Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

prueba > command_course_study_a330_20140627022809 > Flashcards

command_course_study_a330_20140627022809 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Center of Gravity referenced to?

A

CG position is given in percentage of the reference chord length (7.27m) aft of the leading edge (28.15 m aft of the aircraft nose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Load acceleration limits ?

A

Clean configuration –1 g / + 2.5 g Other configuration 0 g / + 2 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maximum number of passenger seats ?

A

375 on B-HLL and older aircraft 440 on newer aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Airport altitude and runway slope limitations ?

A

Runway slope. ±2 %Runway altitude. 12 500 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Crosswind limits ?

A
  • Take Off 32 kt (gust included) - Landing 40 kt (gust included)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Maximum wind for Passenger/Cargo door operation ?

A
  • Passenger door operation 40 kt (50 kt, if the nose of the aircraft is oriented into the wind)- Cargo door operation 40 kt (50 kt, if the nose of the aircraft is oriented into the wind, or the cargo door is on the leeward side)Passenger/Cargo doors must be closed before wind exceeds 60 kt.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

On which Runway conditions it is not recommended to Take Off ?

A
  • Wet ice- Ice with Snow on top- Compacted Snow with Water on top
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

On which Runway conditions it is not recommended to Take Off ?

A

‐ Wet ice- Ice with Snow on top‐ Compacted Snow with Water on top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maximum design maneuvering speed VA ?

A

VA is the maximum speed which permits full flight control deflection, it only applies in alternate or direct law:Above FL 280 VA is M 0.78Below FL 280 VA decreases from 305 kts at FL 280 to 250 kts at 0 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maximum speed with Flaps / Slats extended ?

A

VFE 1 240 ktsVFE 1+F 215 ktsVFE 2 196 ktsVFE 3 186 ktsVFE Full 180 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum speed to operate the Landing Gear and fly with the landing gear extended, normal operation ?

A

VLE, Flight with Gear Extended: 250 kt / M 0.55 VLO, Operation of Gear: 250 kt / M 0.55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum tire speed ?

A

Ground speed of 204 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maximum altitude to operate Flaps / Landing gear ?

A

Flaps: 20 000 ftLanding Gear: 21 000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum windshield wiper speed ?

A

230 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maximum speed to open Cockpit windows ?

A

230 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Maximum pressure differential to allow the Ram inlet to open ?

A

1 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Maximum pressure of air conditioning supply with LP ground units ?

A

2 ×1.6 kg/sec (2 × 3.53 lb/sec) using 2 ground carts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maximum cabin differential pressure and safety valve settings ?

A

Max Positive/Negative: 9.25 /-1 PSISafety relief valve: 8.85 /-0.26 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the minimum and maximum weight for use of autoland ?

A

Minimum: 123 000 kgMaximum: Demonstrated at Maximum Landing Weight, available up to 229 000 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Minimum height to use the autopilot on takeoff with SRS mode ?

A

100 ft AGLAn internal FMGES logic prevents the autopilot from engaging during the 5 s after liftoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Minimum height to use the autopilot on approach ?

A

Straight-in non precision approach MDACircling approach MDA - 100 ftILS approach CAT1 160 ft AGLGo-around 100 ft AGLAll other phases 500 ft AGLAll above Ground Level and not Airport elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What RNP accuracy will FMGES provide with GPS Primary ?

A

NAV mode, AP ON :En route 1 NM / Terminal area 0.5 NM / Approach 0.3 NMNAV mode, AP OFF and FD ON :En route 1 NM / Terminal area 0.51 NM / Approach 0.3 NMHDG mode, AP OFF and FD OFF:En route 1,1 NM / Terminal area 0.51 NM / Approach Not authorized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What RNP accuracy will FMGES provide without GPS Primary ?

A

Without GPS Primary, Navigation accuracy is function of ground radio NAVAID infrastructure and elapsed time since the last radio update.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the lowest MDA to use FINAL APP mode ?

A

MDH/DH (barometric) 250 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

NAV/Final APP modes on NPA (VOR or NDB approach) what are the requirements on aircraft automation and Navaid availability ?

A

NPA may be performed in NAV or FINAL APP mode provided AP or FD is used and:- GPS PRIMARY: NAVAID/aircraft radio equipment can be inoperative- Without GPS PRIMARY: Accuracy is High and NAVAID serviceable tuned and monitored during the approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the requirements to use NAV mode in the terminal area ?

A

NAV mode may be used in the terminal area, provided:‐ GPS PRIMARY is available, or‐ HIGH accuracy is displayed, and the appropriate RNP is checked or entered on the MCDU, or‐ NAVAID raw data is monitored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the minimum DH of an ILS CAT 2 ?

A

100 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the minimum RVR for an ILS CAT 3 FAIL OPERATIONAL

A

75 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the AP and A/THR Requirements for CAT 2 and CAT 3 approaches ?

A
  • CAT 2: 1 AP engaged in APPR mode and CAT 2 or higher capability displayed on the FMA.- CAT 3 FAIL PASSIVE: A/THR in selected or managed speed + 1 AP engaged in APPR mode and CAT 3 SINGLE or higher capability displayed on the FMA.- CAT 3 FAIL OPERATIONAL: A/THR in selected or managed speed + 2 AP engaged in APPR mode and CAT 3 DUAL displayed on the FMA.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What Flap setting can be used in CAT 2, CAT 3 approach with one engine out ?

A

CAT 2 and CAT 3 fail passive autoland with 1 engine out are only approved in Configuration 3. Procedures must be completed before 1 000 ft in approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the maximum wind conditions for CAT 2 / CAT 3 approach or CAT 1 Automatic Landing and Roll Out ?

A

Tailwind: 10 ktCrosswind: 20 ktHeadwind: 35 ktWind limitation is based on surface wind reported by the tower.If wind is beyond limitations, a CAT 1 Automatic Approach without autoland can be performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

AutolandWhat are the ILS G/S angle and airport, runway condition limitations ?

A

Autoland has been demonstrated on:- G/S angle between -2.5° and - 3.25°- Airfield elevation lower than 9 200 ft- Dry and wet runways (no contamination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the minimum fuel temperatures values?

A

Inner tank, the highest of . Fuel Freezing point . -44 °C below 30 000 ft / -54 °C above 30 000 ftOuter and Trim tank, Fuel Freezing point Jet A1 Freezing point is -47 °C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity for take off ?

A

5200 KG WING TK LO LVL warning must not be displayed on ECAM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the maximum brake temperature for take off ?

A

Maximum brake temperature for takeoff (brake fans off): 300 °C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Can you taxi with damaged tires ?

A

No, If tire damage is suspected after landing, or after a rejected takeoff, inspection of the tires is required before taxi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Can you use the ISIS bugs when you’ve lost both PFD ?

A

No, when both PFDs are lost, ISIS bugs function must not be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

For what conditions the EGPWS enhanced functions should be inhibited (TERR pushbutton to OFF, on the GPWS panel) when the aircraft position is less than 15 nm from an airfield?

A
  • Runways not incorporated in EGPWS database- Approach procedures have previously been identified as potentially producing false terrain alerts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the limitations to taxi with one or more deflated tires ?

A
  • 1 tire deflated per gear (3 tires max total): Speed limited to 7 kt in turns.- 2 tires deflated on same main gear (tires not deflated on other one):Speed limited to 3 kt in turns and nose-wheel steering angle 30° max.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Can you start and operate an APU with the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory displayed ?

A

Yes, the APU may be started and operated even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed.Maintenance action is required within next 15 h of APU operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the APU starter limitation ?

A

3 consecutive start attempts followed by a60 min cooling interval before the next start.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the maximum rotor speed of the APU ?

A

N= 107%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the maximum EGT of the APU during operation and for start ?

A

Maximum EGT:APU running: 650 °C APU start: 1250 °C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Up to what altitude can the APU supply both bleed air and Electrical power ?

A

22 500 ft with 1 pack, 17 500 ft with 2 packsAbove that altitude the APU can only provide electrical power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does the minimum O2 bottle pressure covers ?

A
  • Preflight checks - Oxygen use with 1 pilot only in the cockpit- Unusable quantity- System leakage- Protection following a loss of pressure (regulator on NORMAL): ▪ Emergency descent, all crewmembers and observers for 15’ ▪ Cruise at FL 100, 2 crewmembers for 105’- Protection against smoke (regulator 100 %) for all crewmembers and observers during 15’ at 8 000 ft cabin altitude.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the minimum and maximum oil temperatures ?

A

Min Temp prior to takeoff 20°CMax Temp 190°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the engines EGT limits ?

A

Start:On ground 700°CIn Flight 850°CMCT: 850 °CTAKE OFF:900°C for 5 mins both engines 900°C for 10 mins 1 Engine out920°C for 20s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the engines starter limitations ?

A

1 maximum continuous operation of 5 min or2 cycles of 3 min and a consecutive cycle of 1 min (run down to 0 N3 between each cycle)After 1 continuous operation, or the 3 cycles wait 30 min to allow the starter to cool.No running engagement of the starter (N3 above 10 % on ground, or 30 % in flight).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the minimum Engine oil pressure ?

A

25 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the maximum RPM for N1, N2 and N3 ?

A

N1max………………………………………………….99 %N2 max…………………………………………….103.3 % N3 max……………………………………………….100 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the minimum oil quantity ?

A

Before pushback, minimum oil quantity is 6qt+0.7qt/h with a minimum of 15qt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Can you use Wing anti ice on APU Bleed air ?

A

APU air bleed extraction for wing anti-ice is not permitted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the maximum tailwind to operate at an airport ?

A

Maximum tailwind at or below 11 000 ft 15 kt Maximum tailwind above 11 000 ft 10 kt Maximum tailwind for automatic landing and rollout is 10 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the minimum weight to operate an A330 ?

A

121 000 kgExcept for LG, LI, LL and YB where it is 125 000 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the Cabin pressure safety relief valve setting ?

A

-0.26 PSI / 8.85 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the altitude tolerance on Standby altimeter during the instruments check ?

A

+/- 300 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the altitude tolerance between PFD altimeters and airport altitude during the instruments check ?

A

PFD 1 or PFD 2 at ground check : plus or minus 25 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Can you open a cockpit window with the packs ON ?

A

No, It is not possible to open the cockpit windows, with the packs ON.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the maximum taxi weight ?

A

205 900 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is maximum zero fuel weight ?

A

173 000 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What restrictions apply to the use of reduced thrust ?

A
  • Meet performance requirements at planned takeoff weight with the thrust available at the assumed temperature. - maximum thrust reduction of 25 % from full rated takeoff thrust, Max flex temperature is ISA + 48 °C - Assumed temperature must not be lower than flat rating temperature, or actual OAT- Takeoff at reduced thrust is not permitted if:. Contaminated runways. Inoperative item affecting performance, unless the aircraft can meet performance requirements with the operating engines at the thrust available for the flex temperature.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Can you land with fuel imbalance outside of the authorised asymmetry ?

A

Yes, in exceptional conditions (i.e fuel systems failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is maximum engine N3 Max ?

A

100 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Can the APU be started and operated if LOW OIL LEVEL on ECAM ?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is maximum altitude for gear extension ?

A

21 000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is VLO ?

A

250 kts / .55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Pressurization, the maximum negative differential pressure is?

A
  • 1 psi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

APU maximum altitude for Elec Power in flight ?

A

41 450 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Minimum auto pilot disengage height during automatic approach without auto land ?

A

80 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

APU maximum altitude for both Bleed Air (1 Pack) and Gen Load in flight ?

A

22 500 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is maximum certified crosswind for take off (gust included) ?

A

32 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is hydraulic normal operating pressure ?

A

3000 psi +/- 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Is APU air bleed extraction for wing anti ice permitted ?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is maximum landing weight ?

A

185 000 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is maximum engine N2 Max ?

A

103.3 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is minimum height for autopilot on a go around ?

A

100 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is maximum take off weight (brake release) ?

A

205 000 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the maximum fuel temperature for JET A and JET A1 fuel ?

A

+55° c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is maximum engine N1 Max ?

A

99 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is maximum wind for passenger door operation ?

A

40 kts or 50 kts if nose is into wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the maximum number of deflated tyres you can taxi with ?

A

3 tyres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Nose wheel steering angle is limited to ___ ° and for towing or pushback is limited to ___ ° ?

A

72 ° / 65 °

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is maximum wind for cargo door operation ?

A

40 kts or 50 kts if nose is into wind or cargo door on leeward side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Alert height for Cat III approach ?

A

200 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

T Max Flex is ?

A

ISA + 48°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Thrust reduction must not exceed ____ % of full take off thrust ?

A

25 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The APU can be consecutively started ____ times (without cool down), before a cooling down period of ____ mins is required ?

A

3 / 60 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the maximum altitude for APU start ?

A

In Flight Start:- Normal configuration: 41 450 ft - Emergency Electrical configuration (APU bat only): 25 000 ftGround Start: 14 600 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is VLE ?

A

250 kts / .55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Auto land wind limits are ?

A

Head Wind 35 kts / X-Wind 20 kts / Tail Wind 10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the restrictions on overwing fuelling ?

A

It is prohibited with passengers on board.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The passenger / cargo door must be closed before the wind speed exceeds ?

A

60 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing (gust included) ?

A

40 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the maximum altitude difference between instruments on the ground ?

A

ALTITUDE TOLERANCES :‐ PFD 1 or PFD 2: plus or minus 25 ft / airport elevation- ADR1 / ADR2 / ADR3 on PFD : 20 ft- ISIS / ADRs : 60 ft‐ STBY ALTI: plus or minus 300 ft / airport elevationOn the ground, the vibrator is off, that is why the standby altimeter tolerance value is high. In flight, the vibrator is on and the value is lower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the maximum altitude for APU assisted Engine Start in flight ?

A

20 000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the maximum allowable wing fuel imbalance in inner tanks (outer tanks balanced), with heavier tank full, half full and 7500 kg left ?

A

2900 / 4800 / 7500 kgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is maximum speed for gravity extension ?

A

200 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Can you do LWMO and Autoland with 1 engine inoperative ?

