

Once a week

423
Q

What schedule identified actual task when they’re due

A

Weekly

424
Q

What status is assigned to equipment that is inactive for 30days or longer and is directly subject to corrective maintenance, overhaul or removal for safe storage/replacement

A

Status II

425
Q

What type of actions are accomplished on a recurring basis during the inactive period to prevent equipment deterioration

A

Periodic maintenance

426
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to notify the WCS when a maintenance requirement cannot be accomplished

A

Maintenance person

427
Q

Who assists the 3MC in managing multiple work centers

A

3MA

428
Q

What document in the workcenter PMS manual would tell you the proper tools and procedures?

A

MRC

429
Q

What periodicity code is used for every 2nd day

A

2D

430
Q

What periodicity code is used for every 5 months

A

5M

431
Q

How is a fully completed maintenance task annotated on the weekly schedule

A

X

432
Q

What status is assigned to equipment that will remain onboard, will be inactive for 30 days or longer and is not scheduled for corrective maintenance or overhaul?

A

Status I

433
Q

What is used to ensure that the equipment validation is performed correctly

A

equipment validation sheet

434
Q

What is expeditionary forces goal for finishing all equipment validation

A

18 months

435
Q

What are camp fundamentals

A

Sufficient space for command dispersion
Concealment from ground and air observations
Protection from bombing and staffing attacks
Protection from mechanized attack

436
Q

What are the key features to consider in site selections

A
Control of access site 
Access to seaport and airport 
Electric power availability 
Source of quality of portable water 
Adequacy of sewage disposal facilities 
Potential environmental health hazards 
Communication equipment and radio frequency availability and capability
437
Q

What are some considerations to take upon arrival to theater

A

Establish contact with the higher adjacent authority (host nation)
Liaison with the host nation or other adjacent forces
Decide if you want to have tactical convoy or admin
Establish safety/ORM
Plan immediate action drills
Arrange HAS (higher adjacent support)

438
Q

What are the four types of camp?

A

Base
Logistical
Unit
Expeditionary

439
Q

What are the 5 phases of camp setup

A
Planning
Site survey/ security 
Establishment 
Maintenance 
Rear down
440
Q

What are the four ways to dispose of sewage?

A

Burn
Bury
CAT hole
Diesel fuel

441
Q

What is the setup used in an initial camp site

A

Security of the space- setup security before digging in
Automatic crew serve weapons- set up weapons oriented to most likely avenue of approach
Fields of fire- clear field of fire
Entrenchment-emplacement fighting position

442
Q

What are the campsite plans

A
Berthing plan 
Physical security plan 
Heavy weather plan 
Medical/MEDEVAC procedures 
Fire bill
Watch quarter and station bill 
Camp rules and regulations
443
Q

What is the difference between a fire bill and fire plan

A

Fire bill is the emergency fire fighting procedures and fire evacuation plan
Fire plan establishes gun mounts and fighting positions throughout camp

444
Q

What are camp services

A
Berthing
Messing
Sanitary facilities
Power production and lighting distribution 
Medical 
Transportation 
Trash disposal 
Fuel (storage and distribution) 
Hazmat
445
Q

How many feet between the food and the bathroom

A

300ft

446
Q

How many feet from food to billeting

A

200ft

447
Q

How many feet between billeting to bathroom

A

200ft

448
Q

How many feet from gray water to food?

A

200ft

449
Q

How many feet from generator to billeting

A

50ft

450
Q

How many feet from bathroom/ billeting and food to the road?

A

50ft

451
Q

How many feet from bathrooms/ billeting and food to fuel?

A

300ft

452
Q

What are the 3 types of work orders?

A

Emergency/service work
Specific job order work requests
Standing job orders

453
Q

Emergency/ service work order

A

Requires less than 16hrs, less than 100 dollars

454
Q

Specific job order work requests

A

Requires more than 16hrs, more than 100 dollars

455
Q

Standing job orders

A

Requires 40hrs or more (repetitive in nature)

456
Q

What are the priority work classifications

A

Safety
Function
Preventive
Appearance

457
Q

What is a leach field

A

Used to dispose sewage and gray water into the ground
Constructed of 4-6in perforated pipe
Pipes are 5-10 feet apart, laid out in a herringbone pattern

458
Q

Chlorination

A

Drain and filter through the semi-permeable membrane

Application of chlorine (2parts per million) to make water potable

459
Q

Super chlorination

A

Used to disinfect the water containers
Application of chlorine (100 parts per million)
Not safe to drink

460
Q

Base tent

A

12 person max

10 for comfort with full gear

461
Q

ECP setup

A

5 barriers
Always have a 50cal gun mount watch
Have secondary ECP

462
Q

Weapons safety rules

A

Treat every weapon as if it were loaded
Never point a weapon at anything you do not intend to shoot
Keep finger straight and off the trigger until you are ready to fire
Keep weapon on safe until you intend to fire
Know target, backstop and what lies beyond

463
Q

Hero safe ordnance

A

An ordnance item sufficiently shielded or protected to make it immune to adverse effects from radio frequency fields, when used in it’s expected shipboard radio frequency field environment

464
Q

Hero susceptible ordnance

A

Ordnance containing electro explosive devices proven by tests to be adversely affected by radio frequency field energy to the point that safety or reliability may be in jeopardy when the ordnance is used in the radio frequency field environment

465
Q

Hero unreliable ordnance

A

Any electrically initiated ordnance item including those having a HERO SAFE or HERO SUSCEPTIBLE classification whose performance is degraded when exposed to the radio frequency environment

466
Q

Hero unsafe ordinance- any electrically initiates ordnance item that becomes unsafe when:

A

It’s internal wiring physically exposed
Test being conducted on the item require additional electrical connections to be made
EEDs having exposed wire leads are present, handles or loaded
The item is being assembled or disassembled
The item is in a dissembled condition
The item contains one or more EEDs and has not been classified as HERO safe or susceptible by either a test or design analysis

467
Q

How many feet is the safe separation distance for radio and cell phone communications to HERO ordnance

A

Minimum 10 feet from any transmitting antenna

468
Q

International rules of the road

A

Specific rules for all vessels on the high seas and in connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels.

