Commercial FAA Questions Flashcards
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, what should one of the primary considerations include what ?
Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area.
If the condition of the nearby terrain is known, turn towards an unlighted portion of the area. Plan an emergency approach to an unlighted portion.
If necessary to take off from a slushy runway, the freezing of landing gear mechanisms can be minimized by what?
Recycling the gear.
After takeoff from a slushy runway, recycle the landing gear several times. This is a preventative measure against mud and slush freezing, causing gear operational problems.
When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for MACHO?
Taking chances is foolish.
Macho (I can do it) pilots who are always trying to prove that they are better than anyone else are thinking ‘I can do it - I’ll show them.’ Pilots with this type of attitude will try to prove themselves by taking risks in order to impress others. While this pattern is thought to be a male characteristic, women are equally susceptible. The antidote for this attitude is: taking chances is foolish.
An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves what?
Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.
Each ADM student should take the Self-Assessment Hazardous Attitude Inventory Test in order to gain a realistic perspective on his/her attitudes toward flying.
Name 3 common symptom of hyperventilation?
Common symptoms of hyperventilation are
dizziness
nausea
hot and cold sensations
tingling of the hands, legs and feet
sleepiness, and finally
unconsciousness.
Who has the final authority to accept or decline any “land and hold short” (LAHSO) clearance?
Pilot-in-Command
When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for what?
Availability and status of en route and destination airport lighting systems.
Prior to a night flight, and particularly a cross-country night flight, pilots should check the availability and status of lighting systems at the destination airport.
Which is equipment is needed regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in Class C airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as?
Altitude increases.
Carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking or from exhaust fumes, lowered hemoglobin (anemia), and certain medications can reduce the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood to the degree that the amount of oxygen provided to body tissues will already be equivalent to the oxygen provided to the tissues when exposed to a cabin pressure altitude of several thousand feet.
When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. What is the antidote for ANTIAUTHORITY/DON’T TELL ME hazardous attitude?
Don’t tell me. Follow the rules. They are usually right.
The antiauthority (don’t tell me!) attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. The antidote for this attitude is: follow the rules, they are usually right.
When are VFR cruising altitudes required to be maintained?
More than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies 6 steps involved in good decision making. Name as many as you can.
Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight
Learning behavior modification techniques
Learning how to recognize and cope with stress
Developing risk assessment skills
Using all resources in a multicrew situation
Evaluating the effectiveness of one’s ADM skills.
While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. He thinks to himself “What is the worst that could happen?” What type of hazardous attitude does this illustrates?
INVULNERABILITY
The invulnerability attitude is found in people who feel accidents happen to others, but never to them. They know accidents can happen, and they know that anyone can be affected, but they never really feel or believe that they will be personally involved. Pilots who think this way are more likely to take chances and increase risk.
What does this symbol NOT indicate
What doesn’t this symbol address in regards to safety?
Runway Incursion
The symbol prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. This sign would typically be located on one-way taxiways or a vehicle roadway. Thus, this sign does not directly address runway incursions with other aircraft.
While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign? (Describe it)
What is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?
Evaluate
The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process, is intended to provide the pilot with a logical way of approaching decision making: Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, and Evaluate.
The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of what?
10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL
The only area requiring 5 statute miles visibility is 10,000 feet MSL and up (when above 1,200 feet AGL).
To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should do what?
Slow the breathing rate
Hyperventilation can be relieved by consciously slowing the breathing rate. Talking loudly or breathing into a bag to restore carbon dioxide will effectively slow the breathing rate.
What does the number 16 mean?
The maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle
The pilot and passengers are anxious to get to their destination for a business presentation. Level IV thunderstorms are reported to be in a line across their intended route of flight. They deside they should hurry and get going before things get worse. What type of hazardous attitude does this best illustrates?
IMPULSIVITY
Impulsivity is the attitude of people who frequently feel the need to do something, anything, immediately. They do not stop to think about what they are about to do, they do not select the best alternative, and they do the first thing that comes to mind.
When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should do what?
Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated
When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in a Class G airspace area each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot must make all turns to the right.
What type of equipment is needed for flight operations in Class B airspace?
The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
A student pilot may only operate an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B airspace if the student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an authorized instructor and has received a logbook endorsement. No person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with the applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment. Requests for ATC authorized deviations for operation of an aircraft that is not equipped with a transponder must be made at least one hour before the proposed operation.
To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, what type operative VHF must you have?
Transmitter and Receiver
VHF/DF is a ground-based radio receiver with an azimuth display. The pilot needs only two-way VHF radio communications capability to make use of the services available.
To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, what rating and equipment is required?
The pilot must hold an instrument rating and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.
To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should do what?
Rely on aircraft instrument indications
What does this sign indicate?
The taxiway does not continue
The black and yellow diagonal striped sign is a taxiway ending marker, which indicates the taxiway does not continue.
When planning for an emergency landing at night, one of the primary considerations should include what?
(Name as many as you can)
Selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible
This may facilitate rescue or help, if needed.
What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation?
Class D, which then becomes Class E.
Class D airspace exists only when the control tower is operating. It reverts to Class E when the tower closes if there is an instrument approach and a weather observer.
The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft is past what type of symbol?
Past the solid-line side
The solid lines always indicate the side on which the aircraft is to hold. (Hold short sign)
What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?
3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontal
When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.