A

Yes, Cat 2 and Cat 3 Single procedures are approved in conf 3 with 1 engine inoperative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the maximum engine EGT for Take off ?

A

920°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

If 2 tyres are deflated on same main gear (the other main gear tyres not being deflated) the speed should be limited to __ kts and nose wheel steering angle should be limited to ___ ° ?

A

3 kts / 30 °

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Maximum engine EGT of ___ °c is permitted up to ____ mins, in the case of engine failure ?

A

900°c / 10 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Can you take off with WING TK LO LVL on ECAM ?

A

No, Take off not permitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is VFE Config 3 ?

A

186 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is minimum weight for autoland ?

A

123 000 kgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is maximum normal cabin altitude ?

A

8000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

If 1 tyre is deflated on one or more gears (i.e. a maximum of three tyres) the speed should be limited to what speed during turns ?

A

7 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What’s the maximum wind for landing?

A

55kts, Landings should not be made at airports where frequent gusts of 55 kt or greater are experienced. This reduces the potential damage to aircraft by wind-blown ground equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

During Cold Soak procedure, no GPU available what should you do ?

A

Remove APU battery and store in warm place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

In order to prevent inadvertent fuel aft transfer, in the case of a trim tank forward transfer pump failure, do not select the trim tank forward when the pitch attitude is above ?

A

3 °

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the maximum airport mean runway slope for a 330 ?

A

+/- 2 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

At Take Off, SRS commands a maximum pitch of ____ ° increased at ____ ° in wind shear conditions?

A

17.5° / 22.5°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Pressurization , the maximum positive differential pressure is ?

A

9.25 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The minimum flight crew oxygen pressure table can be found in…

A

FCOM LIM-35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Can fuel types be mixed?

A

Yes.Determine the new minimum fuel temperature from FCOM LIM-28.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What’s the Max steering angle taxiing with deflated tires?

A

30°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

After 3 APU start attempts without cooling down…

A

A 60 minute cooling period must be observed before the next start attempt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Maximum altitude for starting APU using APU battery only?(ELEC EMG CONFIG)

A

FL250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

If the first APU start attempt fails,what may help the second APU start attempt?

A

Wait 3 minutes after pushing the APU MASTER SW, before selecting APU START.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Do not re-engage the engine starter unless the N3 is less than…

A

30% in flight10% on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Maximum continuous Engine starter operation ?

A

5 minutesFollowed by a 30 minute cool-down period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The assumed temperature at take-off (FLEX) must not be less than…

A

OATorThe flat rated temperature of the Engines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Maximum speed in Config 2* ?(Transit to config 2)

A

205 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Minimum TAT for the environmental envelope?

A

-53°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the minimum height for use of the autopilot on ILS approach with Cat2/3 not displayed?

A

160 ft AGL (not AAL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Internal FMGES logic prevents the autopilot from being engaged during ….

A

The first 5s after lift off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Cat III Single Minimum Decision Height

A

50 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the minimum height for use of the autopilot during other phases than approach or departure?

A

500 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Minimum Decision Height for Cat II approach ?

A

100 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is the maximum allowable wing fuel imbalance in outer tanks (inner tanks balanced), with heavier tank full, 2400 kg and 1730 kg left ?

A

1480 / 1580 / 1730 kgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Cat III Dual minimum RVR?

A

75m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the maximum wind conditions for a Cat II approach and manual landing ?

A

Headwind 35Crosswind 20Tailwind 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are the minimum and maximum OATs for take-off and landing?

A

-54°c to +55°c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is the maximum fuel temperature value ?

A

Maximum fuel temperature : JET A, JET A1, JP 5, JP 8, N°3 JET, RT, and TS-1: +55 °CJP 4, JET B : +49 °C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Maximum speed for Landing Gear Gravity extension ?

A

VLE and VLO 200 ktIt’s because the doors stay open after extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Pre-Flight BriefingNotams, Company notams and weather

A

Cathay Pacific Flight Dispatch is responsible for providing the documentation for all flights:- CFP- Meteorological data- NOTAM summaries- Company NOTAM (information of short-term nature frequently reviewed and updated)- Additional information pertinent to the flight Operational documents are available at Flight Dispatch in Hong Kong or are delivered to the aircraft to permit onboard briefing. The briefing documents for each flight will be uploaded to the web-based Centralised Flight Dispatch (CFD) system where they may be previewed by operating crews.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Pre-Flight BriefingFuel Planning

A

The total amount of fuel on board the aircraft must be sufficient for the intended flight and contingencies, including depressurisation and engine shutdown. The Total Fuel for the flight is specified on the Computer Flight Plan (CFP):- Line Ops review all sectors on a regular basis to ensure adequate fuel is planned- Recommended extra fuel is added where experience on a route has shown that flight level restrictions or destination holding are commonThe policy is to load CFP fuel, the company accepts responsibility for any diversion. The Commander retains final responsibility for adjusting the Total Fuel if, in his opinion, it is operationally justified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Pre-Flight BriefingCFP

A

The CFP is the primary working document aboard the aircraft and is to be used for recording the details and progress of the flight.The Fuel Progress Log of the CFP shall be used in flight as a record of fuel used and compared to the fuel available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Pre-Flight BriefingFCN and operational notices

A

Fleet Operational and Flight Crew Notices are available at Flight Dispatch and on Dragonet.Fleet Operational Notices are held on aircraft flight deck, updated on a weekly basis. It is the responsibility of all crew to ensure that they are fully conversant with all applicable Fleet Operational Notices and Flight Crew Notices. The Confidential Operational Notices folder contains strictly confidential sensitive security information.This information is not to be removed or copied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Aircraft DocumentsFCOMs, Ops Manuals and FDF

A

FCOM:‐ System Descriptions (DSC, organized by ATA) ‐ Procedures PRO ABN : Abnormal/Emergency PRO NOR SOP : Normal PRO NOR SRP : System Related PRO SPO : Special Operations PRO SUP : Supplementary ‐ Limitations (LIM) ‐ Performance (PER, organized by phase of flight) ‐ Operations Engineering Bulletins (OEB) ‐ Flight Crew Bulletins (FCB)OPERATIONS MANUAL:Part A: General / Basic (Policy Procedures and Requirements) Part B: Airplane Operating Matters (Type specific, covers FCOM, QRH, MEL) Part C: Route and Airport Instructions and Information Part D: Training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Aircraft DocumentsNav Bag content

A

Nav Bag 1:Part C HKG, NEA, SEA, PRCOperational noticesNav Bag 2:Part AVol 7IATA dangerous goods regulationsIATA dangerous goods training program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Aircraft DocumentsStationary wallet

A

Document EnvelopePART C GEN T1PART C GEN T2Emergency Response Guidance for DGsExtra Crew Seat Travel Briefing CardSpare Post Flight Documents EnvelopesSpare Refuel Record Forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Aircraft DocumentsDocument Envelope

A

Aircraft library check listArticle 11(1) Dispatch FormAutoland Discrepancy FormCommander Administrative ReportCommander Discretion Report Extension of FDP Commander Discretion Report Reduction of RestCrew Confidential ReportEmergency Announcement Landing/DitchingFMGEC Reset /Time out Feedback FMGEC Vertical FPLN Performance Feedback FMGEC Lateral FPLN Navigation FeedbackMap Shift FeedbackLoadsheet No Change of Traffic LoadNon Standard Fuel Order Confirmation sheetNormal Check listNavtech Feedback formPost Flight Document EnvelopeRefuel Record FormRVSM metric conversion cardTake off Data RecordCSQ forms folder (ASR, QDR, CFR, SCR, VAR, FDAP)Emergency Sim Card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Aircraft DocumentsCSQ FORMS FOLDER

A

ASR, Air Safety ReportQDR, Quality Discrepancy ReportCFR, Cockpit Crew Fatigue ReportSCR, Corporate Safety Confidential ReportFDAP, Flight Data Analysis ProgramVAR, Volcanic Activity Report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Aircraft DocumentsMandatory Documents

A

HKCAD 360 requires the carriage, of the following documents on each flight:  operational flight plan,  Aircraft Maintenance Log,  the filed ATS flight plan,  appropriate NOTAM / AIS briefing documentation,  appropriate meteorological information,  mass and balance documentation,  notification of special categories of passenger(s) such as security personnel, if not considered as crew, handicapped persons, inadmissible passengers, deportees and persons in prescribed in Chapter 9,  current maps and charts and associated documents,  any other documentation which may be required by the states concerned with this flight, such as cargo manifest, passenger manifest, etc and forms to comply with the reporting requirements of the HKCAD. Flight documents to be retained on ground for at least the duration of the flight are:  A copy of the operational flight plan  Copies of the relevant parts of the Aircraft Maintenance Log  Company NOTAM  Mass and Balance documentation (Loadsheet)  Special loads notification  Fuel receipt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Aircraft DocumentsTECH LOG/ADD/SADD/PADD

A

The AML must be completed after every flight.All technical defects must be entered with a full description including when and how the defect occurred and any other information that may be helpful in diagnosing and rectifying the problem. Entries shall be legible and printed in ink. Where corrections are to be made to an AML entry, the error will be crossed out with a single line so as to ensure the error remains legible. After each flight, ensure the following are entered in the AML: a. Warnings or cautions on the EWD,  Flags on PFD or ND.  Failure indications seen on SD pages.  Observed faults (e.g. Logo Light etc) b. Class 2 messages shown under “Maintenance” on the STATUS page, when the flight is terminating at a manned station. c. There is no requirement for flight crew to transfer any faults from the PFR to the AML. However, pilots should peruse the PFR to ensure that all items in para a. have been entered in the AML. d. Cases of Hard (suspected or actual) Landings, Overweight Landings, bird strikes, lightning strikes, overspeeds or other exceedences, regardless of whether the station is manned or unmanned. e. If an AML entry requires submission of an ASR/MOR, ensure the entry is annotated with “ASR/MOR Raised”. f. Smoke or abnormal smell. An ASR/MOR should also be raised for such events. In addition, for the A320/1 only, a Smoke/Smell Malfunction Report form, held in the Spare Documents Wallet, shall be submitted for such events (to be placed in the flight documents envelope) g. If the Commander raised a (P)(S)ADD on the previous sector, make a “For Info” entry. PADD: Items with a performance limitation or which affect aircraft utilizationSADD: Identifies items with one or more of the following: a. Requiring verification, inspection or maintenance before each flight b. Having a sector or flight or time limitation in either MEL, CDL, or AMM. c. Affects normal transit servicing. d. Is the subject of a Maintenance Concession/Engineering Concession/DDO that is not the subject of a performance limitation. e. Toilets inoperative. f. APU defects, rendering the APU incapable of starting engines, supplying air conditioning or electrical power. g. Manual operation of cargo doors. Items classified with an “S” must be repaired at the earliest opportunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Aircraft DocumentsMEL

A

The MEL has six sections: ‐ General (GEN) : HDA Policy. ‐ How to Use (HOW): General information and organization of the manual. ‐ MEL Entries (ME) : List the ECAM alerts and indicates the associated MEL item (if any) to apply for dispatching the aircraft. This section is a user-friendly entry point when an ECAM alert reports a system failure. ‐ MEL Items (MI) : This section is approved by the EASA and lists all the MEL items with the associated dispatch conditions. ‐ MEL Operational Procedures (MO) : This section gives the operational procedures that are associated with the MEL items. ‐ Configuration Deviation List (CDL): Contains additional certified limitations for operation of the A330 aircraft without certain secondary airframe and engine parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Aircraft DocumentsCAR

A

ACARS CAR is the primary means, a Commander’s Report Form is available in the stationary wallet as a backup.All items must be completed for each sector:Delay codes are listed on the clipboard; The primary cause of delay is to be recorded and expanded in Remarks section if necessary.Takeoff and landing for Commander and First Officer must be recorded. Flight crew members must be recorded. Cabin crew names may be omitted if a General Declaration is placed inside the Flight Documents Envelope. Comment is used to communicate information that might be of value to subsequent crews or to the company.Addresses can be found on the reverse of the clipboard. The following information should also be annotated as required: a. Significant events and delays b. Completion of an MOR, Air Safety Report or Crew Confidential Report c. Training detail carried out d. Extension of Duty or Split Duty as defined in the Flight Time LimitationThe Commander‟s signature is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Aircraft DocumentsLoadsheet, Balance Sheet

A

The primary Loadsheet is the ACARS Loadsheet. A Computer Loadsheet is used at CLC Stations where delivery by ACARS is not available due to equipment or communications problems. Loadsheets are usually delivered directly to the aircraft ACARS printer, or the Boarding Gate Printer in the case of a backup Computer Loadsheet. At ports supporting CLC, two copies of the Computer Loadsheet shall always be printed as a backup.Computer Loadsheets use the same terminology as ACARS Loadsheets. The layout of the Computer Loadsheet is the same as that of the ACARS loadsheet. Whilst it is not expected that Flight Crew should be able to complete a Manual Loadsheet, they shall be familiar with the method of construction and the requirements for cross-checking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Taxi & T/O ProceduresBrakes

A

Brake wear:Carbon brake wear depends on the number of brake applications and on brake temperature,It does not depend on the applied pressure, or the duration of the braking. Therefore, the only way the pilot can minimize brake wear is to reduce the number of brake applications.Break use:PF should allow the aircraft to accelerate to 30 kt and use one smooth brake application to decelerate to 10 kt using GS indication.Brake temperature:The FCOM limits brake temperature to 300 °C before takeoff without brakes fan and 150 °C if the fans are running. This limit ensures that in case of hydraulic fluid leakage any hydraulic fluid that may come into contact with the brake units will not be ignited in the wheelwell. This limit does not ensure that, in the case of a high energy rejected takeoff, the maximum brake energy limitation will be respected. Thermal oxidation increases at high temperatures. Therefore, if the brakes absorb too much heat, carbon oxidation will increase. This is the reason why the brakes should not be used repeatedly at temperatures above 500 °C during normal operation. Brake anomalies:ACCU PRESS, if pressure drops under 1500 PSI the flight crew should be aware that the Parking Brake can become less efficient. This explains the amber range on the hydraulic pressure gauge of the ACCU PRESS. Braking problems during taxi, do the Loss of braking memory items.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Taxi & T/O ProceduresTake-off Performance

