Commercial FAA Questions Flashcards

Question

To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, what type operative VHF must you have?

Answer 1

**Transmitter and Receiver** VHF/DF is a ground-based radio receiver with an azimuth display. The pilot needs only two-way VHF radio communications capability to make use of the services available.

Answer 2

**The pilot must hold an instrument rating and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.**

Answer 3

Rely on aircraft instrument indications

Answer 4

**The taxiway does not continue** The black and yellow diagonal striped sign is a taxiway ending marker, which indicates the taxiway does not continue.

Answer 5

**Selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible** This may facilitate rescue or help, if needed.

Answer 6

**Class D, which then becomes Class E**. Class D airspace exists only when the control tower is operating. It reverts to Class E when the tower closes if there is an instrument approach and a weather observer.

Answer 7

**Past the solid-line side** The solid lines always indicate the side on which the aircraft is to hold. (Hold short sign)

Answer 8

3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontal

Answer 9

**31.00** Special flight restrictions exist when any information indicates that barometric pressure on the route of flight currently exceeds or will exceed 31 inches of mercury, and no person may operate an aircraft or initiate a flight contrary to the requirements established by the Administrator and published in a Notice to Airmen.

Answer 10

**Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility**. No person may take off or land an aircraft at a satellite airport within a Class C airspace area except in compliance with FAA arrival and departure traffic patterns. Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

Answer 11

**There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.** Alert Areas inform pilots of airspace that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. While pilots should be particularly alert in these areas, there are no restrictions on flying through them.

Answer 12

Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote.

Answer 13

**Good life stress management** If you hope to succeed at reducing stress associated with crisis management in the air or with your job, it is essential to begin by making a personal assessment of stress in all areas of you life.

Answer 14

**Prior to 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.** Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Answer 15

This sign prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. Typically, this sign would be located on a taxiway intended to be used in only one direction or at the intersection of vehicle roadways with runways, taxiways, or aprons where the roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway or other aircraft movement surface.

Answer 16

**3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.** The intent of having 'basic' VFR weather conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle operations.

Answer 17

**Prior to 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.** Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Answer 18

Peer pressure Mind set Get-there-itis Duck-under syndrome Scud running Continuing visual flight rules into instrument conditions, Getting behind the aircraft Loss of positional or situation awareness Operating without adequate fuel reserves Descent below the minimum enroute altitude Flying outside the envelope Neglect of flight planning, preflight inspections, checklists, etc.

Answer 19

**30 minutes** When entering a dark room, it is difficult to see anything until the eyes become adjusted to the darkness. After approximately 5 to 10 minutes, the cones become adjusted to the dim light and the eyes become 100 times more sensitive to the light than they were before the dark room was entered. Much more time, about 30 minutes, is needed for the rods to become adjusted to darkness; but when they do adjust, they are about 100,000 times more sensitive to light than they were in the lighted area.

Answer 20

**Recognition of hazardous thoughts**. Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process.

Answer 21

Antiauthority (don't tell me) Impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking) Macho (I can do it) Invulnerability (It won’t happen to me) Resignation (What’s the use)

Answer 22

Destination airport lighting systems.

Answer 23

DECIDE ## Footnote **D**etect **E**stimate **C**hoose **I**dentify **D**o **E**valuate

Answer 24

During all types of operations, both day and night.

Answer 25

An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.

Answer 26

**RESIGNATION** The resignation attitude is found in pilots who think, 'what's the use?' They do not see themselves as being able to make a great deal of difference in what happens to them. When things go well, the pilot is apt to think that's good luck. When things go badly, the pilot may feel someone is out to get them, or attribute it to bad luck. The pilot will leave the action to others, for better or worse. Sometimes, such pilots will even go along with unreasonable requests just to be a 'nice guy.'

Answer 27

Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM

Answer 28

**Stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G and land**. The magenta shading indicates Class E airspace begins at 700 feet. The VFR minimum in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet is 3 SM. Therefore, with 2-1/2 miles visibility, you must stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G airspace.

Answer 29

**Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.** Pilots should become familiar with a means of counteracting hazardous attitudes with an appropriate antidote thought

Answer 30

**Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.** Pilots, particularly those with considerable experience, as a rule always try to complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and generally demonstrate that they have the 'right stuff.' These tendencies ultimately may lead to practices that are dangerous and often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.