31.00
Special flight restrictions exist when any information indicates that barometric pressure on the route of flight currently exceeds or will exceed 31 inches of mercury, and no person may operate an aircraft or initiate a flight contrary to the requirements established by the Administrator and published in a Notice to Airmen.
Who must a pilot contact for flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.
No person may take off or land an aircraft at a satellite airport within a Class C airspace area except in compliance with FAA arrival and departure traffic patterns. Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.
What does the depicted blue lines mean?
There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.
Alert Areas inform pilots of airspace that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. While pilots should be particularly alert in these areas, there are no restrictions on flying through them.
What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous?
Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote.
What does good cockpit stress management begin with?
Good life stress management
If you hope to succeed at reducing stress associated with crisis management in the air or with your job, it is essential to begin by making a personal assessment of stress in all areas of you life.
When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, at what distance and altitude should a pilot must establish communications?
Prior to 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway, what type of sign would be used to prohibit an aircraft from entering an area? (Describe it)
This sign prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. Typically, this sign would be located on a taxiway intended to be used in only one direction or at the intersection of vehicle roadways with runways, taxiways, or aprons where the roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway or other aircraft movement surface.
What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a “land and hold short” clearance?
3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.
The intent of having ‘basic’ VFR weather conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle operations.
When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, when should the pilot establish communications?
Prior to 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. These dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns must be identified and eliminated. Name as many of these classic behavioral traps into which pilots have been known to fall into.
Peer pressure
Mind set
Get-there-itis
Duck-under syndrome
Scud running
Continuing visual flight rules into instrument conditions, Getting behind the aircraft
Loss of positional or situation awareness
Operating without adequate fuel reserves
Descent below the minimum enroute altitude
Flying outside the envelope
Neglect of flight planning, preflight inspections, checklists, etc.
For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately how many minutes?
30 minutes
When entering a dark room, it is difficult to see anything until the eyes become adjusted to the darkness. After approximately 5 to 10 minutes, the cones become adjusted to the dim light and the eyes become 100 times more sensitive to the light than they were before the dark room was entered. Much more time, about 30 minutes, is needed for the rods to become adjusted to darkness; but when they do adjust, they are about 100,000 times more sensitive to light than they were in the lighted area.
What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?
Recognition of hazardous thoughts.
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process.
Name some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM).
Antiauthority (don’t tell me)
Impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking)
Macho (I can do it)
Invulnerability (It won’t happen to me)
Resignation (What’s the use)
When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for the availability and status of what?
Destination airport lighting systems.
The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. What are they?
DECIDE
Detect
Estimate
Choose
Identify
Do
Evaluate
When are pilotsrequired to have the anti-collision light system operating?
During all types of operations, both day and night.
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace on Sectional Aeronautical Charts are what color?
Blue
The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport indicates what?
An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.
A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. He thinks to himself. “Well, nobody told him about the extra weight”. What type of hazardous attitude does this best illustrates?
RESIGNATION
The resignation attitude is found in pilots who think, ‘what’s the use?’ They do not see themselves as being able to make a great deal of difference in what happens to them. When things go well, the pilot is apt to think that’s good luck. When things go badly, the pilot may feel someone is out to get them, or attribute it to bad luck. The pilot will leave the action to others, for better or worse. Sometimes, such pilots will even go along with unreasonable requests just to be a ‘nice guy.’
When operating an airplane for the purpose of landing or takeoff within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?
Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM
After departing from Byron Airport (C83) with a northeast wind, you discover you are approaching Livermore Class D airspace and flight visibility is approximately 2-1/2 miles. What must you do?
Stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G and land.
The magenta shading indicates Class E airspace begins at 700 feet. The VFR minimum in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet is 3 SM. Therefore, with 2-1/2 miles visibility, you must stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G airspace.
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by doing what?
Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
Pilots should become familiar with a means of counteracting hazardous attitudes with an appropriate antidote thought
Pilots who like to demonstrate that they have the ‘right stuff’ can have an adverse effect on safety in what ways?
Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.
Pilots, particularly those with considerable experience, as a rule always try to complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and generally demonstrate that they have the ‘right stuff.’ These tendencies ultimately may lead to practices that are dangerous and often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.
Risk management, as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
Risk Management is the part of the decision making process which relies on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight
To help manage cockpit stress, what must pilots do?
Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears.
Good cockpit management begins with good life stress management. Many of the stress coping techniques practiced for life stress management are not usually practical in flight. Rather, you must condition yourself to relax and think rationally when stress appears.
Hypoxia is the result of what condition?
Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain
When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it is important to what?
Exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.
An airport on a chart listed as ‘PVT’ indicates what?
A nonpublic use airport
How would you define Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?
Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances.
The ‘taxiway ending’ marker indicates what?
Indicates taxiway does not continue.
What does the thin black shaded line behind ‘1’ indicate?
A military training route.
The thin black shaded line is most likely a military training route (MTR). MTRs are normally labeled on sectional charts with either IR (IFR operations) or VR (VFR operations), followed by either three or four numbers.
What is the first indication of flying into restricted visibility conditions when operating VFR at night?
A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground
At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are what?
Authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace under Special VFR unless they remain clear of clouds and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM. If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, flight visibility during landing or takeoff must be at least 1 SM.
What equipment is needed for flight operations in Class A airspace?
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Light beacons producing red flashes indicates what?
Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation
The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. They figure, “what the heck,**Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight”. **This best illustrates what type of hazadous attitude?
ANTIAUTHORITY
The antiauthority attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. In a sense, they are saying no one can tell me what to do. They may be resentful of having someone tell them what to do or may regard rules, regulations, and procedures as silly or unnecessary.
What is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?
Detect
The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process, is intended to provide the pilot with a logical way of approaching decision making: Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, and Evaluate.
Notification to the NTSB is required to what type of aircraft damage?
Substantial damage which adversely affects the structural strength of flight characteristics.
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs. An aircraft accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft.
To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required to do what? What is needed?
Receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.
No person may act as PIC of a complex airplane (an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller), unless the person has received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and received a one-time endorsement in the pilot’s logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a complex airplane.
To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must have completed what? (hint: a type of test)
Complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the proceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certified for more than one pilot.
To serve as PIC of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember, a person must complete a PIC proficiency check in the aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember within the preceding 12 calendar months. Additionally, the pilot must complete a PIC proficiency check in the particular type of aircraft in which that person will serve as PIC within the preceding 24 calendar months.
If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried would be what time?
1959 CST
No person may act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.
Regulations which refer to operate means what?
A person who causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.
‘Operate,’ with respect to aircraft, means use, cause to use, or authorize to use aircraft.
What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight?
1.500 Ft AGL and 3 miles.
An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under instrument flight rules or visual flight rules, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear.
In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command and receive compensation for services?
Crop dusting, spraying, and bird chasing.
Part 119 does not apply to crop dusting, seeding, spraying, and bird chasing.
What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL?
The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.
No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry:
1. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration;
2. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and
3. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft under 14 CFR Part 91, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the preceding what?
24 calendar months.
No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, he/she has accomplished a flight review, completed a pilot proficiency check, or has completed one or more phases of an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency award program.
Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight?
They are not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.
When is the operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?
Only if requested to do so.
A written report of an incident need be filed only if requested by the NTSB.
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
P.I.C
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, what else must the pilot know? (Name 4 things)
Must be familiar with…
The runway lengths at airports of intended use
Weather reports
Fuel requirements
The alternative available, if the flight cannot be completed
For a flight under IFR or flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the pilot must be familiar with weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which he/she has been advised by ATC. For any flight, the pilot must be familiar with runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information: For civil aircraft for which an approved airplane or rotorcraft flight manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is required, the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein.
At what times is each flight crewmember required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened?
During takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform their required duties.
Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station. This rule does not apply if the seat at the crewmember’s station is not equipped with a shoulder harness, or the crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.
The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is what?
60 minutes.
When is a pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft not permitted to allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight?
If it creates a hazard to persons and property.
To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must have what?
Must have received and log flight training from an authorized instructor as well as receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who finds the person proficient in a tailwheel airplane.
When are commercial pilots required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
When acting as pilot in command
No person may act as pilot-in-command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member of a civil aircraft unless a current pilot certificate and, except for glider and balloon pilots, an appropriate current medical certificate is in his/her possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.
A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for what type of punishment?
Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for:
(1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or
(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.
To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to have what?
A logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques and procedures for safe
To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider, a person must have a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the person has received ground and flight training in gliders and is proficient in the techniques and procedures essential to the safe towing of gliders, including airspeed limitations.
While taxiing on the parking ramp, the landing gear, wheel, and tire are damaged by striking ground equipment. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
No notification or report is required.
An accident is defined as the occurrence of a fatality or serious injury or substantial damage to the aircraft. Substantial damage specifically excludes damage to the landing gear, wheels and tires.
To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must have what?
The person must have within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are required.
Under Part 91 no person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember unless that person has within the previous 12 calendar months become familiar with information for the specific type aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested and performed and logged pilot time in the type of aircraft or in a flight simulator that represents the type of aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested. Also, no person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember unless that person holds at least a current private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class rating.
To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to have what?
Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an airplane.
To act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower), the person must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane. In addition, the pilot must receive a one-time endorsement in the pilot’s logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies that the person is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane. The training and endorsement is not required if the person has logged flight time as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane prior to August 4, 1997.
Between a cargo compartment door malfunction, a cabin door opened in-flight, or a flight control system that has malfunctioned, which airborne incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately?
Flight control system malfunction or failure.
The other two would not require immediate notification to the NTSB, unless it was substantially damaged that would affecting the structural integrity of the aircraft.
What is true with respect to operating limitations of a ‘restricted’ category airplane?
No person may operate a ‘restricted’ category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.
What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace?
A transponder with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.
Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with an operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment that has an operable coded radar beacon transponder having either Mode 3/A 4096 code capability, or a Mode S capability, and that aircraft is equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having a Mode C capability.
No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the past 6 months, performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions, at least what?
66HIT
within the preceding
6 months
6
Holding procedures
Instrument approaches and
Tracking of courses through the use of navigation systems
must have been performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions.
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on U.S.-registered civil aircraft under what conditions?
Under IFR conditions
Any portable electronic device that the operator of the aircraft has determined could cause interference with the navigation or communication systems may not be used on any aircraft operated under IFR.
If a required crewmember was unable to perform flight duties because of an illness, under NTSB Part 830, would this requires an immediate notification?
Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because of illness would require immediate notification.