A

Gradient requirements depicted on SID and approach charts are for All Engines Operating. The minimum climb gradient up to acceleration altitude with All Engines Operating is 11.55 % (KMG RWY04, max RTOW ISA +15)If terrain clearance cannot be achieved on 1 engine, an Engine Inoperative procedure will be published on the Port Page.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Taxi & T/O ProceduresSimplified Performance Charts

A

Simplified RTOW Charts are designed in case ACARS RTOW, including backup methods, are not available. The data is conservative and may not be usable for heavier weights and/or shorter runways. Group A Charts provides sufficient takeoff performance for airports that require a lower climb gradient. Group B Charts provide increased departure performance for airports that require a higher than normal climb gradient. Dedicated Simplified RTOW charts meet all takeoff gradient requirements for the captioned airport runway.Note: 1.Simplified RTOW Charts shall not be used if the applicability of the airport/runway is in doubt. 2.Dedicated Simplified RTOW Charts may be available for specific airports / runways to cater for special operations such as freighter or charter flights to offline airports, or where inclusion in either Group A or Group B would impose significant performance penalties at other airports within the groups.The use of Simplified RTOW Chart is prohibited: • If temporary obstacles are present in the takeoff direction. • If WIP affects the runway length. • For contaminated or slippery runways. • Performance-related MEL dispatch (except reverser inoperative).Charts are provided for minimum QNH values of 990 hPa and 1005 hPa Chartsmaximum tailwind component of 5 knots Maximum rated thrust (TOGA)PACKS OFFREVERSER INOPERATIVE Charts are valid for reversers inoperativeENGINE ANTI-ICE Charts are based on Engine Anti-ice ON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Taxi & T/O ProceduresEOSID Procedures

A

Takeoff procedures for all engine and engine inoperative operations are provided on the “Departures” section of the Port Page. If no specific guidance is provided, any published SID procedure is acceptable for use; Alternatively, where obstacles are too limiting, an engine inoperative procedure will be published on the port page and must be followed to avoid obstacles during an engine failure.Visual, above MSA or under RADAR CONTROL, it is permissible to depart from these Engine Inoperative Procedures provided that obstacle clearance can be assured; ACARS RTOW data is only valid if the relevant SID or Engine Inoperative procedure is flown.Engine Inoperative Flap Retraction Altitudes will only be published on the Port Page if they are higher than 1 500 ft AAL.For cold weather operations, ISA –15 °C and below, ACARS RTOW will automatically increase the Engine Inoperative Flap Retraction Altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Taxi & T/O ProceduresWet / Contaminated Runway

A

The regulations for takeoff on a wet/contaminated runway require full credit to be taken for thrust reversers and the screen height to be reduced from the dry runway screen height of 35 ft to not less than 15 ft. This allows a lower V1 in order to improve the chance of stopping on a wet/contaminated runway. Thrust reversers are not required for dispatch on wet/contaminated runways; However, if available, full reverse thrust must be used when rejecting take-off on a wet/contaminated runway. ACARS RTOW and the associated backup is the only authorized method for performance calculation. Actual runway surface conditions should be entered directly into the program using the applicable code.Provided takeoff performance can be computed using ACARS RTOW, dispatch with the specified wet/contaminated runway conditions is permitted. However, the reduced cross-wind tables listed in LIM-12 must still be observed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Taxi & T/O ProceduresT/O technique X-Wind, T-Wind

A

In case of tailwind, or if crosswind is greater than 20kts:‐ PF applies full forward stick up to 80 kt and gradually release the stick to reach neutral at 100 kt‐ Captain sets takeoff thrust in 1 step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Taxi & T/O ProceduresNoise abatement

A

The Standard noise abatement procedure, as annotated on a Port Page, shall be flown in accordance with NADP 1 .NADP 1/ ICAO A - Maintain SRS climb to 3 000 ft AAL, followed by acceleration and flap retraction. NADP 2/ ICAO B - Maintain SRS climb to standard acceleration altitude, followed by normal acceleration and flap retraction. CLB thrust is set after first flap retraction (the flap Automatic Retraction System complies with this requirement). Thereafter, maintain Green Dot speed until 3 000 ft AAL. In all cases the THR RED altitude on the PERF T/O page shall be standard. Noise abatement procedures should not be conducted in conditions of significant turbulence or windshear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Taxi & T/O ProceduresDeparture Speed Selection

A

The aircraft shall be operated in compliance with state speed limit requirements, if a greater speed is required for operational reasons, a request shall be made to ATC. The maximum speed is the greater of 250 kt until: ‐ The highest applicable sector MSA, and ‐ In all cases, 3 000 ft AAL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

MiscellaneousPassenger Address

A

The PA system is primarily a safety tool for communication between the flight deck and the cabin; As a public relations tool it can enhance the image of the airlinea. The Captain will make all introductory announcements. b. Announcements should be concisec. English should be used onlyd. PA announcements are not to be made during climb or descent Pre-Departure Sequence of events leading up to a welcoming PA: a. Captain completes a welcoming PA few minutes before door closed b. FA1 informs the Captain when all passengers are on boardc. Where appropriate he should use this as an opportunity to explain any delays. Where an extended delay is expected the Captain should liaise with the Ramp Coordinator to ensure a coordinated approach to delay management. d. The FA1 will wait for the Captain to do his welcoming PA before starting the greeting announcement and safety demonstration. The Captain’s welcome announcement should ask passengers to pay particular attention to the safety briefing. This briefing clearly lays out the Company policy on wearing seatbelts during flight. If turbulence is forecast, the Commander should emphasise the importance of observing the seatbelt sign for passengers own safety. Prior to Top of Descent This should include the revised ETA and weather at destination. This opportunity may be taken to bid farewell to the passengers and to thank them for choosing to fly with Dragonair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

MiscellaneousFlight Deck Security

A

No person, other than the flight crewmembers assigned to a flight, must be admitted to the flight deck unless this person is: - an operating crewmember- a representative of the authority responsible for certification, licensing or inspection if required to perform his official dutiesThe final decision regarding the admission to the flight deck of any person rests with the Commander, he shall request identification of such persons before granting admission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

En Route ProcedureMetric,QNH, QFE procedures

A

The primary reference for altitude/Flight Levels is the indication on the PFDs. Standard airport pressure setting at major airports in Mainland China is QNH. QFE is still used at some regional airports. When only QFE is available, corrections for airport elevation must be applied to all procedural altitudes. The FCU altimeter setting and the barometric subscale on the standby and metric altimeter (if installed) are to be set to QNH in accordance with the following guidelines:When operating in the PRC, below transition level/altitude metric altimeter is to be set to QNHabove transition level, metric altimeter is to be set to StandardOutside PRC the Metric Altimeter remain set to standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

En Route ProcedureNavtech

A

Part C consists of several volumes divided according to area of operation and the aerodrome type (destination, alternate, en-route alternate, etc.). This division of manuals takes into account ease of access, availability of data and aircraft type-related space constraints. HKG Hong Kong, Guangzhou, Macao, Shenzhen PRC China – Destinations, Primary Alternates NEA North East Asia – Destinations, Primary Alternates SEA South East Asia – Destinations, Primary Alternates GEN Main body, secondary alternates, en-route alternates ENC En-route charts, En-route Diversion Guides SIM For simulator use only AERAD Supplements giving additional information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

En Route ProcedurePort Pages

A

The Port Pages are to be used with the relevant Navtech charts when carrying out the CTWO+ brief. They contain information that supplements and in some cases overrides the information on the Navtech charts. The data contained in the Port Pages is produced by Line Operations Department, the layout follows a fixed format, divided into three sections, GENERAL, ARRIVALS,DEPARTURESTwo further optional sections may also be included, containing GRAPHICS and LVO MINIMA as required. When crew are rostered into a Category B/C aerodrome, the appropriate Port Page shall be reviewed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

En Route ProcedureSID/STARS

A

All gradient requirements depicted on SID and Approach charts are for All Engines Operating. Performance Section will review the climb gradient requirements for all ports prior to the commencement of operations and if any Company aircraft is unable to achieve the required terrain clearance with an engine inoperative, an aircraft type-specific Engine Inoperative procedure will be detailed on the relevant port page.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Communications, Weather, NavigationIOC

A

IOC function is to facilitate operational control through communications and established procedures with relevant operational and commercial departments.Dragonair has authority for Operational Control which means initiation, continuation, diversion or termination of a flight.IOC has authority for any commercial issues and can get guidance and clarification from the DOM for any operational issues. The responsibility for an individual flight devolves on IOC before departure; They preside over the initiation, continuation, termination or cancellation of any scheduled or non- scheduled flight. The Commander/PIC has the authority as to the operation and safety of the aircraft and all persons on board during his time on duty. All operational decisions should be co-ordinated with IOC. Operational decisions must be made in the best interests of Dragonair’s entire scope of operations and as such must include consultation with local offices and all concerned Departments. BEFORE THE FLIGHT IOC coordinates latest information on the planned flight and takes the necessary decisions to ensure the flight or to cancel it. The flight dispatch officer prepares the flight dispatch package. Once the Commander/PIC has commenced his flight duty, the flight dispatch officer shall assist the Commander/PIC concerning all matters dealing with his flight, his crew and his aircraft. Station manager supervises all airport activities (passenger, ground handling, loading). He coordinates with IOC and the Commander of the flight. The station manager is responsible for the flight until the Commander/PIC takes the responsibility for the safety of all crewmembers, passengers and/or cargo on board the aircraft once the doors are closed. INITIATION OF THE FLIGHT It is the responsibility of the Commander/PIC to initiate the flight. ONCE THE FLIGHT HAS COMMENCED The aircraft Commander/PIC has the authority for Operational Control for any safety or legal issues from the moment the aircraft is ready to move for the purpose of Taking-off, until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight and the Engines are shutdown. In flight, the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft rests with the Commander. The IOC must provide any information having an operational impact. The Commander/PIC shall always base his decisions with the safety of the operation in mind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Communications, Weather, NavigationHF procedures, Selcal, Stockholm radio

A

HF communications are only required on a small number of Dragonair’s routes: o Frequency is affected by time of day due to diurnal variations in the height of the ionosphere, higher frequencies are required by day and lower frequencies by night. o Distance between aircraft and ground station it is common for the skip distance to cause communications difficulties, this may also result in extremely distant stations being heard: In this case a frequency change may be appropriate as the skip distance is dependent on frequency. o Frequency congestion as frequencies are grouped according to region, a number of ground stations may use the same frequency. The additional range provided by HF communications also means that a larger number of aircraft are likely to be on frequency. This can be mitigated by maintaining a SELCAL watch, If SELCAL has been checked on the frequency. HF frequencies are shown on the CFP and on the en-route chart. Stockholm Radio Frequencies and propagation graphs listed in the AERAD Asia supplement (green book).Can use to relay information to OPS if ACARS/ SATCOM not available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Communications, Weather, NavigationRVSM

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace is any airspace between FL290 and FL410 (inclusive) [FL291 (8,900m) and FL411 (12,500m) in China] where aircraft are separated vertically by 1,000 ft instead of 2,000 ft. Dragonair holds an approval from HK CAD for flight in RVSM airspace, capability is shown on the ATS Flight Plan “Equipment and Capability” field with the letter “W”. RVSM regulations require the following equipment/functions to be operative : ‐ 2 ADRs + 2 DMCs ‐ 1 transponder ‐ 1 Autopilot function ‐ 2 PFD functions (for altitude indication) ‐ 1 FCU channel (for altitude target selection and OP CLB/OP DES mode engagement) ‐ 1 FWC (for altitude alert function)Crews should pay particular attention to the following parameters when operating in RVSM airspace: a. accuracy of horizontal and vertical navigation b. accuracy of horizontal and vertical speed control c. conformity with ATC clearance d. conformity with Company Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) e. knowledge of contingency plans. If a flight deviates by 300 ft or more from a cleared flight level or if wake turbulence is encountered while in RVSM airspace, an ASR report is to be completed and submitted to the Dragonair Corporate Safety & Quality Department. Line Ops should also be notified via CAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Communications, Weather, NavigationTCAS

A

CONFLICT RESOLUTION PRINCIPLES‐ Traffic Advisory (TA) If an intruder represents a potential collision threat, a visual and aural Traffic Advisory (TA) is given. This advisory helps the crew to visually situate the intruder. It also prepares the crew for a possible Resolution Advisory (RA). However, not every RA is preceded by a TA.‐ Resolution Advisory (RA) If the intruder is considered to be a real collision threat, an aural and visual Resolution Advisory is given. TCAS determines the optimum vertical maneuver that ensures effective separation with a minimum change in vertical speed and generates : • Preventive Advisory (i.e. the actual vertical speed may be maintained). It displays the vertical speed range to be avoided. • Corrective Advisory (i.e. the actual vertical speed is within the range to be avoided, and a recommended vertical speed (fly to) range is displayed. • Modified Corrective Advisory, which changes the already displayed RA (i.e. if the intruder changes their vertical speed).The TCAS shall be selected to TA/RA for all phases of flight. Selection of TA mode may be required in certain conditions where aircraft performance is limited by an in-flight failure and this will be detailed in the associated Emergency or Non-Normal Checklist. Where a conflict exists between the RA commanded maneuver and an ATC instruction, the commanded RA shall be followed. Operating with an inoperative TCAS is permitted (including RVSM Airspace) provided it is completed in accordance with the applicable MEL. The TCAS must be serviceable ex-HKG except where allowed by the MEL. At Outports the TCAS may be inoperative subject to the Time and Sector constraints detailed in the MEL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Communications, Weather, NavigationEGPWS