Answer 31

**Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.** Risk Management is the part of the decision making process which relies on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight

Answer 32

**Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears.** Good cockpit management begins with good life stress management. Many of the stress coping techniques practiced for life stress management are not usually practical in flight. Rather, you must condition yourself to relax and think rationally when stress appears.

Answer 33

Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain

Answer 34

Exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.

Answer 35

A nonpublic use airport

Answer 36

Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances.

Answer 37

Indicates taxiway does not continue.

Answer 38

**A military training route.** The thin black shaded line is most likely a military training route (MTR). MTRs are normally labeled on sectional charts with either IR (IFR operations) or VR (VFR operations), followed by either three or four numbers.

Answer 39

A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground

Answer 40

**Authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.** No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace under Special VFR unless they remain clear of clouds and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM. If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, flight visibility during landing or takeoff must be at least 1 SM.

Answer 41

Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

Answer 42

Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation

Answer 43

**ANTIAUTHORITY** The antiauthority attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. In a sense, they are saying no one can tell me what to do. They may be resentful of having someone tell them what to do or may regard rules, regulations, and procedures as silly or unnecessary.

Answer 44

**Detect** The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process, is intended to provide the pilot with a logical way of approaching decision making: Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, and Evaluate.

Answer 45

**Substantial damage which adversely affects the structural strength of flight characteristics**. The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs. An aircraft accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft.

Answer 46

**Receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.** No person may act as PIC of a complex airplane (an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller), unless the person has received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a complex airplane.

Answer 47

**Complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the proceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certified for more than one pilot.** To serve as PIC of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember, a person must complete a PIC proficiency check in the aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember within the preceding 12 calendar months. Additionally, the pilot must complete a PIC proficiency check in the particular type of aircraft in which that person will serve as PIC within the preceding 24 calendar months.

Answer 48

**1959 CST** No person may act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.

Answer 49

**A person who causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.** 'Operate,' with respect to aircraft, means use, cause to use, or authorize to use aircraft.

Answer 50

1.500 Ft AGL and 3 miles.

Answer 51

**Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.** When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under instrument flight rules or visual flight rules, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear.

Answer 52

**Crop dusting, spraying, and bird chasing.** Part 119 does not apply to crop dusting, seeding, spraying, and bird chasing.

Answer 53

**The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.** No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry: **1**. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration; **2**. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and **3**. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.

Answer 54

**24 calendar months.** No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, he/she has accomplished a flight review, completed a pilot proficiency check, or has completed one or more phases of an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency award program.

Answer 55

**They are not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.** No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Answer 56

**Only if requested to do so.** A written report of an incident need be filed only if requested by the NTSB.

Answer 57

Must be familiar with... **The runway lengths at airports of intended use** **Weather reports** **Fuel requirements** **The alternative available, if the flight cannot be completed** For a flight under IFR or flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the pilot must be familiar with weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which he/she has been advised by ATC. For any flight, the pilot must be familiar with runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information: For civil aircraft for which an approved airplane or rotorcraft flight manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is required, the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein.

Answer 58

**During takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform their required duties.** Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station. This rule does not apply if the seat at the crewmember's station is not equipped with a shoulder harness, or the crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.

Answer 59

60 minutes.

Answer 60

If it creates a hazard to persons and property.

Answer 61

**Must have received and log flight training from an authorized instructor as well as receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who finds the person proficient in a tailwheel airplane.**

Answer 62

**When acting as pilot in command** No person may act as pilot-in-command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member of a civil aircraft unless a current pilot certificate and, except for glider and balloon pilots, an appropriate current medical certificate is in his/her possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.

Answer 63

**Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.** A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.

Answer 64

**A logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques and procedures for safe** To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider, a person must have a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the person has received ground and flight training in gliders and is proficient in the techniques and procedures essential to the safe towing of gliders, including airspeed limitations.

Answer 65

**No notification or report is required.** An accident is defined as the occurrence of a fatality or serious injury or substantial damage to the aircraft. Substantial damage specifically excludes damage to the landing gear, wheels and tires.

Answer 66

**The person must have within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are required.** Under Part 91 no person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember unless that person has within the previous 12 calendar months become familiar with information for the specific type aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested and performed and logged pilot time in the type of aircraft or in a flight simulator that represents the type of aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested. Also, no person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember unless that person holds at least a current private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class rating.

