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Bacterial Pathogens > Common Bacterial Pathogens > Flashcards

Common Bacterial Pathogens Flashcards

1
Q

Staphylococcus aureus gram stain appearance

A

Gram-positive cocci in clusters

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2
Q

Staphylococcus aureus carriage location

A

Anterior nares and perineum

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3
Q

Carriage location is anterior nares and perineum

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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4
Q

Staphylococcus aureus cutaneous infection usually presents as

A

localized abscess

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5
Q

Staphylococcus aureus:

The enzyme ______ is an essential virulence factor that is associated with formation of the ______ capsule.

A

Coagulase … fibrin

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6
Q

_________ is the major cytotoxic agent released by S. aureus

A

Alpha-toxin

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7
Q

________ cutaneous infections are often associated with the presence of a foreign body.

A

S. aureus

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8
Q

_________ produced by some _________ are a class of antigen that cause non-specific activation of T-cells.

A

Superantigen toxins ….. S. aureus

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9
Q

SAgs are capable of activating up to 25% of the bodies __________.

A

T-cells

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10
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is caused by _______ producing _______

A

S. aureus …. SAgs

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11
Q

Toxic shock syndrome typically manifests in _______ individuals. Symptoms include:

A

healthy …..

high fever, low blood pressure, malaise and confusion, rash that looks like sun burn

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12
Q

Food poisoning can be caused by consuming ______ of S. aureus

A

preformed toxin

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13
Q

S. aureus causes ______ in immune impaired individuals

A

pneumonia

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14
Q

______ is one of the main contributors to endocarditis

A

S. aureus

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15
Q

S. aureus can be resistant to what antibiotics?

A

Penicillin, methicillin, vancomycin

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16
Q

Coagulase negative Staphylococcus; staph species, not aureus

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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17
Q

______ is normal skin flora and relatively non-pathogenic; however when it is infectious it is associated with ________

A

S. epidermidis …. foreign bodies

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18
Q

Three most common organism for infective bacterial endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus aureus&raquo_space; Streptococci of the viridans group&raquo_space; coagulase negative Staphylococcus

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19
Q

______ produces a slime that allows it to adhere to implanted devices. Hard for drugs to get through the biofilm.

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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20
Q

Steptococcus and relatives are gram ________ and catalase _______

A

Positive cocci in chains or pairs negative

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21
Q

Strep throat is caused by ______________

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, Group A Strep

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22
Q

M-protein found on _________ inhibits ___________

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

(inhibits) phagocytosis and killing by PMNs and enhances adherence to epithelial cells

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23
Q

Transmission of strep throat by ______________ is by ______________

A

Streptococcusd pyogenes….

contact with nasal secretions of an infected individual, or by droplets produced by coughing

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24
Q

Group A Strep (Streptococcus ________) is associated with what kind of skin infections

A

pyogenes … cutaneous and subcutaneous cellulitis

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25
Q

Glomerulonephritis is an _________ which may follow infection by __________

A

Immune complex disease …. Group A Strep

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26
Q

Rheumatic fever may follow _____________

A

Group A Strep throat

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27
Q

Rheumatic fever is a ___________ that attacks the heart, joints and other tissues

A

autoimmune inflammatory disease

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28
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae is gram ______ [shape] that is grouped in _________

A

Positive, cocci, pairs

29
Q

Non-invasive streptococcus pneumoniae can cause _________, ________, _________, _________

A

Pneumonia, sinusitis, otitis media, bronchitis

30
Q

Invasive Streptococcus pneumoniae can casue __________, ___________, ____________

A

meningitis, bacteremia/speticemia, pneumonia with speticemia

31
Q

Pathogenesis is most closely related to ________

A

Ability to grow and evade host defenses

32
Q

Vaccines for Streptococcus pneumoniae are for which type?

A

Invasive

33
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae resistance is towards

A

penicillin

34
Q

What streptococcus is known for infective endocarditis

A

Viridans streptococci

35
Q

Enterococcus faecalis and faecium are gram ______ [shape]

A

positive, cocci

36
Q

Enterococcus faecalis and faecium common sites of infection are _________, ________, __________, _________

A

urinary tract, surgical wounds, biliary tract, endocarditis

37
Q

VRE stands for

A

vancomycin-resistant enterococci

38
Q

Enterococcus faecalis and faecium is most associated with what kind of transfer?

A

Patient to patient in a hospital

39
Q

Clostridia are classified as

gram ________ [shape].

A

positive… rods

40
Q

This bacteria is a strict anaerobe which can made endospores.

A

Clostridium

41
Q

___________ is responsible for hospital epidemics of diarrhea

A

Clostridium difficile

42
Q

Clostridium cause disease because

A

they release toxins that are damaging

43
Q

_____________ is common in the soil and GI tract of animals and causes tetnus

A

Clostridium tetani

spastic paralysis

44
Q

____________ grows in contaminated food under anaerobic conditions. It causes botulism.

A

Clostridium botulinum

flaccid paralysis

45
Q

Clostridium __________ is found in wound infections and food poisoning.

A

perfringens

46
Q

Escherichia coli is a gram ______ [shape]

A

negative rod

47
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram ________ [shape]

A

negative rod

48
Q

Two properties of E. coli in GI disease are:

A

Adherence to the intestinal mucosa, toxins that disrupt the electrolyte balance

49
Q

E. coli is associated with the following disease

A

GI tract, UTI, abdominal infecftions

50
Q

UTI strains of E. coli are usually ____________

A

beta-hemolytic

51
Q

E. coli abdominal infections are usually associated with ______________

A

a mixture of anaerobic bacteria to form anaerobic abscesses

52
Q

Infections with ______ are especially common in burns and people who are immunocompromised.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

53
Q

__________ is associated with chronic lung infection in cystic fibrosis patients.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

54
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is common in ____________ acquired infections.

A

hospital

55
Q

Antibiotic resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is because of….

A

its high intrinsic resistance

56
Q

This is a gram-negative (diplo)cocci

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

57
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae key to infectivity is the ______

A

pilus because it can switch between making different antigenic pili

58
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae growth on mucosal surfaces results in

A

purulent discharge and local tissue invasion

59
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae can cause ___________ in infants born to infected mothers.

A

conjunctivitis leading to blindness

60
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is resistnat to _________, _________, and ___________

A

penicillin, cephalosporins, fluroquinolone

61
Q

More effective antibiotics for anaerobic bacteria are ________, less effective are ____________

A

metronidazole…. aminoglycosides

62
Q

Bacteroides fragilis is best categorized as

A

endogenous anaerobic pathogen that is relatively areotolerant

63
Q

________ and _________ are obligate intracellular bacteria

A

Rickettsia….. Chlamydia

64
Q

Trachoma is ….

A

Chronic infection of conjunctiva by Chlamydia trachomatis which can lead to scarring and blindness

65
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis in neonatal infections can cause

A

neonatal conjunctivitis and neonatal pneumonia

66
Q

The two bacteria lacking cell walls are:

A

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

67
Q

A common cause of pneumoniae especially in ages 5-20 is

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

68
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae shape is_______ and is resistant to __________ and _______

A

highly pleomorphic …… penicillins…. gram staining

Bacterial Pathogens (1 decks)

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