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office of the inability of any required flight crew member to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness.
Regulations which refer to the operational control of a flight are in relation to what?
Exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
‘Operational control,’ with respect to a flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings with what type of aircraft?
The same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).
No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise unless within the preceding 90 days, he/she has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during that period in the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required) of aircraft to be used.
What type of certificate is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner?
A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.
A certificate of waiver is required for towing objects other than gliders.
A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to do what?
Submit a written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, who is required to use safety belts is during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings?
Each person over 2 years of age on board.
No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, takeoff, or land a U.S.- registered civil aircraft unless the PIC of that aircraft ensures that each person on board has been notified to fasten his or her safety belt and, if installed, his or her shoulder harness. A person who has not reached his/her second birthday may be held by an adult.
If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
Its use is not permitted
No person may use an ATC transponder unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, that ATC transponder has been tested, inspected and found to comply with regulations.
What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude?
It is headed away from you.
The pilot is seeing the rotating beacon and the white light on the tail. The other aircraft is headed away.
When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?
On flights when carrying another person.
Unless a person holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type rating is required) that applies to the aircraft, that person may not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for compensation or hire.
When are formation flights not authorized?
Not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, what must a pilot have accomplished within the preceding 24 months?
Three actual or simulated glider tows while accomanied by a qualified tow pilot.
To act as PIC, the pilot must make at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot or make at least three flights as pilot-in-command of a glider towed by an aircraft.
Can a 100-hour required maintenance inspection be substituted with anything else?
An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection.
The annual is considered the more rigorous inspection and can be substituted for the 100-hour, not vice versa.
When should required flight crewmembers’ safety belts must be fastened?
While the crewmembers are at their stations.
Between a In-flight fire, a ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatched, or a fire of the primary aircraft while in a hangar which resulted in damages to other property of more than $25,000, which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately?
In-flight fire.
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately and by the most expeditious means available notify the nearest NTSB field office of any in-flight fire. The other two is incorrect because the regulation specifies ‘in-flight’ fires only.
Is it authorized to carry passengers for hire by a commercial pilot in a ‘limited’ category aircraft?
It is not authorized in a ‘limited’ category aircraft.
Operations for compensation or hire are not authorized in limited category aircraft, experimental aircraft, and restricted category aircraft. Operations using utility category aircraft (such as Cessna 152) are authorized.
No person may operate a ‘primary’ category airplane carrying passengers or property during what conditions?
No person may operate a ‘primary’ category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.
When should notification of an aircraft accident be made to the NTSB if there was substantial damage and no injuries?
Immediately
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs. An aircraft accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft.
In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above what altitude?
10,000 feet MSL
With some balloon, glider, and no-electrical-system exceptions, Mode C (encoding) transponders are required in all airspace above 10,000 feet MSL excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL.
When operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft, what type of manual is required by regulation to be available in the aircraft?
A current, approved Airplane (or Rotorcraft) Flight Manual.
No person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it:
- An appropriate and current Airworthiness Certificate, displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.
- A Registration Certificate issued to its owner.
- An approved flight manual, manual material, markings and placards or any combination of these, showing the operating limitations of the aircraft.
In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command and receive compensation for services?
Nonstop flights within a 25 SM radius of an airport to carry persons for intentional parachute jumps.
Part 119 does not apply to nonstop flights conducted within a 25 SM radius of the airport of takeoff carrying persons or objects for the purpose of conducting intentional parachute operations.
Between Anitcollision lights, gyroscopic direction indicator, and gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator, which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
Anticollision light system
No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate under what conditions?
When carrying persons or property for hire.
What flight time must be documented and recorded, by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?
Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review.
The aeronautical training and experience needed to meet the requirements for a certificate or rating, and/or the recent flight experience requirements, must be documented and recorded. The logging of other flight time is not required.
After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made where?
In the aircraft maintenance records.
Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall have that aircraft inspected as prescribed by regulations and shall, between required inspections, have discrepancies repaired as prescribed in 14 CFR Part 43. In addition, each owner or operator shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating that the aircraft has been approved for return to service.
Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?
Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of whom?
Owner or operator of that aircraft.
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with Part 39 (Airworthiness Directives).
If not equipped with required position lights, when must an aircraft terminate flight?
At sunset.
No person may, during the period from sunset to sunrise (or, in Alaska, during the period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen from a distance of 3 statute miles or the sun is more than 6° below the horizon) operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights.
In accordance with 14 CFR Part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of what?
12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.
No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry:
- At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration;
- At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and
- At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?
Owner or operator of the aircraft
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with Airworthiness Directives.
No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless what?
The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at leat a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.
No person may operate a civil aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless the other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who possesses at least a private pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown.
Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date?
No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.
Any pilot certificate, other than a Student Pilot Certificate, is issued without a specific expiration date.
Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs which aircraft?
The aircraft at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut infront of or to overtake the other aircraft.
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the lower aircraft has the right-of-way. However, a pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to overtake or cut in front of another aircraft that is on final approach to land.
When are formation flights authorized?
Formation flights are not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation.
No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.
A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise privileges until when?
Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.
A Second-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of the last day of:
- The 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate, for operations requiring a Commercial Pilot Certificate or an air traffic control tower operator certificate, and
- The 24th or 60th (depending on the applicant’s age) month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate, for operations requiring a Private, Recreational, or Student Pilot Certificate.