Answer 67

**Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an airplane.** To act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower), the person must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane. In addition, the pilot must receive a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies that the person is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane. The training and endorsement is not required if the person has logged flight time as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane prior to August 4, 1997.

Answer 68

**Flight control system malfunction or failure.** The other two would not require immediate notification to the NTSB, unless it was substantially damaged that would affecting the structural integrity of the aircraft.

Answer 69

No person may operate a 'restricted' category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.

Answer 70

**A transponder with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.** Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with an operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment that has an operable coded radar beacon transponder having either Mode 3/A 4096 code capability, or a Mode S capability, and that aircraft is equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having a Mode C capability.

Answer 71

**66HIT** within the preceding 6 months 6 Holding procedures Instrument approaches and Tracking of courses through the use of navigation systems must have been performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions.

Answer 72

**Under IFR conditions** Any portable electronic device that the operator of the aircraft has determined could cause interference with the navigation or communication systems may not be used on any aircraft operated under IFR.

Answer 73

**Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because of illness would require immediate notification.** The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office of the inability of any required flight crew member to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness.

Answer 74

**Exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.** 'Operational control,' with respect to a flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

Answer 75

**The same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).** No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise unless within the preceding 90 days, he/she has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during that period in the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required) of aircraft to be used.

Answer 76

**A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.** A certificate of waiver is required for towing objects other than gliders.

Answer 77

**Submit a written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.**

Answer 78

**Each person over 2 years of age on board.** No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, takeoff, or land a U.S.- registered civil aircraft unless the PIC of that aircraft ensures that each person on board has been notified to fasten his or her safety belt and, if installed, his or her shoulder harness. A person who has not reached his/her second birthday may be held by an adult.

Answer 79

**Its use is not permitted** No person may use an ATC transponder unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, that ATC transponder has been tested, inspected and found to comply with regulations.

Answer 80

**It is headed away from you.** The pilot is seeing the rotating beacon and the white light on the tail. The other aircraft is headed away.

Answer 81

**On flights when carrying another person.** Unless a person holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type rating is required) that applies to the aircraft, that person may not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for compensation or hire.

Answer 82

Not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.

Answer 83

**Three actual or simulated glider tows while accomanied by a qualified tow pilot.** To act as PIC, the pilot must make at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot or make at least three flights as pilot-in-command of a glider towed by an aircraft.

Answer 84

**An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection.** The annual is considered the more rigorous inspection and can be substituted for the 100-hour, not vice versa.

Answer 85

**While the crewmembers are at their stations.**

Answer 86

**In-flight fire.** The operator of an aircraft shall immediately and by the most expeditious means available notify the nearest NTSB field office of any in-flight fire. The other two is incorrect because the regulation specifies 'in-flight' fires only.

Answer 87

**It is not authorized in a 'limited' category aircraft.** Operations for compensation or hire are not authorized in limited category aircraft, experimental aircraft, and restricted category aircraft. Operations using utility category aircraft (such as Cessna 152) are authorized.

Answer 88

No person may operate a 'primary' category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.

Answer 89

**Immediately** The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs. An aircraft accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place *between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft.*

Answer 90

**10,000 feet MSL** With some balloon, glider, and no-electrical-system exceptions, Mode C (encoding) transponders are required in all airspace above 10,000 feet MSL excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL.

Answer 91

**A current, approved Airplane (or Rotorcraft) Flight Manual.** ## Footnote No person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it: 1. An appropriate and current Airworthiness Certificate, displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew. 2. A Registration Certificate issued to its owner. 3. An approved flight manual, manual material, markings and placards or any combination of these, showing the operating limitations of the aircraft.

Answer 92

**Nonstop flights within a 25 SM radius of an airport to carry persons for intentional parachute jumps.** Part 119 does not apply to nonstop flights conducted within a 25 SM radius of the airport of takeoff carrying persons or objects for the purpose of conducting intentional parachute operations.

Answer 93

Anticollision light system

Answer 94

**When carrying persons or property for hire.**

Answer 95

**Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review.** The aeronautical training and experience needed to meet the requirements for a certificate or rating, and/or the recent flight experience requirements, must be documented and recorded. The logging of other flight time is not required.