A

The Flight Management System (FMS) provides aircraft position inputs to the EGPWS for enhanced functions processing purpose. The TERR pb-sw located on the overhead panel enables the activation or deactivation of the EGPWS enhanced functions. During all flight phases, when the navigation accuracy check is positive, the enhanced functions should be switched ON. During climb, descent, approach, and go-around phases, when GPS PRIMARY is not available and the FMS navigation accuracy check prevents the flight crew from using the NAV mode in a phase of flight, the TERR pb-sw must be switched OFF. When the TERR pb-sw is switched OFF, the ECAM “TERR OFF” memo is displayed. Only the basic GPWS Modes 1 to 5 remain operative.If the TERR ON ND is not selected, and a terrain alert is generated, the terrain is automatically displayed on the ND. The brightness of the terrain indication on the ND is controlled via the weather radar brightness control knob. If the weather radar brightness was set to low (due to bad weather) and a terrain alert occurs, then the terrain display brightness will also be low. Therefore, when a terrain alert occurs, the ND weather/terrain image brightness may need to be adjusted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Communications, Weather, NavigationNAV BACK UP

A

The MCDU NAV B/UP allows to link a MCDU to its associated IRS in order to enable navigation and provide some basic flight planning functions in case of FM 1 + 2 failure. It can be selected temporarily in case of FM 1 or 2 failure in order to ensure that the function is available on the failed side. When in MCDU NAV B/UP on both sides, 1 FG must be available to engage AP and A/THR. The MCDU NAV B/UP function provides : ‐ aircraft position using onside IRS or IRS 3 ‐ F-PLN as memorized in the MCDU ‐ F-PLN display on ND ‐ F-PLN automatic sequencing ‐ AP/FD selected modes, with 1 FG available ‐ Limited lateral revisions ‐ MAG (True) bearing depending on the pilot selection, from aircraft position to the TO WPT and associated distance ‐ True track between waypoints ‐ Time estimates computed with current GS from onside IRS ‐ Total time and distance to destination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Approach/LandingGround speed mini and Vapp

A

Gh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

BSCU

A

BSCU - Brake Steering Control Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

BMC

A

BMC - Bleed Monitoring Computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

FCU

A

FCU - Flight Control Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

LGCIU

A

LGCIU - Landing Gear Control Interface Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

FCDC

A

FCDC - Flight Control Data Concentrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

FCMC

A

FCMC - Fuel Control and Monitoring Computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

HSMU

A

HSMU - Hydraulic System Monitoring Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

CMS

A

CMS - Central Maintenance System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

EFCS

A

EFCS - Electronic Flight Control System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

BCL

A

BCL - Battery Charge Limiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

MCDU

A

MCDU - Multipurpose Control and Display Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

FMGC

A

FMGC - Flight Management and Guidance Computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

THS

A

THS - Trimmable Horizontal Stabiliser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

SFCC

A

SFCC - Slat/Flap Control Computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

FDIU

A

FDIU - Flight Data Interface Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

EIVMU

A

EIVMU - Engine Interface and Vibration Monitoring Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

FCPC

A

FCPC - Flight Control Primary Computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

FCSC

A

FCSC - Flight Control Secondary Computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

CPC

A

CPC - Cabin Pressure Controler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

SDCU

A

SDCU - Smoke Detection and Control Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

CIDS

A

CIDS - Cabin Intercommunication Data System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Why is it important, reaching the Cruise FL to ensure CRZ ALT mode is displayed on FMA ?

A

CRZ ALT mode on FMA means that in managed speed mode :- The aircraft will fly ECON SPEED profile during cruise as determined by the FMS- the ATHR will operate in N1(EPR) soft mode for more efficient thrust regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What are the OPT, REC MAX and MAX MAX altitudes used by the FMS ?

A
  • OPT ALT: → Gives the best specific range (NM/kg) based on the current gross weight, cost index, temperature, wind → Allow a minimum cruising time of 15 min- MAX REC ALT:→ Provides a 0.3 g buffet margin, computed using current gross weight and temperature, assuming that anti-ice is off → Allows a minimum rate of climb of 300 ft/mn at MAX CL thrust.→ If one engine is out this field displays the recommended maximum engine-out altitude based on LRC speed assuming anti-ice is off. → If flying higher Crew will be advised that he is flying beyond the .3g boundary by a message. - MAX MAX ALT: .2g buffer limit, above that altitude managed modes are no longer available.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What systems are affected by a negative FMS NAV ACCURACY check ?

A
  • Auto Pilot / Flight Director (managed / selected mode)- ND (Arc - Rose NAV / Rose VOR – ILS, raw data)- EGPWS (ON/OFF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

How is the FMS position computed without GPS primary?

A

FMS position is derived from:- 3 IRS positions blended into a MIX IRS position- a RADIO position using 2DMEs, or a VOR/DMEThe FMS continuously computes :- the FMS position out of MIX IRS and RADIO positions; When a RADIO position is available the FMS position tends towards the Radio position.- the BIAS between MIX IRS and FMS position to benefit from the latest update when the RADIO position becomes unavailable. - The ESTIMATED POSITION ERROR (EPE) of its own position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

How is the FMS position computed with GPS primary ?

A

The GPS directly interfaces with the IRSs which output a GPIRS position. When a GPIRS position is available, it supersedes the RADIO position if available, so that the FMS position tends to the GPIRS position.The GPS provides 2 essential data, additionally to position (Lat/Long/Alt) :- The ACCURACY of the Lat/Long position: it is a direct function of the satellite constellation in view of the aircraft. If the satellites are low on the horizon, or if their respective position is unfavorable, the resulting accuracy will be poor. It is provided as a “figure of merit”. This accuracy can be computed with a high probability of confidence.- The INTEGRITY, which is a direct function of the number of satellites in view of the aircraft, allows a defectuous or erroneous satellite to be rejected. If 5 or more satellites are in view, several combinations of those satellite signals may be used to process “several positions” and to carry out reasonableness tests on the satellite signals themselves.Therefore if the GPS position (or GPIRS position) fullfills the INTEGRITY and ACCURACY criteria, this means that this position is the BEST RAW DATA position available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What is the avoidance rule for a red echo on the weather radar ?

A

DECISION TO AVOID: NOT LATER THAN 40NMAVOID DISTANCES: Upwind / 20 NM / 5000 ft above Below FL 230, OAT >0°:5NM / OAT <0°:10NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

On what criteria does the MCDU compute the FUEL PRED page for a diversion ?

A

• Weight is Landing weight at destination • Cruise level, FL 220 for less than 200NM, FL310 for more• CI= 0, Speed equal to Maximum Range speed • 0 wind (Alternate field of DES WIND page to insert a wind)• Constant Delta ISA (Delta ISA at destination) • Airway distance on a company route, direct otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What is the Maximum Rate of Climb Speed all engines operating and single engine (speed to reach a given altitude in the shortest time) ?

A

All Engines operating, Turbulence Speed achieves maximum rate of climbOne engine inoperative, Green Dot will be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

How are the characteristic speeds displayed on PFD and MCDU computed ?

A
  • Speeds displayed on the PFD are computed by the FE (Flight Envelope). - Speeds displayed on the MCDU TAKEOFF and/or APPR, GO AROUND pages, VLS, F, S and Green Dot are computed by the FMGC. Computations made by FE and FMGC are based on the gross weight information transmitted by the FCMC (Fuel Control and Monitoring Computer).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

How do you quickly figure out the fuel needed in case of loss of an Engine?

A

MCDU Fuel page is accurate in case of loss of an Engine, if the page is not available compute the fuel needed using the following method:Trip Fuel = 15 x Distance to destinationAdd 1 t for the approachAdd 3 t for the Reserve FuelQRH In Flight Performance gives:Fuel from any moment in cruise to Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Depressurization

A

• PRESS Page, If outflow valve is open try to manually close it• Perform a quick or Emergency descent depending on conditions• When cabin altitude is under control assess the situation:- There is no requirement to land within a given time scale - If continuing to destination, Normal Fuel Required must be available unless the requirements of In-flight Reduction of Normal Fuel Required can be met.

202
Q

Smoke in cockpit or cabin

A

• ECAM displayed or QRH paper check list “Smoke/Fumes/avionics smoke” • Anticipate diversion• Immediate actions of the QRH• Communicate with the Cabin crew• Source of smoke not immediately identified: - Before continuing the check list: i. Divert ii. Descend - During checklist, if smokes are unbearable do the boxed items (in emergency electrical conf manual control of cabin pressure can’t be selected SMOKE REMOVAL procedure cannot be applied). - try to locate the source of the smoke i Air Conditioning Smoke ? ii Cabin equipment Smoke ? iii Avionics/Electrical equipment ?

203
Q

Uncontrollable engine fire

A

• Mayday Mayday Mayday Dragon xxx • Divert to nearest airport• Fly at VMO• Request emergency services• Evacuate on the runway after landing

204
Q

Critically ill passenger

A

• Mayday Mayday Mayday Dragon xxx • Activate IOC alert phase • Prepare divertion - locate the 2 closest Airports - check weather• Coordinate with CP to find doctor on board• New Cabin, CP contacts Medlink directly• Old Cabin, send message to Medlink (MED), messages will be routed through IOC• Wait for Medlink decision to divert and airport chosen • Advise OPS of decision and brief the CP• Divert Note:If Medlink have been contacted and a course of action recommended, their advice should be followed and takes priority over the advice of any on-board medical person.

205
Q

Weather deterioration at destination

A

• Check weather at Alternate airports• Send ACARS to IOC to request current holding time at destination• MCDU - Enter routing from destination to alternate - Update Fuel Pred page with diversion fuel - Check holding Fuel at destination• Update destination weather and trend• Passing the last En Route Alternate decide to divert or continue

206
Q

Weather deterioration at alternate

A

• Find a suitable alternate• Compute the diversion fuel to that alternate• Assess Fuel at destination, extra available• If Fuel at destination close to diversion - Drop the alternate if conditions are satisfied - Contact IOC - Divert

207
Q

Destination runway blockage

A

• Send IOC Alert Phase• Check weather at Alternate airports• Check Fuel remaining• MCDU - Enter routing from destination to alternate - Update Fuel Pred page with diversion fuel • Talk to IOC to get their decision• Hold/Divert depending on conditions

208
Q

Flaps/Slats jammed on Take off

A

• Speed pull (not to overshoot VFE), keep current speed• Continue on the SID until above MSA • ECAM actions• Talk to ATC and request to join a holding pattern• LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED QRH check list, use it to extend the Flaps/Slats back to the previous position• CTWO +: - Go Around procedure and calls - Extra Fuel BurnVLS and Overspeed warning are computed according to actual Slats/Flaps positionVFE and VFE next give a False information as they are computed on Lever position

209
Q

What is the minimum certified altitude for AP use in case of system failure ?

A

No restriction for engine failure, autoland can be performed on a Cat 2/3 ILS.500 ft AGL In case of other failures, however it has not been certified in all configurations and its performance cannot be guaranteed. If the A/P is used in such circumstances, remain vigilant and be prepared to disconnect the A/P if the aircraft deviates from the desired or safe flight path.

210
Q

In Flight Engine failure above the Thrust Reduction Altitude

A

o Set Thrust Lever MCT, Disengage AUTO-THRUST (if Emergency Descent Reconnect A-THR)o Standard strategy (M 0.82/300KTS), altitude in PROG pageo Driftdown (GD speed) altitude in PERF CRZ page o Set ALT on the FCU and pull to activate Open descent o Apply the Contingency Procedure on the back of the Altitude Conversion Cardo Read ECAM Title and call “I have Control ECAM actions”o Assessment of the failed engine: If no damage IOC should be contacted for Engineering guidance prior to an attempted air-start, unless the risk to flight safety is greater by delaying the attempted air-start.

211
Q

Dual FMGC failure

A

Automatic RESET/RESYNCH occurs first: ‐ ND shows “MAP NOT AVAIL”‐ MCDU reverts to A/C STATUS page, with “PLEASE WAIT” displayed in the scratchpad and FM FAULT light illuminated‐ Autotuning of NAVAIDs (VOR, DME, ADF) is lost‐ AP, A/THR and managed modes are lostIf FMGS recovers: ‐ Database cycle may have switched‐ FM position Bias is lost, position returns to the MIX IRS position‐ Autotuning of VOR/DME is restored‐ FMGS tuning of the ILS and ADF is not possible. ‐ Lateral and vertical managed modes cannot re-engage.‐ The “CAB PR LDG ELEV FAULT” ECAM message is displayed. ‐ The “REENTER WEIGHT/CG” MCDU message is displayed. If Autoreset is successful:Do the Loss of FMS data on Descent/Approach QRH Check listIf Autoreset is unsuccessful (DUAL LATCH)‐ Both FMGCs are inoperative. FM and FG capability are lost‐ Both NDs display “MAP NOT AVAILABLE”- NAVAID tuning is not performed‐ AP/FD and A/THR are lost‐ ECAM: “CAB PR LDG ELEV FAULT”, “AUTO FLT AP OFF”, “AUTO FLT A/THR OFF”, “AUTO FLT FM1 + 2 FAULT”. PROCEDURE ‐ TUNE NAVAIDs, using RMPs‐ RESET FMGCs in turn following the QRH reset procedure If successful, refer to dual reset with loss of data and auto recovery; All pilot inserted data are lost. If unsuccessful: ‐ FLY raw data‐ SET FM source to NORM to allow NAV B/UP‐ SELECT NAV B/UP prompt on both MCDU DATA pages‐ SET the landing elevation of the destination on the overhead panel‐ SELECT the PERF page and enter CI‐ CHECK/Reengage relevant speed/Mach target and vertical mode‐ PERFORM a NAV accuracy check and consider a position update if MIX IRS and actual positions differ by more than 20 nm.

212
Q

Flaps/Slats jammed on approach

A

• Speed pull, keep current speed or back GD if S/F at 0• Cancel the approach and join a hold• ECAM action• LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED paper check list• Brief- Tail strike awareness- Go-around Configuration Deviation from standard call out Speeds to be flown• At 500 ft or higher disconnect the Autopilot• At acceleration altitude, Select speed to control the acceleration• Diversion, consider Fuel available and increased consumption Cruise limited at 20 000 ft.

213
Q

In case of failure impacting the fuel consumption how can you compute the new Trip fuel ?

A

The FMS will not take into account the failure in its predictions, you must refer to the fuel penalty factor table located in QRH In Flight Performance section.If 2 or more failures impacting consumption, add the fuel penalty factors

214
Q

When do you Reject Take-Off between 100 knots and V1?

