Commercial FAA Questions Flashcards
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, what should one of the primary considerations include what ?
Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area.
If the condition of the nearby terrain is known, turn towards an unlighted portion of the area. Plan an emergency approach to an unlighted portion.
If necessary to take off from a slushy runway, the freezing of landing gear mechanisms can be minimized by what?
Recycling the gear.
After takeoff from a slushy runway, recycle the landing gear several times. This is a preventative measure against mud and slush freezing, causing gear operational problems.
When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for MACHO?
Taking chances is foolish.
Macho (I can do it) pilots who are always trying to prove that they are better than anyone else are thinking ‘I can do it - I’ll show them.’ Pilots with this type of attitude will try to prove themselves by taking risks in order to impress others. While this pattern is thought to be a male characteristic, women are equally susceptible. The antidote for this attitude is: taking chances is foolish.
An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves what?
Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.
Each ADM student should take the Self-Assessment Hazardous Attitude Inventory Test in order to gain a realistic perspective on his/her attitudes toward flying.
Name 3 common symptom of hyperventilation?
Common symptoms of hyperventilation are
dizziness
nausea
hot and cold sensations
tingling of the hands, legs and feet
sleepiness, and finally
unconsciousness.
Who has the final authority to accept or decline any “land and hold short” (LAHSO) clearance?
Pilot-in-Command
When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for what?
Availability and status of en route and destination airport lighting systems.
Prior to a night flight, and particularly a cross-country night flight, pilots should check the availability and status of lighting systems at the destination airport.
Which is equipment is needed regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in Class C airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as?
Altitude increases.
Carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking or from exhaust fumes, lowered hemoglobin (anemia), and certain medications can reduce the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood to the degree that the amount of oxygen provided to body tissues will already be equivalent to the oxygen provided to the tissues when exposed to a cabin pressure altitude of several thousand feet.
When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. What is the antidote for ANTIAUTHORITY/DON’T TELL ME hazardous attitude?
Don’t tell me. Follow the rules. They are usually right.
The antiauthority (don’t tell me!) attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. The antidote for this attitude is: follow the rules, they are usually right.
When are VFR cruising altitudes required to be maintained?
More than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies 6 steps involved in good decision making. Name as many as you can.
Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight
Learning behavior modification techniques
Learning how to recognize and cope with stress
Developing risk assessment skills
Using all resources in a multicrew situation
Evaluating the effectiveness of one’s ADM skills.
While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. He thinks to himself “What is the worst that could happen?” What type of hazardous attitude does this illustrates?
INVULNERABILITY
The invulnerability attitude is found in people who feel accidents happen to others, but never to them. They know accidents can happen, and they know that anyone can be affected, but they never really feel or believe that they will be personally involved. Pilots who think this way are more likely to take chances and increase risk.
What does this symbol NOT indicate
What doesn’t this symbol address in regards to safety?
Runway Incursion
The symbol prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. This sign would typically be located on one-way taxiways or a vehicle roadway. Thus, this sign does not directly address runway incursions with other aircraft.
While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign? (Describe it)
What is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?
Evaluate
The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process, is intended to provide the pilot with a logical way of approaching decision making: Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, and Evaluate.
The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of what?
10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL
The only area requiring 5 statute miles visibility is 10,000 feet MSL and up (when above 1,200 feet AGL).
To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should do what?
Slow the breathing rate
Hyperventilation can be relieved by consciously slowing the breathing rate. Talking loudly or breathing into a bag to restore carbon dioxide will effectively slow the breathing rate.
What does the number 16 mean?
The maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle
The pilot and passengers are anxious to get to their destination for a business presentation. Level IV thunderstorms are reported to be in a line across their intended route of flight. They deside they should hurry and get going before things get worse. What type of hazardous attitude does this best illustrates?
IMPULSIVITY
Impulsivity is the attitude of people who frequently feel the need to do something, anything, immediately. They do not stop to think about what they are about to do, they do not select the best alternative, and they do the first thing that comes to mind.
When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should do what?
Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated
When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in a Class G airspace area each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot must make all turns to the right.
What type of equipment is needed for flight operations in Class B airspace?
The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
A student pilot may only operate an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B airspace if the student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an authorized instructor and has received a logbook endorsement. No person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with the applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment. Requests for ATC authorized deviations for operation of an aircraft that is not equipped with a transponder must be made at least one hour before the proposed operation.
To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, what type operative VHF must you have?
Transmitter and Receiver
VHF/DF is a ground-based radio receiver with an azimuth display. The pilot needs only two-way VHF radio communications capability to make use of the services available.