Answer 96

**In the aircraft maintenance records.** Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall have that aircraft inspected as prescribed by regulations and shall, between required inspections, have discrepancies repaired as prescribed in 14 CFR Part 43. In addition, each owner or operator shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating that the aircraft has been approved for return to service.

Answer 97

Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.

Answer 98

**Owner or operator of that aircraft.** The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with Part 39 (Airworthiness Directives).

Answer 99

**At sunset.** No person may, during the period from sunset to sunrise (or, in Alaska, during the period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen from a distance of 3 statute miles or the sun is more than 6° below the horizon) operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights.

Answer 100

**12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL**. No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry: 1. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration; 2. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and 3. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.

Answer 101

**Owner or operator of the aircraft** The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with Airworthiness Directives.

Answer 102

**The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at leat a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.** No person may operate a civil aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless the other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who possesses at least a private pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown.

Answer 103

**No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.** Any pilot certificate, other than a Student Pilot Certificate, is issued without a specific expiration date.

Answer 104

**The aircraft at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut infront of or to overtake the other aircraft.** When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the lower aircraft has the right-of-way. However, a pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to overtake or cut in front of another aircraft that is on final approach to land.

Answer 105

**Formation flights are not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.** No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Answer 106

**Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.** A Second-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of the last day of: 1. The 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate, for operations requiring a Commercial Pilot Certificate or an air traffic control tower operator certificate, and 2. The 24th or 60th (depending on the applicant's age) month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate, for operations requiring a Private, Recreational, or Student Pilot Certificate.

Answer 107

**The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane** When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so) the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. Aircraft and rotorcraft are treated as equally maneuverable, so neither aircraft has right-of-way over the other.

Answer 108

**An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office.** The operator of an aircraft shall immediately and by the most expeditious means available notify the nearest NTSB field office of any in-flight fire.

Answer 109

**Helicopter flights with two passengers or less, within 25 SM radius of the departure heliport.** Part 119 does not apply to helicopter flights with two passengers or less, within 25 SM radius of the departure heliport.

Answer 110

**No notification or report is required.** The operator of an aircraft shall immediately and by the most expeditious means available notify the nearest NTSB field office of any in-flight fire. This rule specifies *'in-flight' fires _only_*_._

Answer 111

**After sunset to sunrise** No person may during the period from sunset to sunrise operate an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights. However, the anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot in command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

Answer 112

**48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. ** "Serious injury" means any injury requiring hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received.

Answer 113

**2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.**

Answer 114

**Noncompliance with ADs renders an aircraft unairworthy.** No person may operate a product to which an Airworthiness Directive applies except in accordance with the requirements of that Airworthiness Directive.

Answer 115

**30 days.** The holder of a pilot or flight instructor certificate who has made a change in his/her permanent mailing address may not after 30 days from the date he/she moved, exercise the privileges of his/her certificate unless he/she has notified the FAA in writing.

Answer 116

**All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot.** A person may log second-in-command time only for that flight time during which that person is qualified in accordance with the second-in-command requirements of this part, and occupies a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft's type certificate.

Answer 117

**Pilot in command** The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

Answer 118

In air carrier operations.

Answer 119

**24 hours** The lessee must mail a copy of the lease to the Aircraft Registry Technical Section, Box 25724, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73125, within 24 hours of its execution.

Answer 120

The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane it to its right.

Answer 121

**Required maintenance and inspections** No person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had an annual inspection and has been approved for return to service by an authorized person or an inspection for the issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate. No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers for hire or give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection. An aircraft inspected in accordance with an approved aircraft progressive inspection program may be authorized as compliant.

Answer 122

An electric landing light if the flight is for hire.

Answer 123

**200 knots** Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within 4 NM of the primary airport of Class C or D airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 MPH).

Answer 124

**Is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operations.** Not only must the pilot be qualified in accordance with Part 61, the pilot must also comply with Part 91, the regulations which govern the operation of the flight.

Answer 125

**Any aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certficated takeoff weight.** A person may not act as pilot-in-command of any of the following aircraft unless he/she holds a type rating for that aircraft: 1. A large aircraft (except lighter-than-air), more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight. 2. A helicopter, for operations requiring an airline transport pilot certificate. 3. A turbojet-powered airplane. 4. Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures.