A

Loss of thrust.Red ECAM warningAmber ECAM caution ENG or F/CTL

215
Q

Double hydraulic failure

A

The following systems are lost or degraded :- AUTOPILOT - Flight Controls in Degraded law (ALTN)- Partial loss of SPLR affecting Roll - B+Y : PITCH TRIM - B+G : Left Elevator / Slats / Norm and Altn braking / NWS / Extend RAT to recover GWhen IAS drops below 140 kts, G is lost and the G+B ECAM comes up- Y+G : Right Elevator / Flaps / Norm and Altn braking / NWS / Extend RAT to recover GWhen IAS drops below 140 kts, G is lost and the G+Y ECAM comes upProcedure- Use FD and A/THR- ECAM action then QRH Summary- Manœuvre with care to avoid high hydraulic demand - Declare EMERGENCY situation to ATC- Refer to QRH for VAPP / LDG DIST / SLATS or FLAPS Abnormal- Approach briefing: • Selected speed • LDG GVTY extension • Approach: configuration, flap lever position • Landing: Reverse, Braking and Steering • Go Around: Speed, LDG and Slats/Flaps configuration

216
Q

Slats/Flaps abnormal configurations?

A

The Slats/Flaps abnormal configuration may be due to 3 causes:- Double hydraulic failure, B+G or Y+G- Double SFCC failure - Jamming, operation of the WTBFlaps/Slats failure have the following consequences:- Aircraft handling is affected (Speed must be selected, ALTN law) - fuel consumption is increased- Attitude reference in approach is modified- Approach speeds and landing distance are increased- Go Around is affected since S/F can’t be retracted- Double hydraulic failure:ALTN law VLS on PFD is correct, computed on S/F position VFE and VFE next are computed on Lever positionManeuvering speeds are provided on PFD according to Lever position- SFCC fault:• SFCC double Flap or double Slat channel fault:ALTN law without protectionsSPD LIM Red on PFD: VLS, VFE, F and S speeds are not displayedAural stall / overspeed and ECAM VFE msg provided• SFCC double Flap and Slat channel Fault (Total SFCC failure):ALTN law without protectionsAP and ATHR are lostSPD LIM Red on PFD: VLS, VFE, F and S speeds are not displayed- S/F jammed:Normal law is available with AP and ATHR VLS on PFD is correct, computed on S/F position VFE and VFE next are computed on Lever positionManeuvering speeds are provided on PFD according to Lever positionαPROT and αMAX protections are available

217
Q

Double RA Fault?

A

∗ Fly by wireFBW uses LGCIU outputs for most of its logics Instead of RA information, :- Take off: Normal law engages when L/G is no longer compressed and pitch greater than 8°; auto trim is available.- Approach: Flare law (usually fed in at 100 ft) engages when L/G is selected down (direct law with pitch rate feedback), “USE MAN PITCH TRIM”- Landing: Ground Law engages when MLG is compressed and pitch is less than 2.5°. Ground Spoilers extend using Wheel Speed information.”SPEED, SPEED, SPEED” low energy warning lost.∗ FMGC- No LOC, No G/S modes with APPR P/B- No LAND, No FLARE, No ROLL OUT modes- CAT1 approach possible using LOC P/B or Raw data- A/THR in SPEED mode throughout the approach (no retard).∗ GPWS / EGPWS- GPWS + EGPWS are lost∗ FWC Auto call outs- R/A auto call out lost - DH auto call out lost - RETARD auto call out lostMDA auto call out is available (Minimum).

218
Q

Unreliable Altitude/Speed

A

Unreliable Altitude:Disregard ALT - IAS/TAS - WIND - V/S - FPAUse:• GPS altitude• GS on ND • RA • CAB ALTUnreliable speed:Disregard IAS/TAS - WINDUse:• GPS ground speed • BIRD

219
Q

How do you use the QRH summaries to deal with a failure ?

A

Summaries help the flight crew to perform actions in the event of an ELEC EMER CONFIG, or a dual hydraulic failure; They are divided into four sections: CRUISE, APPROACH, LANDING and GO-AROUND.- Step 1 & 2: ECAM actions and STATUS must be done first- Step 3: Refer to the CRUISE section of QRH summaries to assess the situation, and select an appropriate runway for landing;That section highlights remaining systems (ELEC EMER configuration), main limitations and flight capability of the aircraft- Step 4, Evaluate any increased fuel consumption (FPE-FPF) - Step 5, Landing performance computation FPE-IFL) - Step 6, Review the STATUS pages for approach preparation- Step 7, Refer to APPROACH, LANDING and GO-AROUND sections to support the preparation.- Step 8, Prepare the FMGES - Step 9, Use the QRH Summaries to perform the approach briefing- Step 10, Crosscheck the STATUS page and the FMGES- Step 11, Refer to the APPROACH section to perform the approachReview the LANDING and GO-AROUND sections once the aircraft is in final configuration- Step 12, PM check on the ECAM STATUS that all the APPR PROC actions are completed.

220
Q

Double ILS receiver failure / ground transmitter failure

A
  • Double receiver failure, the red LOC/GS flags are displayed, ILS scales are removed, the AP trips off and the FDs revert to HDG/VS mode. - ILS ground transmitter failure, the AP/FD with LOC/GS modes will remain ON. This is because such a failure is commonly transient. In such a case, ILS scales and FD bars are flashing. If R/A height is below 200 ft, the red AUTOLAND warning is triggered.
221
Q

Single FMGC failure

A

AP, if engaged on affected side, will disconnect:- Restore the AP using the other FMGC - A/THR remains operative- Flight plan information on affected ND is recovered using same range as the opposite ND- Consider a FMGC reset as detailed in QRH

222
Q

Emergency Electrical configuration with Emergency Gen powered by the RAT

A

AP and A/THR disconnect when failure occurs and they can’t be recovered.RAT has limited power, few loads availableLAND ASAPNo Pitch Trim (hyd problems) / No Rud Trim (actuator fed by DC ESS SHED)• FLYPFD1 - Alternate law - P1/S1 - P2 for landing - DMC1 - FADEC • NAVIGATE VOR1 – ADF1 – ADIRS1(or 3) – ILS1 for landing • Communicate RMP1 – VHF1 – ACP1+2 – CIDS – interphone• MANAGE systems E/WD – FWC1 – SDAC1 – ECP • COMFORT for PAX BMC1 – XBLEED – CPC1 – PACKS – Oxygen • ETOPS requirements WINDSHIELD HEAT – WING A/I – PITOT HEAT

223
Q

Emergency Electrical configuration with Emergency Gen powered by Green hydraulic

A

AP and A/THR disconnect when failure occurs. AP1 recovers after the Emergency Gen is powered.AP1 ONQuickly insert Weight/Cg to get the characteristic speed back• FLY PFD1 - AP1 - FD1 - Pitch and Rudder trim - Alternate law - P1/S1 - P2 for landing - DMC1 - FADEC - FG • NAVIGATE ND1 - FMGC1 - MCDU1 - VOR1 - DME1 - ADF1 - ADIRS1(or 3) - WX Radar1 - ILS1 for landing • COMMUNICATERMP1 - VHF1 - HF1 - ACP1+2 - CIDS - ATC1 - interphone• MANAGE systems E/WD – FWC1 – SDAC1 – ECP • COMFORT for PAX BMC1 – XBLEED – CPC1 – PACKS – Oxygen • ETOPS requirements WINDSHIELD HEAT – WING A/I – PITOT HEAT

224
Q

Emergency Electrical configuration, what happen when LAND RECOVERY PB is used ?

A

Systems required for landing are recovered:- ILS1- SFCC1- LGCIU1- BSCU1- LH WHC1- LH Landing lightSystems not required are shed:- Fuel Pumps (unusable fuel 4t (2t/tank)- WX radar1- HF1- ADR3- AP1- FD1Switch off PDs and select TRK/FPA to fly raw data

225
Q

Double ADR/IRS Fault

A
  • AP and A/THR are lost- Flight controls revert to ALTN LAWUse the ADR pushbutton to switch off the ADR. The rotary selector would also cut off the electrical supply to the IR part.
226
Q

What happen when you switch off the 3 ADRs to fly the Back-up Speed Scale?

A

When below FL 250, if the flight crew can not identify the affected ADR, or if indications are still unreliable, the flight crew turns all ADRs off and flies the aircraft using the BUSS.On both PFDs: ‐ BUSS replaces the normal speed scale, ‐ GPS altitude replaces the barometric altitude. In addition, when the BUSS is active: ‐ AP/FD and A/THR are inoperative, ‐ STALL warning remains operative,‐ Flight control law is ALTN LAW,- High angle-of-attack protection and VMO/MMO warning are lost,‐ Cabin pressure must be controlled manuallyWhen The flight crew turns all 3 ADRs off, the NAV ADR 1+2+3 FAULT ECAM alert triggers. The flight crew must apply the associated ECAM actions, and then, as requested by ECAM, apply the “ALL ADR OFF” QRH procedure. This QRH procedure provides guidance to: ‐ Manually control the cabin pressure, ‐ Prepare the approach and landing.

227
Q

VOLCANIC ASH

A

• Avoid by routing upwind side of the volcano• Entering the ash cloud:- Smoke or dust in the cockpit- Acrid odour similar to electrical smoke- Engine malfunction, rising EGT- At night, St Elmo fire, bright white or orange glow in engineinlets, sharp beams from landing lights• Procedure in the QRH: - 180 ° turn- Protecting the engines:A/THR OFFDecrease engines thrustMaximize engine bleed (packs high, Wing and Engine AI)Start the APU- Protecting Crew and passengers:Oxygen masks ON/100%Oxygen for passengers, consider• Monitor flight parameters:Monitor EGT and fuel flow, Monitor and crosscheck IAS, • Consider a diversion to the nearest appropriate airport

228
Q

Loss of Com in Chinese Airspace

A

VMC: Land at the nearest suitable airportIMC: - Try blind transmissions- Continue to destination- Fly over airport NDB- Commence descent at Flight Plan ETA- Do the Instrument Approach Procedure - Land within 30 minutes

229
Q

BOMB ON BOARD

A

Threats are classified into three categories. - Green, no extra precautions required - Amber, related to one or more targets with a doubt about its credibility or the effectiveness of countermeasures. - Red, danger to aircraft, people or airport activities and therefore merits specific countermeasures. Warnings made against aircraft on the ground, assessed as Red or Amber, may justify a variety of countermeasures including disembarkation of crew and passengers, offloading of cargo/baggage/mail, re-screening of passengers and cargo, securitysearches, etc. Clear modelFly to the closest alternate airport:- Select MMO- Begin descent to decrease pressure differential in case of explosionCall for QRH paper Check listNITSR Briefing to the CPExplosion:- Emergency descent- Reduce speed- Damage assessment to the aircraft AP OFF in Landing Configuration at different speeds

230
Q

Engine failure cases 3 000ft, 10 000ft, FL260, Cruise, Descent, Approach

A

Cancel the Approach or Go Around Flaps (FCU altitude), Above MSA and aircraft able to maintain level (below LRC ceiling): No need to disconnect the A/THRAbove LRC ceiling do the memory items

231
Q

Damage / No Damage ?

A

Consider Damage if:- High vibration prior to engine stopped- Loud noise- Stall- N1 at 0- EGT, N1 exceedence- ENG SD Page, N3 or N2 at 0- HYD Page Pressure/Quantity on Blue/Yellow failed sideAny pressure means N3 still turningIf no damage talk to engineering before restarting the engine

232
Q

Unrully Passenger

A

Assess the Threat Level:Level 1 Disruptive Behaviour Level 2 Physically Abusive Behaviour Level 3 Life Threatening Behaviour Level 4 Attempted or Actual Breach of the Flight Deck Captain and CC should consider the following responses:Verbal WarningWritten WarningRequest police Restraint Diversion to nearest airport Witnesses Thoughts: - Aircraft door: If still open, coordinate with Ground Staff - Purser: “what do you want to do? what is the safest? I fully support you!”- Public Address: “ladies and gents, we have a pax that won’t sit down, if he doesn’t follow the CC instructions, we will have to go back to the gate”

233
Q

At the end of flight, if passengers refuse to disembark, what should you do ?

A
  • Alert KA Security and or the Airport Services Manager / Manager on Duty. - 5 minutes later, Captain must make a PA to inform the passengers that they are required to disembark. - 15 minutes later, liaise with KA Security and the ASM/MOD for police to meet the aircraftCaptain makes another PA to inform the passengers that they are required to disembark - When police arrives, Liaise with KA Security and/or MOD/ASM for police assistance in off -loading the passengers
234
Q

Hijacking attempt ?

A

“I MUST COME TO THE COCKPIT IMMEDIATELY” Serves to inform the cockpit that Cabin in under duress.- Lock the cockpit door using the dead bolt. - Declare an emergency- Squawk 7500- Send ACARS ’75 MSG’ to IOC- Divert to the nearest suitable airfield- Update IOC with details of the event in progress- Prepare for possible rapid descent- Monitor 121.5 and prepare for interception by military aircraft- After landing, push the fire switches and disconnect the IDGs. ATC Communication :- ONGOING ATTEMPTED HIJACKING,Crew in control of the aircraft (hijackers are not in the cockpit)- HIJACKING,Hijackers are in control of the aircraft (in the cockpit)

235
Q

APU Fire During Pushback

A
  • Tell Ground Staff, Stop Pushback hold position- Set Parking Brake- Cabin Crew at stations- Emergency evacuation Check list- Talk to ATC and request fire services
236
Q

Warning or Caution during Take off, when do you carry out the ECAM actions?

A

Only the actions involving movement of THRUST LEVER, ENG MASTER and the actions required to clear RED warnings are carried out prior to flap retraction at a minimum altitude of 400 ft AGL. ENG FAILURE WITHOUT DAMAGE:Stop ECAM at the ENG 1(2) RELIGHT action line.ENG FAILURE WITH DAMAGE or ENG FIRE: Continue to the boxed ENG 1(2) SHUT DOWN message, engine secured.For less critical failures, ECAM actions can be interrupted when necessary to allow both pilots to monitor normal operational requirements.