To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, what rating and equipment is required?
The pilot must hold an instrument rating and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.
To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should do what?
Rely on aircraft instrument indications
What does this sign indicate?
The taxiway does not continue
The black and yellow diagonal striped sign is a taxiway ending marker, which indicates the taxiway does not continue.
When planning for an emergency landing at night, one of the primary considerations should include what?
(Name as many as you can)
Selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible
This may facilitate rescue or help, if needed.
What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation?
Class D, which then becomes Class E.
Class D airspace exists only when the control tower is operating. It reverts to Class E when the tower closes if there is an instrument approach and a weather observer.
The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft is past what type of symbol?
Past the solid-line side
The solid lines always indicate the side on which the aircraft is to hold. (Hold short sign)
What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?
3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontal
When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.
31.00
Special flight restrictions exist when any information indicates that barometric pressure on the route of flight currently exceeds or will exceed 31 inches of mercury, and no person may operate an aircraft or initiate a flight contrary to the requirements established by the Administrator and published in a Notice to Airmen.
Who must a pilot contact for flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.
No person may take off or land an aircraft at a satellite airport within a Class C airspace area except in compliance with FAA arrival and departure traffic patterns. Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.
What does the depicted blue lines mean?
There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.
Alert Areas inform pilots of airspace that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. While pilots should be particularly alert in these areas, there are no restrictions on flying through them.
What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous?
Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote.
What does good cockpit stress management begin with?
Good life stress management
If you hope to succeed at reducing stress associated with crisis management in the air or with your job, it is essential to begin by making a personal assessment of stress in all areas of you life.
When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, at what distance and altitude should a pilot must establish communications?
Prior to 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway, what type of sign would be used to prohibit an aircraft from entering an area? (Describe it)
This sign prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. Typically, this sign would be located on a taxiway intended to be used in only one direction or at the intersection of vehicle roadways with runways, taxiways, or aprons where the roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway or other aircraft movement surface.
What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a “land and hold short” clearance?
3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.
The intent of having ‘basic’ VFR weather conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle operations.
When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, when should the pilot establish communications?
Prior to 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. These dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns must be identified and eliminated. Name as many of these classic behavioral traps into which pilots have been known to fall into.
Peer pressure
Mind set
Get-there-itis
Duck-under syndrome
Scud running
Continuing visual flight rules into instrument conditions, Getting behind the aircraft
Loss of positional or situation awareness
Operating without adequate fuel reserves
Descent below the minimum enroute altitude
Flying outside the envelope
Neglect of flight planning, preflight inspections, checklists, etc.
For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately how many minutes?
30 minutes
When entering a dark room, it is difficult to see anything until the eyes become adjusted to the darkness. After approximately 5 to 10 minutes, the cones become adjusted to the dim light and the eyes become 100 times more sensitive to the light than they were before the dark room was entered. Much more time, about 30 minutes, is needed for the rods to become adjusted to darkness; but when they do adjust, they are about 100,000 times more sensitive to light than they were in the lighted area.
What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?
Recognition of hazardous thoughts.
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process.
Name some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM).
Antiauthority (don’t tell me)
Impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking)
Macho (I can do it)
Invulnerability (It won’t happen to me)
Resignation (What’s the use)
When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for the availability and status of what?
Destination airport lighting systems.
The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. What are they?
DECIDE
Detect
Estimate
Choose
Identify
Do
Evaluate
When are pilotsrequired to have the anti-collision light system operating?
During all types of operations, both day and night.
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace on Sectional Aeronautical Charts are what color?
Blue
The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport indicates what?
An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.
A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. He thinks to himself. “Well, nobody told him about the extra weight”. What type of hazardous attitude does this best illustrates?
RESIGNATION
The resignation attitude is found in pilots who think, ‘what’s the use?’ They do not see themselves as being able to make a great deal of difference in what happens to them. When things go well, the pilot is apt to think that’s good luck. When things go badly, the pilot may feel someone is out to get them, or attribute it to bad luck. The pilot will leave the action to others, for better or worse. Sometimes, such pilots will even go along with unreasonable requests just to be a ‘nice guy.’
When operating an airplane for the purpose of landing or takeoff within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?
Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM
After departing from Byron Airport (C83) with a northeast wind, you discover you are approaching Livermore Class D airspace and flight visibility is approximately 2-1/2 miles. What must you do?
Stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G and land.