Answer 126

**Any flight not in the vacinity of an airport.** For a flight under IFR or flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the pilot must be familiar with weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which he/she has been advised by ATC.

Answer 127

**With passengers aboard.** No person may carry any person (meaning passengers) other than crewmembers in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight, until an appropriately-rated pilot with at least a Private Pilot Certificate flies the aircraft, makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records.

Answer 128

**The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.** The excess time, however, is included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

Answer 129

**The carriage of passengers for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM or for hire at night is prohibited**. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and does not hold an instrument rating in the same category and class will be issued a commercial pilot certificate that contains the limitation, 'The carriage of passengers for hire in (airplanes) on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM or at night is prohibited.'

Answer 130

**Previous changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.** Each manufacturer or agency that grants zero time to an engine rebuilt by it shall enter, in the new record, each change made as required by Airworthiness Directives.

Answer 131

**Life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.** Each registered owner or operator shall keep records containing the following information: the current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

Answer 132

**Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.**

Answer 133

The aircraft may be operated at that speed.

Answer 134

**A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records.** A person holding at least a Private Pilot Certificate may approve an aircraft for return to service after performing preventative maintenance under the provisions of Part 43.3(g) and shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that maintenance.

Answer 135

**Beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.** Approved flotation gear readily available to each occupant is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water beyond power-off gliding distance from shore. 'Shore' is defined as the area of the land adjacent to the water that is above the high water mark, excluding land areas which are intermittently under water.

Answer 136

**Single-engine land, multienging land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.** Aircraft class ratings, with respect to airmen, include single-engine land, multi-engine land, single-engine sea, and multi-engine sea, helicopter, gyroplane, airship, and free balloon.

Answer 137

**Any flight not in the vacinity of an airport** Before beginning a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, each PIC shall become familiar with all available information concerning that flight, including weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot in command has been advised by ATC.

Answer 138

**Relate to that person who for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.** 'Commercial operator' means a person who, for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.

Answer 139

**Yes. It is grounds for denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.** No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, while under the influence of alcohol, while using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety; or while having 0.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. Committing any of these acts is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for a certificate, rating, or authorization for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.

Answer 140

**45 minutes at normal cruising speed.**

Answer 141

**The flightpath** Lift acts upward and perpendicular to the relative wind. Drag acts parallel to, and in the same direction as the relative wind, which is parallel to the flightpath.

Answer 142

**variations in airplane loading** The indicated stalling speed is most affected by load factor. The airplane's stalling speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor, whereas a change in altitude (air density) has no effect on the indicated stalling speed.

Answer 143

**vertical component of lift** Lift during a bank is divided into two components, one vertical and the other horizontal. The vertical component of lift must be equal to the weight to maintain altitude. Since the vertical component of lift decreases as the bank angle increases, the angle of attack must be progressively increased to produce sufficient vertical lift to support the airplane's weight. The increased back elevator pressure provides the increased angle of attack.

Answer 144

four times greater Parasite drag has more influence at high speed, and induced drag has more influence at low speed. For example, if an airplane in a steady flight condition at 100 knots is then accelerated to 200 knots, the parasite drag becomes four times as great

Answer 145

**The raising of flaps increases the stall speed** If flaps are raised, the stall speed increases.

Answer 146

**Lift will increase, and induced drag will decrease.** If the airplane is brought into ground effect with a constant angle of attack, it will experience an increase in lift coefficient and a reduction in the thrust required. The reduction of the wing-tip vortices due to ground effect alters the spanwise lift distribution and reduces the induced flow. The reduction in induced flow causes a significant reduction in induced drag, but has no direct effect on parasite drag.

Answer 147

**480 feet** To find the glide ratio (L/D) at an angle of attack of 10°, move upward from the angle of attack scale to the L/D curve. Then move horizontally to the right to find the value located on the L/D scale. This gives an 11:1 glide ratio. The question only deals with glide ratio, so that is the only scale needed. With this glide ratio, the airplane will descend 1 foot of altitude for every 11 feet covered horizontally. Lift ÷ Drag = 11 ÷ 1 = horizontal distance ÷ vertical distance 11 ÷ 1 = 5,280 feet (1 SM) ÷ X X = 480 feet

Answer 148

**angle of bank.** For any given angle of bank, the rate of turn varies with the airspeed. If the angle of bank is held constant and the airspeed is increased, the rate of turn will decrease. Because of this, there is no change in centrifugal force for any given bank angle. Therefore, the load factor remains the same. Load factor varies with changing bank angle and increases at a rapid rate after the angle of bank reaches 50°.