237
Q

W/S AHEAD red message on PFD, Visual display on ND and aural warning “Windshear Ahead Windshear Ahead” or “Go Around Windshear Ahead” Available below 2300 ft AGL, detects 5NM ahead of aircraft with alerts displayed on ND below 1500ft AGL

A

Before Take Off: Delay Take OffDuring Take Off: Stop (Warning inhibited above 100kts)Airborne: TOGA thrust, Take Off /Go Around procedures

238
Q

WINDSHEAR Red message on PFD and aural warning “Windshear Windshear Windshear”Available: 3s after lift-off to 1300ft AGL and 1300ft AGL to 50ft AGL

A

Call “Windshear TOGA”Set TOGA ThrustDuring Take off roll:Below V1, Stop only if signifiant speed variation and sufficient runway remaining Above V1, initiate a normal rotation no later than 2 000 ft before the end of the runway even if airspeed is below Vr.Airborne:Follow SRS Keep A/P if already engaged If FD is off, Pitch 17.5° then full back stick if necessaryKeep Flaps and Gear configuration until out of the shear

239
Q

GPWS Red Light ND: Red message TERRAIN AHEADAural Warning: “Terrain (Obstacle) ahead Pull up”, “Terrain Terrain Whoop whoop Pull up” or “Whoop whoop Pull up”

A

Call “Pull Up TOGA”AP OFF Pull FULL BACK STICK and maintainSet TOGA ThrustRetract the SpeedbrakesTerrain ahead or Obstacle ahead: turn towards black or green areaTerrain Terrain: Maintain wings levelRecovery: above MSA stop climb ALT HOLD AP ON

240
Q

STALL WARNING AT LIFT-OFF

A

Call “Stall TOGA 15”Set TOGA Thrust and PITCH 15°Wings LevelWhen a safe path and safe speed are achieved, if the warning is still activated, consider it as spurious.

241
Q

STALL RECOVERY

A

Call “STALL I have control”Wings levelPitch Nose Down (reduce Thrust if required)Out of stall Increase Thrust smoothly Speedbrakes Check retractedFlight Path Recover smoothlyIf in Clean configuration below 20 000’: Select flaps 1

242
Q

UNRELIABLE AIRSPEED INDICATION

A

Call “Unreliable speed, AP OFF, FDs OFF, A/THR OFF ”Set PITCH/THRUST (in sequence during Climb until the MSA):Below Thrust Reduction altitude: 15°/TOGAAbove Thrust Reduction altitude and below FL100: 10° / CLBAbove Thrust Reduction altitude and above FL100: 5° / CLBGear UPFlaps if Full retract to 3, otherwise keep configurationCheck Speedbrakes retractedClimb above the Minimum Safe AltitudeUnreliable speed indication/ADR Check paper check list: - PITCH/THRUST for initial level off - Isolate the faulty ADR (Compare GPS GS on ND with IAS on PFD)

243
Q

TCAS RA

A

Call “TCAS I have Control (Traffic Traffic)RA displayed, call “AP OFF, FDs OFF” Follow the orders on the PFDPM “Dragon 123 TCAS RA” / “Clear of conflict returning to FL…”Recovery: AP2 ON FDs ON Read FMA and correct the modes On approach for a RA climb perform a Go Around

244
Q

EMERGENCY DESCENT

A

PF Call “Emergency descent”Masks: 100%, Headset on top of the Mask, INT ON Volume pulled, Check communication established with the other Pilot1- PM actionsPA “ATTENTION! EMERGENCY DESCENT!” Signs On (Seat Belts and No Smoking)2- PF actionsa. FCU : ALT 10,000’/9800’(3000m) or MEA pull, HDG 30° Right pull, Speed Pull S/M PB pushb. FMA read (Check Thrust Idle) / Extend the Speed brakesc. MAYDAY call, if no contact set XPDR 7700, Request / set QNH d. Call ECAM actions / EMER DESCENT check liste. BLW 21,000’ reduce speed 250 kts and extend the Gear f. Change OXY flow to normal if/when 100% is no more neededg. 2000’ above selected Altitude retract the Speedbrakesh. Check CAB ALT below 10000 ft Remove the maskClose the left door of the mask compartment to reset the mike.Rate of descent is approximately 6 000 ft/min. Descent from FL 410 to FL 100 takes 5 minutes / 40NM. MORA displayed on ND is the highest MORA value within a circle of 40NM radius around the aircraft.

245
Q

LOSS OF BRAKING

A

Call “Loss of Braking” Select Max ReverseRelease Brake pedals and switch A/SKID & N/W STRG OffManual Braking (max 1000 PSI)Park Brake if manual Brake is inefficientUse differential braking to steer the aircraft

246
Q

PILOT INCAPACITATIONCall, no response, Call again and if no response action

A

During take-off roll:Below 100 kts, stopAbove 100 kts and below V1 Assess conditions before stoppingAirborne:Take Control and Push Side stick disconnection P/B more than 40sPA call “Attention Purser to cockpit please”Move the seat fully Aft /Reclined and Lock the Shoulder HarnessRequest Medical Assistance (On board/IOC) Request any other pilot qualified on the aircraft typeLand as soon as practicable, arrange medical assistance on arrivalRequest radar vectoring and plan for a long straight in approachPrepare the approach and read the checklist earlier than usual

247
Q

IN FLIGHT ENGINE FAILURE ABOVE THRUST REDUCTION ALTITUDE

A

Set Thrust Lever MCT, A/THR OFFFCU:Speed Pull (0.82/300, GD, MMO)HDG Pull (as required for Terrain, RVSM Contingency, Alternate)ALT PullPROG page REC MAX EO ALT for Standard strategy (0.82/300KTS)PERF CRZ page ALT for Driftdown (GD speed)Read ECAM Title and call “I have Control ECAM actions”

248
Q

REJECTED TAKE OFF

A

Captain: “Stop” FO: “Reverse Green Decel” / ATC “Dragon 123 stopping”Aircraft stopped: PARK BRAKE On + Call “ATTENTION! Cabin Crew at Stations”ECAM actions down to both Engines shutdown in case of fire, Light Off: STOP ECAMEvacuation checklist down to If evacuation is required Captain: PA “Evacuate Evacuate” / Press EVAC PB / Cancel hornFO: ATC “dragon 123 Evacuating”

249
Q

ProceduresAt 1000 ft the PM calls unstable with the condition (Flaps, speed, Glide slope,…)What should the PF answer and do ?

A

PF answers “STANDBY” and prepare a Go around

250
Q

ProceduresWhat is the policy for computer resets and Pulling CBs on the ground ?

A

Pulling or Cycling a circuit breaker should be co-ordinated with maintenance personnel or CX Engineering: - Aircraft stationary with parking brake set - A TI entry should be made inbound to HKG or a manned stationIf part of an Operating Procedure (O), pulling a CB is not a maintenance procedure. It must be annotated in the AML Action Taken Column and an ADD must be raised. CRS is not required.If not part of an Operating Procedure (O), pulling a CB is a maintenance action and must either have the CRS signed by a LAME or if permitted, an Article 11 Dispatch.

251
Q

ProceduresAfter refueling what maximum fuel discrepancy can be accepted on the fuel form without having to investigate ?

A
  • 1000 kg / + 1700 kg
252
Q

ProceduresList the aircraft documentation that must be carried on board and valid

A

Certificate of Airworthiness.Certificate of Registration.Certificate of Maintenance Review.Aircraft Radio Station Licence. Noise Certificate.

253
Q

ProceduresWhen do you use IGN/START mode for Take off or Landing ?

A

IGN/START must be on in the following cases:Runway is covered with waterHeavy rainSevere Turbulence expected after Take off, during approach or in the Go around area

254
Q

ProceduresWhat is the minimum speed that arms the autobrake system and Ground spoilers on a rejected Take Off ?

A

72 ktsBelow 72 kts brake manuallyAbove 72 kts the autobrake will automatically apply maximum braking pressure as soon as the Thrust levers are set to idle

255
Q

ProceduresWhat is the recommended temperature for the bulk cargo ?

A

15 degrees (12 o’clock position)

256
Q

ProceduresWhat are the checks to perform before descent ?

A

LDG ELEV………………………………………….CHECK Check on the ECAM CRUISE SD page that ‘LDG ELEV AUTO’ is displayed.WEATHER AND LDG OBSERVATION…..OBTAIN FUEL…………………………………………………CHECKLANDING PERFORMANCE……………..CONFIRM Landing performance must be considered prior to every approach

257
Q

ProceduresWhat is the Pack off take off procedure ?

A

Packs OFFSelect both packs off during the checklistAllow at least 20s after the Packs are set off before applying Take off thrust (time for the Pack valve to close)Packs ONSelect Pack 1 ON after setting CLIMB thrustSelect Pack 2 ON after 10s

258
Q

ProceduresDuring the battery check what must be observed ?

A

ELEC SD page : 10s after switching back the batteries ON the courant must be less than 60AIf the charge of at least one battery is not below 60 AWait until the end of the charging cycle of the batteries (batteries no longer connected to DC BAT/APU buses) and perform this check again.

259
Q

ProceduresRNAV (GNSS) approach GPS PRIMARY LOST on both NDs, PF action ?

A

Visual or Go around

260
Q

ProceduresWhat call must be made to the engineer during pushback to stop the aircraft ?

A

“Hold position” or “stop pushback hold position”

261
Q

ProceduresRNAV (GNSS) approachNAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on one FMGS, PF Action ?

A

Use the AP/FD on the remaining side

262
Q

ProceduresRNAV (GNSS) approach XTK > 0.3 nm

A

Visual or Go around

263
Q

ProceduresRNAV (GNSS) approachNAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on both FMGS, PF action ?

A

Visual or Go around

264
Q

ProceduresRNAV(GNSS) approach GPS PRIMARY LOST on one ND, PF action ?

A

Use the AP/FD on the remaining side

265
Q

ProceduresRNAV (GNSS) approachNAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE on ECAM, PF action ?

A

Visual or Go around

266
Q

ProceduresWhen is it compulsory to use full reverse at landing ?

A

PF must select REV MAX under the following conditions: ‐ Wet or Contaminated runways ‐ Runway assessed as short at actual landing weight / conditions‐ Tailwind ≥ 10 kt ‐ Touchdown beyond normal touchdown zone‐ Any aircraft failure that impacts the landing performance‐ If required due to an emergency

267
Q

ProceduresRestrictions for approach with Flight Director or Autothrust selected OFF (not both together) ?

A
  • The reduced level of automation briefed prior to TOD- Below 10 000 AMSL- Daytime VMC only- ILS Approach only
268
Q

ProceduresRestrictions for approach with Flight Director and Autothrust selected OFF (both together) ?

A

‐ Reduced level of automation briefed prior to TOD‐ Established on ILS (prior to selecting the FD’s OFF)‐ 1 000 ft Cloud base ‐ 5 km Visibility‐ Surface crosswind 15 kts or less (10 kts or less for SO’s)

269
Q

ProceduresNPA approachNAV ACCURACY LOW, PF action ?

A

HDG Pull, use TRK FPA for approach

270
Q

ProceduresAt what temperature should you avoid to use the Park brake ?

A

When brake temperature is above 500 C (350 C with brake fans ON), avoid applying the parking brake unless operationally necessary.

271
Q

ProceduresACARS RTOW You need to recalculate a new RTOW if ?

A

The QNH decreases more than 2mb

272
Q

ProceduresIce AccretionWhat should you do ?

A
  1. Avoid extended flight in icing conditions with the slats extended 2. Increase minimum speeds to take into account ice formation:- On non heated structure, Clean configuration, VLS +15 ktCONF 1, 2, 3, FULL, VLS +5 kt- On de-iced parts (WING ANTI ICE inoperative),Clean configuration, VLS +15 ktCONF 1, 2, 3, FULL, VLS +10 kt3. Correct the Landing Distance (ACARS/QRH)
273
Q

ProceduresACARS RTOW You are departing using TOGA, do you need to recalculate a new RTOW if the temperature changes ?

A

Yes, if the temperature increases you must recalculate the RTOW

274
Q

ProceduresWhat are the parameters for Long Range, Maximum Range ?

A

Long Range (Specific range is 99% of the of Maximum Range):CI= 40 Maximum Range:CI= 0, Mach in PERF section of FCOM in case double FMGEC failure

275
Q

ProceduresWhat is the brake fan policy ?

A

Taxi out:If an arc is displayed on the ECAM WHEEL page above the brake temperature, select brake fans on.Taxi in:Delay selection until at least 5 min after landing or just before stopping at the parking bay (whichever occurs first) to allow thermal stabilisation. However, when turnaround times are short, or brake temperatures are likely to exceed 500 C, select brake fans ON without delay.

276
Q

ProceduresACARS RTOW You require to find out the runway declared distances and slope, how is this done ?

A

Enter LST as RWY Code

277
Q

RVSM What are the equipment/functions required to be operative by RVSM regulations ?

A

‐ 2 ADRs + 2 DMCs + 2 PFD (for altitude indication) ‐ 1 Autopilot function ‐ 1 FCU channel (altitude selection and OP CLB/OP DES mode) ‐ 1 FWC (for altitude alert function)‐ 1 transponder

278
Q

RVSMIn RVSM airspace what weather issue must be reported to ATC ?

A

Turbulence greater than moderate turbulence

279
Q

RVSMIn RVSM airspace what aircraft failures have to be reported to ATC ?

A

‐ failure of both autopilot‐ loss of altimeter system redundancy (only one PFD indication remaining)‐ failure of any other equipment affecting the ability to maintain the cleared flight level

280
Q

RVSMWhat are the PFD altitude tolerances on the ground before a flight in RVSM airspace ?

A
  • Each PFD altitude indication (QNH reference) does not differ from the airport elevation by more than 75 ft.‐ The difference between the two primary altitude indications on the PFD is less than 20 ft
281
Q

LimitationsWhat are the restrictions for APU start or shutdown during refuel/defuel procedures ?

A

‐ An APU start is not permitted during a refuel/defuel procedure if the APU has previously failed to start, or an automatic shutdown has occurred.‐ Following a fuel spill, and with ground external power available, an APU shutdown should be considered.

282
Q

SystemsWhat is the percentage decrease between CLIMB thrust and DCLB 1 or DCLB 2?