469
Q

Inland rules of the road

A

Applies to all vessels upon the inland waters of the US and to vessels of the US on the Canadian waters of the Great Lakes to the extent that there is no conflict with Canadian law

470
Q

What 3 environmentals effect small boats

A

Seas
Winds
Current

471
Q

How to determine safe speed

A
State of visibility 
Traffic density 
Stopping distance and turning ability 
Night 
Wind, sea and current 
Limitations of the radar equipment 
Effect on radar detection of the sea state, weather 
Ice and other floating objects may not be detected by radar
472
Q

Plan of intended movement

PIM

A

A charred course for boats movement including waypoints, distance, time, true and magnetic north, speed and destination

473
Q

Line of position

LOP

A

If the bearing is taken on a single object, the line drawn is called a bearing LOP. The observed bearing direction must be corrected to magnetic or true direction and plotted. The compass rose can be used to provide the direction. A single observation gives an LOP, not a position

474
Q

Dead Reckoning

A

Determination of estimated position of a craft by adding to the last fix the crafts course and speed for a given time and

475
Q

Compass bearing

A

Compass bearing of an object is its direction from the boats compass north measured in degrees

476
Q

Relative bearing

A

Relative bearing of an object is its direction from the boats bow at 000 degrees, measured clockwise through 360 degrees

477
Q

Fix

A

A fix is the point of intersection of two or more simultaneously obtained LOPS indicating your ships exact position on the chart. The accuracy of a fix obtained from two LOPS is almost always questionable. Since we have already stated that accuracy is of the utmost importance in piloting. You must always strive to obtain theee or more lines of position for an accurate fix

478
Q

IALA-B bouy system

A

North and South America, Japan, South Korea and the Philippines
Green bouys to port
Starboard, red right returning (when entering from seaward)

479
Q

IALA-A bouy system

A

Europe, Africa, Australia, New Zealand, most of Asia
Port-red bouys
Starboard- green bouys

480
Q

What are the elements of a contact report

A
Bearing 
Position angle 
Target angle
Range estimation 
Speed estimation
481
Q

Overtaking a vessel

A

Any vessel overtaking any other shall keep out of the way of the vessel being overtaken. A vessel shall be deemed to be overtaken when coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 22.5 degrees abaft her beam, that is, in such a position with reference to the vessel she is overtaking, that at night she would be able to see only the stern light of that vessel but neither or her sidelights.

482
Q

Head on

A

Unless otherwise agreed, when two power driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses so as to involve risk of collision each shall alter her course to starboard so that each shall pass on the port side of each other

483
Q

Crossing

A

When two power driven vessels are crossing so as to involve risk of collision, the vessel which has the other on her starboard side shall keep out of the way

484
Q

High tide

A

The maximum height of the water resulting from the rising tide

485
Q

Low tide

A

The minimum height of the water resulting from the outgoing tide

486
Q

Mean high water

A

Is a tidal datum that is the average of all the high water heights observed over the national tidal datum epoch (19 year average)

487
Q

Mean low water

A

Is the tidal datum that is average of all the low water heights observed over the national tidal datum epoch (19 year average)

488
Q

Spring tide

A

Tides that occur as a result from both solar and lunar influences. When these two bodies are in line with earth their combined effect causes high tides to be higher than average and low tides to be lower than average

489
Q

Neap tide

A

When the direction of the sun and moon are 90 degrees apart, as when the moon is in the first and last quarter, the gravitational effect of the sun counteracts that of the moon enough that both high and low tides are lower than normal

490
Q

Flood current

A

The horizontal motion of water toward the land caused by a rising tide

491
Q

Ebb current

A

The horizontal motion away from the land caused by a rising tide

492
Q

Slack water

A

The period that occurs while the current is changing direction and has no horizontal motion

493
Q

Set

A

The direction toward which the water is flowing. A ship is set by the current. A southerly current and a north wind are going in the same direction. Measured in degrees (usually true)

494
Q

Drift

A

The rate/speed at which a vessel moves due to the effects of wind, wave, current, or the accumulative effects of each, usually expressed in knots

495
Q

Restricted visibility

A

Any condition in which visibility is restricted by fog, mist, falling snow, heavy rain, sandstorm or any similar causes

496
Q

Vessel constrained by draft

A

A power driven vessel which because of her draft in relation to the available depth and width of navigable water is severely restricted in her ability to deviate from the course she is following

497
Q

Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver

A

A vessel engaged in laying, servicing or picking up a navigation mark, submarine cable or pipeline
Engaged in dredging, surveying or underwater ops
Replenishment, or transferring persons, provisions or cargo while underway
Launching or recovering aircraft
Mine clearance ops
Towing operation such as severely restricts the towing vessel and get tow their ability to deviate from their course

498
Q

Vessel not under command

A

A vessel which through some exceptional circumstance is unable to maneuver as required by these rules and is therefore unable to keep out of the way of another vessel

499
Q

Power driven vessel

A

Any vessel propelled by machinery

500
Q

Sounding

A

The nautical chart water depth is measured downward from sea level at low water. A chart describes the bottom characteristics to a boat operator. This is accomplished through the use of combinations of numbers, color codes, underwater contour lines and a system of symbols and abbreviations