Answer 149

**is momentarily increased.** When transitioning from level flight to a climb, the forces acting on the airplane go through certain changes. The first change, an increase in lift, occurs when back pressure is applied to the elevator control. This initial change is a result of the increase in the angle of attack which occurs when the airplane's pitch attitude is raised. This results in a climbing attitude. When the inclined flight path and the climb speed are established, the angle of attack and the corresponding lift stabilize at approximately the original value.

Answer 150

**pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.** Longitudinal stability, or pitching about the lateral axis, is considered to be the most affected by certain variables in various flight conditions. A longitudinally unstable airplane has a tendency to dive or climb progressively into a steep dive or climb which may result in a stall. A longitudinally unstable airplane is difficult and sometimes dangerous to fly.

Answer 151

**lateral axis.** An airplane becomes less longitudinally stable as the CG is moved rearward. Longitudinal stability (pitching) is stability about the lateral axis.

Answer 152

**The angle of attack must be decreased or angle of bank increased.** To compensate for added lift which would result if the airspeed were increased during a turn, the angle of attack must be decreased, or the angle of bank increased, if a constant altitude is to be maintained.

Answer 153

have its maximum L/D ratio. At point A, the total drag curve is at its lowest point. When an aircraft is flown at the airspeed and angle of attack that results in the lowest total drag possible, then the resulting L/D ratio is at its maximum.

Answer 154

elevator. Longitudinal stability or pitching is the motion around the lateral axis. Pitch is controlled by the elevator.

Answer 155

4 Gs Proceed vertically along the line above 60° angle of bank to where it intersects the curve labeled 'Load Factor.' Next, proceed along this line to the left to the corresponding load factor or 'G' unit, which is 2 Gs in this case. Now, repeat the procedure using 80° of bank, which should yield a load factor of 6, which is a difference of 4 Gs.

Answer 156

is constant and the stall speed increases. In an airplane at any airspeed, if a constant altitude is maintained during the turn, the load factor for a given degree of bank is the same, which is the resultant of gravity and centrifugal force. Load supported by the wings increases as the angle of bank increases. Stall speeds increase in proportion to the square root of the load factor.

Answer 157

84 knots. From a load factor of 2, go horizontally to the curved line labeled 'Load Factor.' From that point of intersection, go up to the curve labeled 'Stall Speed Increase.' From there, go to the left and read the increase: 40%. The new accelerated stall speed will be **140%, or 1.4** times, the original value. **60 x 1.4 = 84 knots**.

Answer 158

decreases and the horizontal component of lift increases. Lift during a bank is divided into two components, one vertical and the other horizontal. The vertical component of lift must be equal to the weight to maintain altitude. Since the vertical component of lift decreases as the bank angle increases, the angle of attack must be progressively increased to produce sufficient vertical lift to support the airplane's weight. The increased back elevator pressure provides the increased angle of attack.

Answer 159

distribution of pressures acting on the wing. The angle of attack of an airfoil directly controls the distribution of pressure below and above it. By changing the angle of attack, the pilot can control lift, airspeed, and drag.

Answer 160

4,000 pounds. The load factor in a 60° bank is 2 Gs. Load Factor = G Load x Aircraft Weight. Therefore, 2,000 x 2 = 4,000 pounds.

Answer 161

CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. The recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes progressively more difficult as its center of gravity moves aft. This is particularly important in spin recovery, as there is a point in rearward loading of any airplane at which a 'flat' spin will develop.

Answer 162

a lower angle of attack If the airplane is brought into ground effect with a constant angle of attack, it will experience an increase in lift coefficient and a reduction in the thrust required. The reduction of the wing-tip vortices due to ground effect alters the spanwise lift distribution and reduces the induced flow. The reduction in induced flow causes a significant reduction in induced drag, but has no direct effect on parasite drag.

Answer 163

increase There is a direct relationship between the load factor imposed upon the wing and its stalling characteristics. The stalling speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor.