While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why?
The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane
When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so) the aircraft to the other’s right has the right-of-way. Aircraft and rotorcraft are treated as equally maneuverable, so neither aircraft has right-of-way over the other.
During flight a fire which was extinguished burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action is required by regulations?
An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office.
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately and by the most expeditious means available notify the nearest NTSB field office of any in-flight fire.
In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command of a helicopter and receive compensation for services?
Helicopter flights with two passengers or less, within 25 SM radius of the departure heliport.
Part 119 does not apply to helicopter flights with two passengers or less, within 25 SM radius of the departure heliport.
While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
No notification or report is required.
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately and by the most expeditious means available notify the nearest NTSB field office of any in-flight fire. This rule specifies ‘in-flight’ fires only.
If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anticollision light system, no person may operate that aircraft during what times? (Be specific)
After sunset to sunrise
No person may during the period from sunset to sunrise operate an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights. However, the anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot in command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.
What period of time must a person be hospitalized due to an injury for it to be defined by the NTSB as a “serious injury”?
**48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. **
“Serious injury” means any injury requiring hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is what?
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
What happens when Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are not abide with?
Noncompliance with ADs renders an aircraft unairworthy.
No person may operate a product to which an Airworthiness Directive applies except in accordance with the requirements of that Airworthiness Directive.
How long are pilots who’ve change their permanent mailing address and fail to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of this change entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate?
30 days.
The holder of a pilot or flight instructor certificate who has made a change in his/her permanent mailing address may not after 30 days from the date he/she moved, exercise the privileges of his/her certificate unless he/she has notified the FAA in writing.
What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?
All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot.
A person may log second-in-command time only for that flight time during which that person is qualified in accordance with the second-in-command requirements of this part, and occupies a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft’s type certificate.
What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the airplane?
Pilot in command
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a U.S.-registered civil aircraft being flown under what conditions?
In air carrier operations.
No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, Technical Section, Oklahoma City, OK within how many hours of its execution?
24 hours
The lessee must mail a copy of the lease to the Aircraft Registry Technical Section, Box 25724, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73125, within 24 hours of its execution.
A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?
The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane it to its right.
A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives what?
Required maintenance and inspections
No person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had an annual inspection and has been approved for return to service by an authorized person or an inspection for the issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate.
No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers for hire or give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection. An aircraft inspected in accordance with an approved aircraft progressive inspection program may be authorized as compliant.
Between a flashlight with red lens, an electric landing light, or a sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure, which of these is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
An electric landing light if the flight is for hire.
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is what?
200 knots
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within 4 NM of the primary airport of Class C or D airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 MPH).
A person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, if that person has what?
Is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operations.
Not only must the pilot be qualified in accordance with Part 61, the pilot must also comply with Part 91, the regulations which govern the operation of the flight.
Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating a aircraft weighting what?
Any aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certficated takeoff weight.
A person may not act as pilot-in-command of any of the following aircraft unless he/she holds a type rating for that aircraft:
- A large aircraft (except lighter-than-air), more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight.
- A helicopter, for operations requiring an airline transport pilot certificate.
- A turbojet-powered airplane.
- Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures.
When is preflight action required, relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed?
Any flight not in the vacinity of an airport.
For a flight under IFR or flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the pilot must be familiar with weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which he/she has been advised by ATC.
If an aircraft’s operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated with what?
With passengers aboard.
No person may carry any person (meaning passengers) other than crewmembers in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight, until an appropriately-rated pilot with at least a Private Pilot Certificate flies the aircraft, makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records.
An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection?
The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.
The excess time, however, is included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.
What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial pilot - airplane, if that person does not hold an instrument rating?
The carriage of passengers for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM or for hire at night is prohibited.
A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and does not hold an instrument rating in the same category and class will be issued a commercial pilot certificate that contains the limitation, ‘The carriage of passengers for hire in (airplanes) on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM or at night is prohibited.’
A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include what?
Previous changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.
Each manufacturer or agency that grants zero time to an engine rebuilt by it shall enter, in the new record, each change made as required by Airworthiness Directives.
Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of what?
Life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
Each registered owner or operator shall keep records containing the following information: the current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91?
Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR Part 91, can the aircraft be operated at that speed?
The aircraft may be operated at that speed.
When preventive maintenance is accomplished by a pilot, what is he to do?
A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records.
A person holding at least a Private Pilot Certificate may approve an aircraft for return to service after performing preventative maintenance under the provisions of Part 43.3(g) and shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that maintenance.
Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water at what distance?
Beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
Approved flotation gear readily available to each occupant is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water beyond power-off gliding distance from shore. ‘Shore’ is defined as the area of the land adjacent to the water that is above the high water mark, excluding land areas which are intermittently under water.
Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?
Single-engine land, multienging land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.
Aircraft class ratings, with respect to airmen, include single-engine land, multi-engine land, single-engine sea, and multi-engine sea, helicopter, gyroplane, airship, and free balloon.
How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office?
10 days
The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable to what type of flights?
Any flight not in the vacinity of an airport
Before beginning a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, each PIC shall become familiar with all available information concerning that flight, including weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot in command has been advised by ATC.
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for
- Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
or
- all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface).
1
Regulations which refer to “commercial operators” relate to whom?
Relate to that person who for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.