A

DCLB 1 reduces the maximum climb thrust by 5 to 10%, DCLB 2 reduces the maximum climb thrust by 10 to 15%

283
Q

Reporting List the events that require an AML entry at both manned and unmanned stations.

A
  • Warnings or cautions on the EWD- Flags on PFD or ND- Failure indications seen on SD pages- Observed faults (e.g. Logo Light etc) - Overspeeds or other exceedences- Monitoring of Autoland Performance- Discrepancies > 1% N1 between engines during TO - Inadvertent chemical oxygen mask deployment regardless of whether the oxygen generator activated or not- CKPT OXY pressure ≤ 1 100 psi- Severe turbulence- Hard (suspected or actual) Landings- Overweight Landings- Bird strikes- Lightning strikes- Overspeeds or other exceedences- Spillages in Aircraft- Taxi-in freezing fog conditions, (record taxi-in time to determine the remaining taxi-out time for the next flight)
284
Q

SystemsWhat conditions after landing indicate that maintenance action is required on the brakes?

A
  • Temp difference >150°c between two brakes on the same gear, and one brake is either more than 600°c or less than 60°c- Average temp of left bogie differs from average temp of right bogie by more than 200°c- Any brake temperature exceeds 800°c- A fuse plug has melted
285
Q

ProceduresWhen must TERR be displayed on the ND?

A
  • Before T/O, and retained until above the RELEVANT sector MSA.* During descent, when cleared below the HIGHEST sector MSA.
286
Q

ProceduresWhen can a visual approach be conducted?

A
  • Cleared by ATC.* Visual contact with the threshold or approach lighting.* Visibility along the approach path >5000m.* Thin fog: RVR >800m or NPA min vis whichever is greater.* If at night, the Captain must be entirely familiar with the terrain.
287
Q

ProceduresThe use of simplified RTOW charts is prohibited when…

A
  • Temporary OBSTACLES are present in the take-off direction.* WIP affects the runway length.* The runway is CONTAMINATED or slippery.* A PADD related MEL applies (except T/REV INOP.)
288
Q

ProceduresWhat is the recommendation for taking off from a badly paved runway?

A

Use CONF 2 or CONF 3

289
Q

ProceduresOn an ACARS RTOW print-out, what does an asterisk (*) next to the SUPPLEMENTARY RTOW mean?Eg.SUPPLEMENTARYRTOW * 250.1 CONF 1 TOGA

A

The calculated RTOW is approach-climb limited using CONF 3.

290
Q

LimitationsDuring taxi, you notice that the aircraft tends to veer to the right. Where can the limitations for Nosewheel steering offset / trim requirements be found?

A

FCOM PRO-SUP-32 IN LANDING GEAR SECTION”Operation with Nosewheel Steering Offset”

291
Q

LimitationsWhat is the maximum permissible difference between magnetic heading indications on the NDs?

A

4°

292
Q

LimitationsHow much runway width is required for an Airbus A330 to make a 180° turn?

A

46 m using asymmetrical thrust

293
Q

ProceduresUnless otherwise stated on the chart, all IAP (approach and missed approach) in China are based on a maximum speed of…

A

190 KTAS(True AirSpeed)

294
Q

ProceduresNavtech Bulletins for the whole of Dragonair’s area of operations are contained in…

A

OpsMan Part ‘C’(HKG Binder)

295
Q

ReportingDefine a Category B Airport

A

Airport that has additional requirements to a Category A Airport:- Non-standard IAP aids or patterns, or- Unusual local weather conditions, or- Unusual characteristics or performance limitations, or- Others, such as obstructions, physical layout, lighting etc.

296
Q

ReportingDefine a Category C Airport

A

Airport that requires additional considerations to a Category B Airport.

297
Q

ProceduresWhat is the altitude allowance for the MORA/MEA/MOCA/GRID MORA on the Navtech Chart?

A

Terrain ≤ 5000’: Terrain + 1500’Terrain > 5000’: Terrain + 2000’

298
Q

ProceduresThe MRA figures on the CFP allow for wind speeds up to 30 knots.What allowances must be made for stronger winds?

A

Up to 30 knots: Accounted for on CFP MRA30 to 50 knots: Add another 500’50 to 70 knots: Add another 1000’Over 70 knots: Add another 1500’

299
Q

ReportingDefine a Category A airport

A
  • Approved IAP* At least one non-performance limited runway* Circling minima not higher than 1 000 ft AAL* Night operations capability
300
Q

ReportingWhat letter is used on an ATS flight plan to indicate that the aircraft is RVSM capable?

A

W

301
Q

LimitationsWhere do you find the maximum crosswind to take off from a contaminated Runway

A

QRH Company procedures sectionFCOM LIM 12

302
Q

ReportingYou arrive at the Gate in HKG and HAECO personnel advise the gate FGPU is unserviceable, what should you do ?

A
  • Advise Line Ops via CAR - Raise a TI entry in the AML e.g. “FGPU unserviceable gate 48”
303
Q

What is the definition of an excessive rate of descent during approach ?

A

A rate of descent greater than 2 500 ft/min below 2 500 ft RA1 500 ft/min below 1 000 ft RAThey are both referred to RA, callouts are AAL !

304
Q

What is the maximum speed increment on the VLS without failure?

A

15kts at the discretion of the crewLanding Distance must be corrected of the speed increment

305
Q

What is the maximum speed increment on the VLS with failure?

A

20kts total (failure + A/THR + Wind + Icing)

306
Q

A defect occurs at an unmanned station (no riding engineer), what are your options?

A
  • Alternate procedure (A) –> CFDS (A320/321)* Temporary Authorisation of a local engineer* Engineer brought in from a BUDDY STATION* Apply MEL (only items without Maintenance)* ARTICLE 11(1) DISPATCH
307
Q

What weather conditions are prohibited for take off, approach or landing ?

A

The Commander shall not permit a takeoff, approach or landing at an airport experiencing moderate or heavy freezing precipitation: Moderate Freezing Drizzle (FZDZ) Heavy Freezing Drizzle (+FZDZ) Moderate Freezing Rain (FZRA) Heavy Freezing Rain (+FZRA) Takeoff is further prohibited under the following conditions: Snow pellets/small hail (GS) of any intensity Heavy ice pellets (+PL) Moderate ice pellets (PL) mixed with any other form of precipitation. Note: Mist (BR), Fog (FG), and Freezing Fog (FZFG) are defined as”obscurations” and not considered “precipitation” in relation to ice pellet restrictions.

308
Q

What are the conditions to convert an ILS Approach to an autoland ?

A

‐ Crew previously checked Port Page and NOTAMs to verify the suitability of the ILS for autoland capability and included this in the arrival briefing. ‐ Decision is announced and briefed before the aircraft descends below 1 000 ft RA. ‐ Captain is PF for the autoland. ‐ Any doubt over the safe completion of the approach and landing a go-around is executed.

309
Q

If the FM database does not have a selectable approach procedure, it is acceptable to manually build an approach using stored database or pilot-created waypoints. In that case what are the restrictions ?

A
  • Altitude constraints below the highest sector MSA shall not be entered against these waypoints. - Managed vertical mode shall not be used below the highest sector MSA.- Lateral and vertical guidance derived from manually inserted waypoints shall be treated with extreme care. - Raw data shall be used as the primary navigation reference.
310
Q

What are the stabilization criteria ?

A

Stabilised on Final Approach Path at Landing configuration achieved by 1 500 ft AALMissed approach mandatory if any of the following is not achieved by 1 000 ft AAL: ‐ Landing configuration. ‐ Stabilised on Final Approach Path. ‐ Stabilised at VAPP, taking into consideration the prevailing conditions. ‐ Landing Checklist complete.

311
Q

Before the first flight of the day, the efficiency of the alternate braking system must be verified, what shall the PM check during the test?

A
  • Absence of spongy pedals‐ Pressure builds up symmetrically with no delay‐ Full pedal deflection, pressure goes between 2 200 PSI - 2 700 PSI
312
Q

What kind of systems are you required to check after maintenance operation has been performed if maintenance was not finished during the walk around ?

A

Maintenance action carried out on Engine/s Landing gear If not finished during or after the pilot exterior walk-around, an additional exterior check of the relevant items shall be performed by a pilot prior to doors closed.FAN COWL DOORS………………CLOSED/LATCHED GEAR SAFETY PINS………………………….REMOVED

313
Q

Prior to take off,when should ROSE NAV mode be selected instead of ARC ?

A

If the change of direction after take off is more than 70° (allows display of the area behind the aircraft on ND).

314
Q

If you need to readjust the clock, what precautions must be taken ?

A
  • On ground, if the clock is readjusted by more than ten days, maintenance must perform the Wing Tip Brake engagement test. - In flight, If the clock is readjusted by more than ten days, the warning F/CTL SLAT(FLAP) TIP BRK FAULT may appear (depending on flight phase and SFCC standard). However, the slats/flaps will remain operational.
315
Q

What should you do If the NWS DISC is not displayed on the ECAM, but the ground crew confirms the steering selector bypass pin is in the towing position ?

A

Pushback must not be performed. This is to avoid possible nose landing gear damage upon green hydraulic pressurization. To dispatch the aircraft in such a case, Refer to MEL 32-51-03 Nose Wheel Steering Electrical Deactivation Box.

316
Q

After start, to avoid thermal shock, the engine should be operated at idle, or near idle for at least ?

A

‐ 5 min when engines are cold‐ 3 min when engines are warm after a stop of 1.5h or less

317
Q

When can you expect icing conditions ?

A

Icing conditions may be expected when the OAT (on ground and for takeoff) / TAT (in flight), is 10 C or below and there is visible moisture in the air (clouds, fog with low visibility, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals), or when standing water, slush, ice or snow is present on the taxiways or runway.

318
Q

When and how should you do the fan ice shedding procedure ?

A

During ground operations in icing conditions with OAT 1 C or less: - Accelerate to 50 % N1 for 10 s at intervals not greater than 1 h. - Perform the procedure just before takeoff and check engine parameters (vibration). - Advise ATC of the runup requirement when reporting ‘Ready’ for departure. - If a takeoff clearance has been received, advance thrust levers to takeoff thrust setting on completion of the ice shedding procedure.

319
Q

When resetting the rudder trim what indication is acceptable ?

A

After the reset, the flight crew may observe an indication of up to 0.6 ° (L or R) in the RUD TRIM position indication.

320
Q

When should you maintain the flaps retracted until the aircraft reaches the holding point of the takeoff runway.

A

If taxiing in icing conditions with precipitation (rain/snow) and taxiway contaminated.This is to prevent contamination of the slats/flaps mechanism.

321
Q

What lights should be switched on when entering or crossing a runway?

A

Strobe lights

322
Q

What precision is required for a Nav accuracy check to be positive ?

A

Check is positive (error ≤ 3 nm): FM position is reliable. ‐ Use ND (ARC or NAV) and managed lateral guidance. Check is negative (error > 3 nm):‐ Use raw data for navigation and monitor ‐ If there is a significant mismatch between the display and the real position, switch to ROSE VOR not to be misled by FM data- EGPWS mode off

323
Q

NPA approach, what are the recommended flying references ?

A

AUTOPILOT ON: ‐ Vertical managed modes: HDG-V/S associated with FD crossbars ‐ Vertical selected modes: TRK-FPA associated with FPDAUTOPILOT OFF:HDG-V/S or TRK-FPA as preferred

324
Q

Under what circumstances should you plan a stabilized approach ?

A

Under these circumstances, the flight crew may decide to reduce the speed down to VAPP landing configuration at the Final Descent Point:- Selected guidance- High glide path angle- Low altitude intermediate approach

325
Q

The APPR pushbutton shall not be pressed until:

A
  • Clearance for the approach has been received.- ILS is tuned and IDENTIFIED.- Raw data confirms correct sensing.- The aircraft is on an acceptable intercept heading.
326
Q

Procedure to discontinue an approach we have been cleared for when the aircraft is above the FCU altitude

A

At or Above FCU altitude:”Cancel” the approachDisarm the approachConfirm lateral and vertical modeSelect speed and adjustRestring the Flight Plan

327
Q

ProceduresWhat terrain seperation is provided by theMRA figures on Dragonair CFP?

A

1000’ above the Grid MORA(CAD requirement)

328
Q

On A330, what is the approach separation behind another heavy, behind an A380?

A

4NM, increased to 6 NM behind an A 380

329
Q

RNPWhat are the equipment required to operate in P-RNAV airspace ?

A
  • 1 RNAV system which means : • 1 FMGC • 1 MCDU• 1 GPS or 1 VOR and 1 DME for FM navigation update • 2 IRS • 1 FD in NAV mode‐ In addition: • On the PF side : PFD and ND must be operative.• On the PNF side : at least 1 of the 2 EFIS must be operative (to enable temporary display of ND information through the PFD/ND switch).GPS may be required for RNP-1 terminal procedures; 2 RNAV systems may be mandated by the procedure chart.
330
Q

When are navigation accuracy check required ?

A

‐ GPS PRIMARY LOST on the ND ‐ IRS only navigation ‐ LOW accuracy displayed on PROG page ‐ NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD displayed on MCDU

331
Q

When checking the MCDU F/PLN before doing an approach using FINAL APP mode, what is the acceptable tolerance on lateral and vertical profile between MCDU and Chart ?

A

‐ 0.1 degree between the MCDU and the charted final vertical path‐ 1 degree between the MCDU and the charted final lateral track for RNAV/GPS‐ 3 degrees between the MCDU and the charted final lateral track for Radio NAVAID

332
Q

When checking the MCDU F/PLN before doing an approach using NAV FPA mode, what is the acceptable tolerance on lateral and vertical profile between MCDU and Chart ?

A

• 1 degree between the MCDU and the charted final lateral track • 3 degrees between the MCDU and the charted final lateral track for Radio NAVAID

333
Q

In which cases a complete IRS alignment must be performed?

A

‐ Before the first flight of the day, ‐ Crew change, ‐ GPS not available and: . NAVAIDS coverage is poor on the route . Expected flight time is more than 3 h

334
Q

During departures and arrivals that do not follow published procedures, what terrain references must be used?