Answer 164

wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip. The rectangular wing has a tendency to stall first at the wing root with the stall pattern progressing outward to the tip. This type of stall pattern decreases undesirable rolling tendencies and increases lateral control when approaching a stall.

Answer 165

Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift. As the airplane slows down, the decreasing airspeed or velocity requires increasing the angle of attack to produce the constant lift needed to maintain altitude.

Answer 166

weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude. When the angle of attack becomes so great that the air can no longer flow smoothly over the top wing surface, it becomes impossible for the air to follow the contour of the wing. This is the stalling or critical angle of attack. For any given airplane, the stalling or critical angle of attack remains constant regardless of weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude. These factors will affect the speed at which the stall occurs, but not the angle.

Answer 167

higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface. The wing is designed to provide actions greater than its weight by shaping it to develop a relatively positive (high)-pressure lifting action from the air mass below the wing and a negative (low)-pressure lifting action from lowered pressure above the wing. The increased speed of the air over the top of the airfoil produces the drop in pressure. The pressure difference between the upper and lower surface does not account for all the lift produced. Air also strikes the lower surface of the wing, and the reaction of this downward-backward flow results in an upward-forward force on the wing.

Answer 168

There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude. To maintain the lift and weight forces in balance, and to keep the airplane straight-and-level in a state of equilibrium, as velocity increases, angle of attack must be decreased. Conversely, as the airplane slows, the decreasing velocity requires the angle of attack be increased enough to create sufficient lift to maintain flight. Therefore, for every angle of attack, there is a corresponding indicated airspeed required to maintain altitude in steady, unaccelerated flight - all other factors being constant.

Answer 169

Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed. When severe turbulence is encountered, the airplane should be flown at or below maneuvering speed. This is the speed least likely to result in structural damage to the airplane, even if full control travel is used, and yet allows a sufficient margin of safety above stalling speed in turbulent air. When an airplane is flying at a high speed with a low angle of attack, and suddenly encounters a vertical current of air moving upward, the relative wind changes to an upward direction as it meets the airfoil. This increases the angle of attack on the wings and has the same effect as applying a sharp back pressure on the elevator control. It increases the load factor which in turn increases the stall speed.

Answer 170

16.5° angle of attack. The glide ratio (L/D) at a 2° angle of attack is about 7.6:1, which is the same glide ratio (L/D) as at a 16.5° angle of attack.

Answer 171

remain the same but the radius of turn will increase. At a given angle of bank, a higher airspeed will make the radius of the turn larger and the airplane will be turning at a slower rate. This compensates for added centrifugal force, allowing the load factor to remain the same.

Answer 172

being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.

Answer 173

decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor. For any given angle of bank the rate of turn varies with the airspeed. In other words, if the angle of bank is held constant and the airspeed is increased, the rate of turn will decrease, or if the airspeed is decreased, the rate of turn will increase. Because of this, there is no change in centrifugal force for any given bank. Therefore, the load factor remains the same.

Answer 174

experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust. As the wing encounters ground effect and is maintained at a constant lift coefficient, there is a reduction in the upwash, downwash, and wing-tip vortices. This causes a reduction in induced drag. While in ground effect, the airplane requires less thrust to maintain lift. It will also require a lower angle of attack. When an airplane leaves ground effect, there is an increase in drag which will require a higher angle of attack. Additional thrust will be required to compensate for the loss.

Answer 175

Power-on stalls occur at lower airspeeds in shallower banks. Power-on stalls occur at lower airspeeds than power-off stalls because of increased airflow over the wing and because some lift is produced by the vertical component of thrust, reducing the lift needed to be produced by velocity. Power-on or -off stalls occur at a lower airspeed in a shallower bank.

Answer 176

How firmly the pilot is pressed into the seat during a maneuver. Load factor can be detected by noting how firmly the pilot is pressed into the seat during a maneuver. If an aircraft is pulled up from a dive, subjecting the pilot to 3 Gs, he or she would be pressed down into the seat with a force equal to three times his or her weight.

Answer 177

positive limit load factor. C to E is the maximum positive load limit. In this case it is 3.8 Gs, which is appropriate for normal category airplanes.

Answer 178

Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. Fly above the jet's flight path whenever possible, because the vortices descend. Avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft's path.