‘Commercial operator’ means a person who, for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.
Can a pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crewmember under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect the person’s faculties denied of an application for an FAA certification?
Yes. It is grounds for denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, while under the influence of alcohol, while using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety; or while having 0.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. Committing any of these acts is grounds for:
(1) Denial of an application for a certificate, rating, or authorization for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or
(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.
If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for how long?
45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to and the force of drag acts parallel to what?
The flightpath
Lift acts upward and perpendicular to the relative wind. Drag acts parallel to, and in the same direction as the relative wind, which is parallel to the flightpath.
The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by what?
variations in airplane loading
The indicated stalling speed is most affected by load factor. The airplane’s stalling speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor, whereas a change in altitude (air density) has no effect on the indicated stalling speed.
To maintain altitude during a turn, the angle of attack must be increased to compensate for the decrease in the what?
vertical component of lift
Lift during a bank is divided into two components, one vertical and the other horizontal. The vertical component of lift must be equal to the weight to maintain altitude. Since the vertical component of lift decreases as the bank angle increases, the angle of attack must be progressively increased to produce sufficient vertical lift to support the airplane’s weight. The increased back elevator pressure provides the increased angle of attack.
In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become ?
four times greater
Parasite drag has more influence at high speed, and induced drag has more influence at low speed. For example, if an airplane in a steady flight condition at 100 knots is then accelerated to 200 knots, the parasite drag becomes four times as great
What will happen regarding raising flaps during level turns?
The raising of flaps increases the stall speed
If flaps are raised, the stall speed increases.
If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, what happens to lift and drag?
Lift will increase, and induced drag will decrease.
If the airplane is brought into ground effect with a constant angle of attack, it will experience an increase in lift coefficient and a reduction in the thrust required. The reduction of the wing-tip vortices due to ground effect alters the spanwise lift distribution and reduces the induced flow. The reduction in induced flow causes a significant reduction in induced drag, but has no direct effect on parasite drag.
If an airplane glides at an angle of attack of 10°, how much altitude will it lose in 1 mile?
480 feet
To find the glide ratio (L/D) at an angle of attack of 10°, move upward from the angle of attack scale to the L/D curve.
Then move horizontally to the right to find the value located on the L/D scale. This gives an 11:1 glide ratio.
The question only deals with glide ratio, so that is the only scale needed. With this glide ratio, the airplane will descend 1 foot of altitude for every 11 feet covered horizontally.
Lift ÷ Drag = 11 ÷ 1 = horizontal distance ÷ vertical distance
11 ÷ 1 = 5,280 feet (1 SM) ÷ X
X = 480 feet
Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the ?
angle of bank.
For any given angle of bank, the rate of turn varies with the airspeed. If the angle of bank is held constant and the airspeed is increased, the rate of turn will decrease. Because of this, there is no change in centrifugal force for any given bank angle. Therefore, the load factor remains the same. Load factor varies with changing bank angle and increases at a rapid rate after the angle of bank reaches 50°.
During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift is what?
is momentarily increased.
When transitioning from level flight to a climb, the forces acting on the airplane go through certain changes. The first change, an increase in lift, occurs when back pressure is applied to the elevator control. This initial change is a result of the increase in the angle of attack which occurs when the airplane’s pitch attitude is raised. This results in a climbing attitude. When the inclined flight path and the climb speed are established, the angle of attack and the corresponding lift stabilize at approximately the original value.
Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by what?
pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.
Longitudinal stability, or pitching about the lateral axis, is considered to be the most affected by certain variables in various flight conditions. A longitudinally unstable airplane has a tendency to dive or climb progressively into a steep dive or climb which may result in a stall. A longitudinally unstable airplane is difficult and sometimes dangerous to fly.
If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its?
lateral axis.
An airplane becomes less longitudinally stable as the CG is moved rearward. Longitudinal stability (pitching) is stability about the lateral axis.
If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude?
The angle of attack must be decreased or angle of bank increased.
To compensate for added lift which would result if the airspeed were increased during a turn, the angle of attack must be decreased, or the angle of bank increased, if a constant altitude is to be maintained.
At the airspeed represented by point A, in steady flight, the airplane will?
have its maximum L/D ratio.
At point A, the total drag curve is at its lowest point. When an aircraft is flown at the airspeed and angle of attack that results in the lowest total drag possible, then the resulting L/D ratio is at its maximum.
Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its?
elevator.
Longitudinal stability or pitching is the motion around the lateral axis. Pitch is controlled by the elevator.
What increase in load factor would take place if the angle of bank were increased from 60° to 80°?
4 Gs
Proceed vertically along the line above 60° angle of bank to where it intersects the curve labeled ‘Load Factor.’ Next, proceed along this line to the left to the corresponding load factor or ‘G’ unit, which is 2 Gs in this case. Now, repeat the procedure using 80° of bank, which should yield a load factor of 6, which is a difference of 4 Gs.
For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn is what?
(2 things)
is constant and the stall speed increases.
In an airplane at any airspeed, if a constant altitude is maintained during the turn, the load factor for a given degree of bank is the same, which is the resultant of gravity and centrifugal force. Load supported by the wings increases as the angle of bank increases. Stall speeds increase in proportion to the square root of the load factor.
What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2 Gs if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots?
84 knots.
From a load factor of 2, go horizontally to the curved line labeled ‘Load Factor.’ From that point of intersection, go up to the curve labeled ‘Stall Speed Increase.’ From there, go to the left and read the increase: 40%.