The magenta shading indicates Class E airspace begins at 700 feet. The VFR minimum in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet is 3 SM. Therefore, with 2-1/2 miles visibility, you must stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G airspace.
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by doing what?
Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
Pilots should become familiar with a means of counteracting hazardous attitudes with an appropriate antidote thought
Pilots who like to demonstrate that they have the ‘right stuff’ can have an adverse effect on safety in what ways?
Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.
Pilots, particularly those with considerable experience, as a rule always try to complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and generally demonstrate that they have the ‘right stuff.’ These tendencies ultimately may lead to practices that are dangerous and often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.
Risk management, as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
Risk Management is the part of the decision making process which relies on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight
To help manage cockpit stress, what must pilots do?
Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears.
Good cockpit management begins with good life stress management. Many of the stress coping techniques practiced for life stress management are not usually practical in flight. Rather, you must condition yourself to relax and think rationally when stress appears.
Hypoxia is the result of what condition?
Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain
When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it is important to what?
Exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.
An airport on a chart listed as ‘PVT’ indicates what?
A nonpublic use airport
How would you define Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?
Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances.
The ‘taxiway ending’ marker indicates what?
Indicates taxiway does not continue.
What does the thin black shaded line behind ‘1’ indicate?
A military training route.
The thin black shaded line is most likely a military training route (MTR). MTRs are normally labeled on sectional charts with either IR (IFR operations) or VR (VFR operations), followed by either three or four numbers.
What is the first indication of flying into restricted visibility conditions when operating VFR at night?
A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground
At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are what?
Authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace under Special VFR unless they remain clear of clouds and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM. If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, flight visibility during landing or takeoff must be at least 1 SM.
What equipment is needed for flight operations in Class A airspace?
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Light beacons producing red flashes indicates what?
Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation
The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. They figure, “what the heck,**Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight”. **This best illustrates what type of hazadous attitude?
ANTIAUTHORITY
The antiauthority attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. In a sense, they are saying no one can tell me what to do. They may be resentful of having someone tell them what to do or may regard rules, regulations, and procedures as silly or unnecessary.
What is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?
Detect
The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process, is intended to provide the pilot with a logical way of approaching decision making: Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, and Evaluate.
Notification to the NTSB is required to what type of aircraft damage?
Substantial damage which adversely affects the structural strength of flight characteristics.
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs. An aircraft accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft.
To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required to do what? What is needed?
Receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.
No person may act as PIC of a complex airplane (an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller), unless the person has received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and received a one-time endorsement in the pilot’s logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a complex airplane.
To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must have completed what? (hint: a type of test)
Complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the proceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certified for more than one pilot.
To serve as PIC of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember, a person must complete a PIC proficiency check in the aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember within the preceding 12 calendar months. Additionally, the pilot must complete a PIC proficiency check in the particular type of aircraft in which that person will serve as PIC within the preceding 24 calendar months.
If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried would be what time?
1959 CST
No person may act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.
Regulations which refer to operate means what?
A person who causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.
‘Operate,’ with respect to aircraft, means use, cause to use, or authorize to use aircraft.
What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight?
1.500 Ft AGL and 3 miles.
An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under instrument flight rules or visual flight rules, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear.
In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command and receive compensation for services?
Crop dusting, spraying, and bird chasing.
Part 119 does not apply to crop dusting, seeding, spraying, and bird chasing.
What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL?
The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.
No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry:
1. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration;
2. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and
3. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft under 14 CFR Part 91, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the preceding what?
24 calendar months.
No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, he/she has accomplished a flight review, completed a pilot proficiency check, or has completed one or more phases of an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency award program.
Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight?
They are not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.
When is the operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?
Only if requested to do so.
A written report of an incident need be filed only if requested by the NTSB.
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
P.I.C
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, what else must the pilot know? (Name 4 things)
Must be familiar with…
The runway lengths at airports of intended use
Weather reports
Fuel requirements
The alternative available, if the flight cannot be completed
For a flight under IFR or flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the pilot must be familiar with weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which he/she has been advised by ATC. For any flight, the pilot must be familiar with runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information: For civil aircraft for which an approved airplane or rotorcraft flight manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is required, the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein.
At what times is each flight crewmember required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened?
During takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform their required duties.
Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station. This rule does not apply if the seat at the crewmember’s station is not equipped with a shoulder harness, or the crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.
The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is what?
60 minutes.
When is a pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft not permitted to allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight?
If it creates a hazard to persons and property.
To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must have what?
Must have received and log flight training from an authorized instructor as well as receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who finds the person proficient in a tailwheel airplane.