Answer 179

Past the point where the jet touched down.

Answer 180

a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.

Answer 181

upper limit of the yellow arc.

Answer 182

a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack. In order to maintain its lift at a higher altitude, an airplane must fly at a greater true airspeed for any given angle of attack.

Answer 183

Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved). Utility category airplanes can do all normal category maneuvers plus limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved).

Answer 184

four times greater than at the lower speed. Lift is proportional to the square of the airplane's velocity. For example, an airplane traveling at 200 knots has four times the lift as the same airplane traveling at 100 knots, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant.

Answer 185

glide range. Point B represents the airspeed that results in the greatest L/D ratio. At this point the aircraft will have its maximum glide range.

Answer 186

neutral longitudinal static stability. Neutral static stability is the initial tendency of the airplane to remain in the new condition after its equilibrium has been disturbed. When an airplane's attitude is momentarily displaced and it remains at the new attitude, it is displaying neutral longitudinal static stability. Longitudinal stability makes an airplane stable about its lateral axis (pitch).

Answer 187

Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.

Answer 188

lift, airspeed, and drag.

Answer 189

increase the bank and decrease airspeed. The horizontal component of lift will equal the centrifugal force of steady, turning flight. To increase the rate of turn, the angle of bank may be increased and the airspeed may be decreased.

Answer 190

remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector.

Answer 191

1,320 feet. To find the glide ratio (L/D) at an angle of attack of 8°, move upward from the angle of attack scale to the L/D curve. Then move horizontally to the right to find the value located on the L/D scale. This gives a 12:1 glide ratio. The question only deals with glide ratio, so that is the only scale needed. With this glide ratio, the airplane will descend 1 foot of altitude for every 12 feet covered horizontally. L ÷ D = 12 ÷ 1 = horizontal distance ÷ vertical distance 12 ÷ 1 = 5,280 feet (3 SM) ÷ X X = 1,320 feet.

Answer 192

load factor and directly affects stall speed. The load factor is the ratio between the total airload imposed on the wings of an airplane and the gross weight of the airplane. An increased load factor increases stalling speed and a decreased load factor decreases stalling speed.

Answer 193

left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis

Answer 194

An increase in angle of attack will increase drag. Air striking the underside of the wing is deflected downward, producing an opposite reaction which pushes (lifts) the wing upward. To increase lift, the wing is tilted upward, increasing the angle of attack and deflecting more air downward. The larger the angle of attack, the more the lift force tilts toward the rear of the aircraft, increasing drag.

Answer 195

positive static stability. Static stability deals with initial tendencies. Positive static stability is the initial tendency of the airplane to return to its original state after being disturbed.

Answer 196

increases because of increased induced drag. Parasite drag is greatest at higher airspeeds. Induced drag is the by-product of lift and becomes a greater influence at higher angles of attack and slower airspeeds. It increases in direct proportion to increases in the angle of attack. Any angle of attack lower or higher than that for L/D(MAX) reduces the lift-drag ratio and consequently increases the total drag.

Answer 197

divided by the total weight of the aircraft. Load factor is the ratio between the total airload supported by the wing to the total weight of the airplane; i.e., the total airload supported by the wings divided by the total weight of the airplane.

Answer 198

The indicated stalling speed is affected by: 1. Weight. As the weight is increased, the stall speed also increases. 2. Bank angle (load factor). As the bank angle increases, so does the stalling speed. 3. Power. An increase in power will decrease the stalling speed. A change in density altitude (air density) or angle of attack has no effect on the indicated stalling speed, since for a given airplane, the stalling or critical angle of attack remains constant.

Answer 199

Airspeed. The maximum range condition is obtained at maximum L/D ratio which occurs at a particular angle of attack and lift coefficient. As gross weight decreases, the airspeed for maximum L/D decreases.

Answer 200

force acting perpendicular to the relative wind. Lift opposes the downward force of weight. It is produced by the dynamic effect of the air acting on the wing, and acts perpendicular to the flight path (relative wind) through the wing's center of lift.

Answer 201

angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon. The definition of a stall is when the airplane exceeds the critical angle of attack. This happens because the smooth airflow over the airplane's wing is disrupted and the lift degenerates rapidly. This can occur at any airspeed, in any attitude, with any power setting.