The new accelerated stall speed will be 140%, or 1.4 times, the original value.
60 x 1.4 = 84 knots.
As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift?
decreases and the horizontal component of lift increases.
Lift during a bank is divided into two components, one vertical and the other horizontal. The vertical component of lift must be equal to the weight to maintain altitude. Since the vertical component of lift decreases as the bank angle increases, the angle of attack must be progressively increased to produce sufficient vertical lift to support the airplane’s weight. The increased back elevator pressure provides the increased angle of attack.
The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the?
distribution of pressures acting on the wing.
The angle of attack of an airfoil directly controls the distribution of pressure below and above it. By changing the angle of attack, the pilot can control lift, airspeed, and drag.
If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total load would be?
4,000 pounds.
The load factor in a 60° bank is 2 Gs. Load Factor = G Load x Aircraft Weight. Therefore, 2,000 x 2 = 4,000 pounds.
In small airplanes, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the?
(concerning CG’s)
CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG.
The recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes progressively more difficult as its center of gravity moves aft. This is particularly important in spin recovery, as there is a point in rearward loading of any airplane at which a ‘flat’ spin will develop.
To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the airplane requires what type of angle of attack?
a lower angle of attack
If the airplane is brought into ground effect with a constant angle of attack, it will experience an increase in lift coefficient and a reduction in the thrust required. The reduction of the wing-tip vortices due to ground effect alters the spanwise lift distribution and reduces the induced flow. The reduction in induced flow causes a significant reduction in induced drag, but has no direct effect on parasite drag.
In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to?
increase
There is a direct relationship between the load factor imposed upon the wing and its stalling characteristics. The stalling speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor.
A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the?
wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip.
The rectangular wing has a tendency to stall first at the wing root with the stall pattern progressing outward to the tip. This type of stall pattern decreases undesirable rolling tendencies and increases lateral control when approaching a stall.
What changes in airplane longitudinal control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased?
Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift.
As the airplane slows down, the decreasing airspeed or velocity requires increasing the angle of attack to produce the constant lift needed to maintain altitude.
The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of?
weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude.
When the angle of attack becomes so great that the air can no longer flow smoothly over the top wing surface, it becomes impossible for the air to follow the contour of the wing. This is the stalling or critical angle of attack. For any given airplane, the stalling or critical angle of attack remains constant regardless of weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude. These factors will affect the speed at which the stall occurs, but not the angle.
An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the?
higher air pressure below the wing’s surface and lower air pressure above the wing’s surface.
The wing is designed to provide actions greater than its weight by shaping it to develop a relatively positive (high)-pressure lifting action from the air mass below the wing and a negative (low)-pressure lifting action from lowered pressure above the wing. The increased speed of the air over the top of the airfoil produces the drop in pressure. The pressure difference between the upper and lower surface does not account for all the lift produced. Air also strikes the lower surface of the wing, and the reaction of this downward-backward flow results in an upward-forward force on the wing.
In relation with airspeed and lift, what is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?
There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
To maintain the lift and weight forces in balance, and to keep the airplane straight-and-level in a state of equilibrium, as velocity increases, angle of attack must be decreased. Conversely, as the airplane slows, the decreasing velocity requires the angle of attack be increased enough to create sufficient lift to maintain flight. Therefore, for every angle of attack, there is a corresponding indicated airspeed required to maintain altitude in steady, unaccelerated flight - all other factors being constant.
The need to slow an aircraft below V(A) is brought about by what weather phenomenon ? What will it cause?
Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed.
When severe turbulence is encountered, the airplane should be flown at or below maneuvering speed. This is the speed least likely to result in structural damage to the airplane, even if full control travel is used, and yet allows a sufficient margin of safety above stalling speed in turbulent air. When an airplane is flying at a high speed with a low angle of attack, and suddenly encounters a vertical current of air moving upward, the relative wind changes to an upward direction as it meets the airfoil. This increases the angle of attack on the wings and has the same effect as applying a sharp back pressure on the elevator control. It increases the load factor which in turn increases the stall speed.
The L/D ratio at a 2° angle of attack is approximately the same as the L/D ratio for a?
16.5° angle of attack.
The glide ratio (L/D) at a 2° angle of attack is about 7.6:1, which is the same glide ratio (L/D) as at a 16.5° angle of attack.
If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor will?
remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.
At a given angle of bank, a higher airspeed will make the radius of the turn larger and the airplane will be turning at a slower rate. This compensates for added centrifugal force, allowing the load factor to remain the same.
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by?
being airborne prior to reaching the jet’s flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will?
decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor.
For any given angle of bank the rate of turn varies with the airspeed. In other words, if the angle of bank is held constant and the airspeed is increased, the rate of turn will decrease, or if the airspeed is decreased, the rate of turn will increase. Because of this, there is no change in centrifugal force for any given bank. Therefore, the load factor remains the same.
An airplane leaving ground effect will experience what?
experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.
As the wing encounters ground effect and is maintained at a constant lift coefficient, there is a reduction in the upwash, downwash, and wing-tip vortices. This causes a reduction in induced drag. While in ground effect, the airplane requires less thrust to maintain lift. It will also require a lower angle of attack. When an airplane leaves ground effect, there is an increase in drag which will require a higher angle of attack. Additional thrust will be required to compensate for the loss.