When are commercial pilots required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
When acting as pilot in command
No person may act as pilot-in-command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member of a civil aircraft unless a current pilot certificate and, except for glider and balloon pilots, an appropriate current medical certificate is in his/her possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.
A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for what type of punishment?
Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for:
(1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or
(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.
To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to have what?
A logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques and procedures for safe
To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider, a person must have a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the person has received ground and flight training in gliders and is proficient in the techniques and procedures essential to the safe towing of gliders, including airspeed limitations.
While taxiing on the parking ramp, the landing gear, wheel, and tire are damaged by striking ground equipment. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
No notification or report is required.
An accident is defined as the occurrence of a fatality or serious injury or substantial damage to the aircraft. Substantial damage specifically excludes damage to the landing gear, wheels and tires.
To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must have what?
The person must have within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are required.
Under Part 91 no person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember unless that person has within the previous 12 calendar months become familiar with information for the specific type aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested and performed and logged pilot time in the type of aircraft or in a flight simulator that represents the type of aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested. Also, no person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember unless that person holds at least a current private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class rating.
While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why?
The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane
When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so) the aircraft to the other’s right has the right-of-way. Aircraft and rotorcraft are treated as equally maneuverable, so neither aircraft has right-of-way over the other.
If an airplane glides at an angle of attack of 10°, how much altitude will it lose in 1 mile?
480 feet
To find the glide ratio (L/D) at an angle of attack of 10°, move upward from the angle of attack scale to the L/D curve.
Then move horizontally to the right to find the value located on the L/D scale. This gives an 11:1 glide ratio.
The question only deals with glide ratio, so that is the only scale needed. With this glide ratio, the airplane will descend 1 foot of altitude for every 11 feet covered horizontally.
Lift ÷ Drag = 11 ÷ 1 = horizontal distance ÷ vertical distance
11 ÷ 1 = 5,280 feet (1 SM) ÷ X
X = 480 feet
At the airspeed represented by point A, in steady flight, the airplane will?
have its maximum L/D ratio.
At point A, the total drag curve is at its lowest point. When an aircraft is flown at the airspeed and angle of attack that results in the lowest total drag possible, then the resulting L/D ratio is at its maximum.
What increase in load factor would take place if the angle of bank were increased from 60° to 80°?
4 Gs
Proceed vertically along the line above 60° angle of bank to where it intersects the curve labeled ‘Load Factor.’ Next, proceed along this line to the left to the corresponding load factor or ‘G’ unit, which is 2 Gs in this case. Now, repeat the procedure using 80° of bank, which should yield a load factor of 6, which is a difference of 4 Gs.
What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2 Gs if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots?
84 knots.
From a load factor of 2, go horizontally to the curved line labeled ‘Load Factor.’ From that point of intersection, go up to the curve labeled ‘Stall Speed Increase.’ From there, go to the left and read the increase: 40%.
The new accelerated stall speed will be 140%, or 1.4 times, the original value.
60 x 1.4 = 84 knots.
If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total load would be?
4,000 pounds.
The load factor in a 60° bank is 2 Gs. Load Factor = G Load x Aircraft Weight. Therefore, 2,000 x 2 = 4,000 pounds.
The L/D ratio at a 2° angle of attack is approximately the same as the L/D ratio for a?
16.5° angle of attack.
The glide ratio (L/D) at a 2° angle of attack is about 7.6:1, which is the same glide ratio (L/D) as at a 16.5° angle of attack.
The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the?
positive limit load factor.
C to E is the maximum positive load limit. In this case it is 3.8 Gs, which is appropriate for normal category airplanes.
The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the?
upper limit of the yellow arc.
At an airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the pilot can expect to obtain the airplane’s maximum?
glide range.
Point B represents the airspeed that results in the greatest L/D ratio. At this point the aircraft will have its maximum glide range.
How much altitude will this airplane lose in 3 statute miles of gliding at an angle of attack of 8°?
1,320 feet.
To find the glide ratio (L/D) at an angle of attack of 8°, move upward from the angle of attack scale to the L/D curve. Then move horizontally to the right to find the value located on the L/D scale. This gives a 12:1 glide ratio. The question only deals with glide ratio, so that is the only scale needed. With this glide ratio, the airplane will descend 1 foot of altitude for every 12 feet covered horizontally.
L ÷ D = 12 ÷ 1 = horizontal distance ÷ vertical distance
12 ÷ 1 = 5,280 feet (3 SM) ÷ X
X = 1,320 feet.