What is true about power-on stalls and airspeeds?
Power-on stalls occur at lower airspeeds in shallower banks.
Power-on stalls occur at lower airspeeds than power-off stalls because of increased airflow over the wing and because some lift is produced by the vertical component of thrust, reducing the lift needed to be produced by velocity. Power-on or -off stalls occur at a lower airspeed in a shallower bank.
What is the best indicator to the pilot of the load factor on the ?
How firmly the pilot is pressed into the seat during a maneuver.
Load factor can be detected by noting how firmly the pilot is pressed into the seat during a maneuver. If an aircraft is pulled up from a dive, subjecting the pilot to 3 Gs, he or she would be pressed down into the seat with a force equal to three times his or her weight.
The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the?
positive limit load factor.
C to E is the maximum positive load limit. In this case it is 3.8 Gs, which is appropriate for normal category airplanes.
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
Fly above the jet’s flight path whenever possible, because the vortices descend. Avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft’s path.
To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
Past the point where the jet touched down.
To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at?
a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the?
upper limit of the yellow arc.
To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at
?
a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
In order to maintain its lift at a higher altitude, an airplane must fly at a greater true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers?
Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved).
Utility category airplanes can do all normal category maneuvers plus limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved).
In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be?
four times greater than at the lower speed.
Lift is proportional to the square of the airplane’s velocity. For example, an airplane traveling at 200 knots has four times the lift as the same airplane traveling at 100 knots, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant.
At an airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the pilot can expect to obtain the airplane’s maximum?
glide range.
Point B represents the airspeed that results in the greatest L/D ratio. At this point the aircraft will have its maximum glide range.
If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays?
neutral longitudinal static stability.
Neutral static stability is the initial tendency of the airplane to remain in the new condition after its equilibrium has been disturbed. When an airplane’s attitude is momentarily displaced and it remains at the new attitude, it is displaying neutral longitudinal static stability. Longitudinal stability makes an airplane stable about its lateral axis (pitch).
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane’s?
(3 things)
lift, airspeed, and drag.
To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should?
increase the bank and decrease airspeed.
The horizontal component of lift will equal the centrifugal force of steady, turning flight. To increase the rate of turn, the angle of bank may be increased and the airspeed may be decreased.
While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would
remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector.
How much altitude will this airplane lose in 3 statute miles of gliding at an angle of attack of 8°?
1,320 feet.
To find the glide ratio (L/D) at an angle of attack of 8°, move upward from the angle of attack scale to the L/D curve. Then move horizontally to the right to find the value located on the L/D scale. This gives a 12:1 glide ratio. The question only deals with glide ratio, so that is the only scale needed. With this glide ratio, the airplane will descend 1 foot of altitude for every 12 feet covered horizontally.
L ÷ D = 12 ÷ 1 = horizontal distance ÷ vertical distance
12 ÷ 1 = 5,280 feet (3 SM) ÷ X
X = 1,320 feet.
Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the?
The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as? (What does this effect)
load factor and directly affects stall speed.
The load factor is the ratio between the total airload imposed on the wings of an airplane and the gross weight of the airplane. An increased load factor increases stalling speed and a decreased load factor decreases stalling speed.
A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the?
left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis
What happens to drag when the angle of attack increases?
An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.
Air striking the underside of the wing is deflected downward, producing an opposite reaction which pushes (lifts) the wing upward. To increase lift, the wing is tilted upward, increasing the angle of attack and deflecting more air downward. The larger the angle of attack, the more the lift force tilts toward the rear of the aircraft, increasing drag.
If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays?
positive static stability.
Static stability deals with initial tendencies. Positive static stability is the initial tendency of the airplane to return to its original state after being disturbed.
As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane?
increases because of increased induced drag.
Parasite drag is greatest at higher airspeeds. Induced drag is the by-product of lift and becomes a greater influence at higher angles of attack and slower airspeeds. It increases in direct proportion to increases in the angle of attack. Any angle of attack lower or higher than that for L/D(MAX) reduces the lift-drag ratio and consequently increases the total drag.
Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time and what?
divided by the total weight of the aircraft.
Load factor is the ratio between the total airload supported by the wing to the total weight of the airplane; i.e., the total airload supported by the wings divided by the total weight of the airplane.
Stall speed is affected by?
(three things)
The indicated stalling speed is affected by:
- Weight. As the weight is increased, the stall speed also increases.
- Bank angle (load factor). As the bank angle increases, so does the stalling speed.
- Power. An increase in power will decrease the stalling speed.
A change in density altitude (air density) or angle of attack has no effect on the indicated stalling speed, since for a given airplane, the stalling or critical angle of attack remains constant.
Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?”
Airspeed.
The maximum range condition is obtained at maximum L/D ratio which occurs at a particular angle of attack and lift coefficient. As gross weight decreases, the airspeed for maximum L/D decreases.
Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the?
force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.
Lift opposes the downward force of weight. It is produced by the dynamic effect of the air acting on the wing, and acts perpendicular to the flight path (relative wind) through the wing’s center of lift.
An airplane will stall at what typs of angle of attack?
angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon.
The definition of a stall is when the airplane exceeds the critical angle of attack. This happens because the smooth airflow over the airplane’s wing is disrupted and the lift degenerates rapidly. This can occur at any airspeed, in any attitude, with any power setting.