A
  • MRA (from the CFP)* Grid MORA (if not on flight planned track)* MSA* Minimum vectoring altitudes, when under radar control.
335
Q

What is the procedure for tripped CB in flight ?

A

In flight, do not reengage a circuit breaker (C/B) that has tripped by itself unless the Captain judges it necessary to do so for the safe continuation of the flight. This procedure should be adopted only as a last resort, and only one reengagement should be attempted.

336
Q

RNPWhat are the equipment required to operate in B-RNAV airspace ?

A
  • 1 RNAV system which means : • 1 FMGC • 1 MCDU• 1 VOR and 1 DME for FM navigation update • 1 IRS ‐ In addition: • On the PF side : PFD and ND must be operative.• On the PNF side : at least 1 of the 2 EFIS must be operative (to enable temporary display of ND information through the PFD/ND switch).
337
Q

With the A/C only supplied on batteries, which ECAM screen are powered ?How do you monitor the APU start process?

A

o Elec PowerEWD is supplied by AC ESS, it will be availableSD is supplied by AC1 which won’t be poweredo Monitoring the APU Start Press&hold the APU Button on the ECAM Control Panel (ECP)

338
Q

After landing If the ground spoiler don’t extend what should the PF do?

A

• Verify and confirm that all thrust levers are set to IDLE or REV detent• Set all reverser levers to REV MAX, and fully press the brake pedals as if ground spoilers don’t extend the autobrake is not activated.Note: If ground spoilers are not armed, ground spoilers extend at reverser thrust selection.

339
Q

What is the Minimum Eye Height over Threshold (MEHT) of a PAPI or VASI system suitable for the A330?

A

51 ftIf the PAPI/VASI MEHT is less than 51 ft, don’t follow its guidance below 200 ft.

340
Q

ERRONEOUS VERTICAL PROFILE DURING RNAV, LOC AND LOC B/C APPROACHES

A

Check the position of the MAP on the MCDU> RNAV APPROACHES (approach labelled RNV on MCDU):- MAP located at the runway threshold, FINAL APP can be used. - MAP not located at the Runway threshold, FPA must be used, disregard VDEV symbol, Crosscheck the final descent using altitude versus distance to the MAP.Approaches labelled as “GPS” on the MCDU can be flown in FINAL APP mode, regardless of the MAP position.> LOC, or LOC BACK COURSE (B/C) APPROACHES:- MAP located at runway threshold, VDEV symbol can be used to fly the vertical flight path in selected mode. - MAP located before runway threshold, disregard VDEV symbol, crosscheck final descent using altitude versus distance to MAP.

341
Q

A330 - IR FAILURE OR ATT FLAG ON PFD

A

All ADIRU operative before failure:NAV IR 1(2)(3) FAULT, or ATT flag displayed on CAPT (F/O) PFD: IR (affected) pb……………………………………………………………………OFF ADR (corresponding) pb………………………………………………………OFF IR (affected) MODE rotary selector………………………………………..OFFThe IR rotary selector is set to OFF in order to de-energize the ADIRU, the OFF light of the IR pb and ADR pb will go off.AIR DATA SWTG………………………………………………CAPT (F/O) ON 3ATT HDG SWTG………………………………………………CAPT (F/O) ON 31 ADIRU already disconnected before failure: NAV IR 1+2(1+3)(2+3) FAULT, or ATT flag displayed on CAPT (F/O) PFD IR (affected) pb……………………………………………………………………OFFADR (corresponding) pb……………………………………………………….OFFIR (affected) MODE rotary selector…………………………………………OFFCAUTION Setting the IR mode rotary selector to OFF is an irreversible action. Both PF and PNF must clearly identify the corresponding selector.

342
Q

ERRONEOUS RADIO ALTIMETER (RA) HEIGHT INDICATION

A

During ILS (or MLS, GLS) approach, in the event of an early THR IDLE and FLARE mode engagement: ‐ Go-Around (Thrust Levers set to TOGA then quickly to CLB)OR‐ Disconnect AP and FD and continue the landing using raw data or visual references

343
Q

AIR DATA/ATT FLAGS ON CAPTAIN PFD/ND UPON ELEC EMER CONFIG OR ENG ALL ENG FLAME OUT

A

if the following simultaneously occurs: ‐ The ECAM triggers the ELEC EMER CONF or ENG ALL ENG FLAME OUT warning‐ Air data/ATT red flags are displayed on Captain PFD/NDSTBY INST……………………………………………………………………………………………………USE AIR DATA SWTG…………………………………………………………………………………CAPT ON 3 ATT HDG SWTG…………………………………………………………………………………CAPT ON 3If Air data/ATT recovered from ADIRU 3: Apply ELEC EMER CONF or ENG ALL ENG FLAME OUT ECAM/QRH procedureIf Air data/ATT not recovered from ADIRU 3 The ADIRU 1 and 3 are lost

344
Q

NAV ADR 1+2+3 FAULT ECAM WARNING UNDUE ACTIVATION

A

DO NOT use the ECAM Refer to QRH/ABN-34 ADR 1 + 2 + 3 FAULTBUSS is not installed on the aircraft and this ECAM is erroneous.

345
Q

LOSS OF AP AND A/THR ASSOCIATED WITH ALTERNATE LAW REVERSIONIf AP and A/THR are automatically disconnected with flight controls reverting to alternate law

A

Do not engage the AP and the A/THR, Do not follow the FD orders ALL SPEED INDICATIONS……………………………………………X-CHECK If unreliable speed indication is suspected: UNRELIABLE SPEED INDIC/ADR …………………………………….APPLY If at least two ADR provide reliable speed indication and the aircraft is stabilised on the intended path: AP/FD and A/THR……………………………………………………..As required

346
Q

What minimum separation with terrain should be maintained throughout the flight?

A
  • 1 000 ft from obstacles or terrain up to 5,000 ft AMSL- 2,000 ft from obstacles or terrain higher than 5,000 ft AMSL.MOCA, in Magenta on the en route chart provides 1 500 ft / 2 000ft terrain separation.In airspace where track is well defined by 2 separate navaids, separation must be maintained from obstacles and terrain within10nm either side of track 10nm beyond checkpointsElsewhere separation must be maintained from obstacles and terrain within 20nm either side of track and 20nm beyond checkpoints.
347
Q

How should you correct altitudes in cold weather conditions?

A

Corrections to MSA:TEMPERATURE CORRECTION ISA-15 or above No correction< ISA -15°C +10% < ISA -30°C +20% < ISA -50°C +25% Corrections for altitudes at or below MSA:Aerodrome at or below 0°C, use table in Part A or QRH.

348
Q

For RNAV (GNSS) or GPS approaches, what is the meaning of the temperature limitation?

A

If the actual temperature is above the chart temperature limit: o Use managed FINAL APP mode to LNAV/VNAV DA or selected NAV-FPA to LNAV MDA. o Temperature corrections are not required. If the actual temperature is below the chart temperature limit: o The approach may be flown only to the LNAV MDA.o Temperature corrections are required, table in Part A or QRH.

349
Q

What are the precautions to avoid mountain waves and the associated turbulence ?

A

a. No flight through or close to rotor clouds adjacent to mountain ranges. b. Overfly mountains by at least - 5,000 ft for mountains up to 5,000 ft- The height of the mountain for higher mountainsc. When flying in an area in which mountain wave conditions are suspected, always be prepared for turbulence, even in clear air. d. Increase the safe altitude on routes within 20nm of terrain having a maximum elevation exceeding 2,000ft by at least the following increments to counteract wind effect: Elevation of Terrain Windspeed in Knots 0-30 31-50 51-70 over 70 2,000-8,000ft 500ft 1,000ft 1,500ft 2,000ft Above 8,000ft 1,000ft 1,500ft 2,000ft 2,500ft

350
Q

What are the lowest circling minima?

A

The minimum circle to land altitude and visibility for all Dragonair aircraft types is the highest of:- 1,000ft AAL with a required visibility of 4,600m- Chart published minima

351
Q

How does the Precision Approach Light system helps the crew ?

A

Precision Approach Lighting Systems provide guidance From 300m before the runway threshold to 900m into the runway.

352
Q

What is a Category X airport?

A

Category X airports are airports which may not be nominated as a destination or alternate on the ATS Flight Plan but are considered suitable for use if a non-scheduled landing is required for operational necessity.Crew members may operate to Category X airports on the basis of self-briefing from the appropriate charts, specifically noting the terrain hazards. Example Subic Bay

353
Q

What are the colors of airport taxiway lights?

A
  • Taxiway Centerline lights:Runway exits are marked with alternate green and yellow lights Taxiway centerline lights are green when clear of ILS sensitive area - Taxiway Edge lights:Blue
354
Q

At the planning stage, what are the weather and fuel requirements when the destination airport is isolated (no alternate within 1 hour 45 minutes flight time of the destination)?

A

a. Weather forecast from 30 minutes before to 2 hours after ETA:- Visibility and ceiling shall above Company Minima for Filing as an Alternate- Crosswind at or below the aircraft or crew operating limit. b. Fuel, Alternate and Reserve Fuel must be substituted by 2 h holding fuel, at normal cruise consumption overhead destination. c. CFP, a CP (both one engine inoperative and depressurised) and point of no return (one engine inoperative) will be provided. NOTE: Use of this policy requires authorisation from the Duty Operations Manager or Line Operations department.

355
Q

At what maximum distance from landing threshold is the ILS beam protected (LOC/GS)?

A

Localiser: - 25NM within 10° of LLZ course - 17NM within 35° of LLZ course Glidepath: - 10NM within 8° of RWY centreline

356
Q

What does the Alternate fuel account for?

A

ALTERNATE FUEL accounts for:i. 1 missed approach from minima at destinationii. The flight to an alternate airport, plus 5% contingencyiii. 1 approach and landing at the alternate airport Alternate Fuel is planned using Cost Index 0.

357
Q

What is the minimum acceptable Rescue and Fire Fighting (RFF) level for the A330 ?

A

Minimum RFF category for A330Departure and destination 9 (7) Takeoff Alternate Destination Alternate 7 Critical Point Alternate ETOPS Alternate 4 Figures in brackets may be used in the event of a temporary downgrade not exceeding 72 hours.

358
Q

At the planning stage, what weather minima applies to En route alternates others than the ones nominated on the CFP for depressurization, Engine Out and ETOPS?

A

1h before to 1h after the estimated time of arrival at the alternate, - Weather forecast at or above the published landing minima- Crosswind at or below the aircraft and crew limits

359
Q

When the destination weather forecast indicates Low Visibility Operations in use, what additional precautions must be taken ?

A

A destination alternate which permits Cat 1 operations should be selected to protect against aircraft or airport systems downgrades.It means NPA airport only not acceptable!

360
Q

What is the effect on operations of lightning warnings?

A

AMBER warning: Ramp activities continue as normal RED warning:- Transport:Passenger Terminal Building, transport continues normallyRemote stands, transport is suspended, If already at a remote stand crew remain on board the bus until red warning is cancelled. - Ramp handling:Cargo and baggage, loading/unloading is suspended. Passenger boarding/disembarkation, continues normally at the PTB but is suspended at a remote stand.Refueling, operations are suspended. Security staff, operations are suspended. - Pushback:Groundcrew disconnect their headsets and the ensuing engine start will be without ground support. Pushback is suspended, however if the pushback has already commenced it continues until completed.- Parking:The Preferential Stand Allocation System is suspended and aircraft are assigned in order of priority frontal stand then remote stands. When all stands are full, aircraft will hold on the taxiway. - Marshalling:Continues at the PTB but is suspended at remote stands. As chocks will not be inserted, a crew member must remain on board to monitor the brake pressure until ground crew contact is established. If APU is inoperative, leave the right-hand engine running.At a frontal stand, contact Apron Control on 121.775 to advise that the park brake is set, left engine is shutdown and the aircraft is ready for passenger disembarkation.

361
Q

At the planning stage, what weather minima shall be used for the destination alternate airport?

A

1h before to 1h after the intended time of arrival at the alternate, - Forecast visibility and cloud ceiling shall be at or above the Company specified “Minima for Filing as an Alternate”. - Crosswind shall be forecast to be at or below the aircraft or crew operating limit. Provided they are at or above the applicable landing minima, the following forecast weather conditions may be ignored: i. PROB of any value ii. TEMPO (changes expected to occur for periods less than 60 minutes) iii. INTER(changes expected to occur for periods less than 30 minutes) The “Minima for Filing as an Alternate” are calculated by Navigation Services Unit and shown on the CFP; they are the higher of Company calculated or, where published, State operating minima.

362
Q

At the planning stage, what are the weather minima for a Take off alternate airport?

A

At the time of intended use, - Weather conditions at the take-off alternate must be at or above the CAT 1 landing minima or the minima for the approach in use if no ILS available (visibility and ceiling required for a NPA)- Crosswind at or below the aircraft and crew limits

363
Q

At the planning stage, what are the weather requirements for CFP nominated En-route and ETOPS alternate airport?

A

En-Route Alternate airports nominated on the CFP in support of engine inoperative or depressurisation mandatory fuel and ETOPS Alternates, should have the following weather conditions:From 1h before to 1h after the ETA at the alternate- Weather conditions shall be at or above the Company specified Minima for Filing as an Alternate. - Crosswind at or below the aircraft and crew limits

364
Q

At the planning stage, what additional precautions must be taken if the destination airport weather is below landing minima, or no forecast is available?

A

2 destination alternate airports shall be selected Both destination alternate airports shall have the following requirements:a. The weather shall meet the criteria for filing as a destination alternate. b. Fuel shall be planned to permit diversion to the most distant of the 2 selected alternates. c. All destination alternates shall be specified on the ATS flight plan.

365
Q

At the planning stage, what are the weather minima for the destination airport?

A

At the time of intended use,- Weather conditions shall be at or above the published landing minima. The following criteria apply assessing the weather a. Following forecast visibilities (Ceiling must be above minima) may be ignored: i. PROB of any value ii. TEMPO (changes expected to occur for periods less than 60 minutes) iii. INTER* (changes expected to occur for periods less than 30 minutes) * Note: The term INTER is not used by all States. b. Visibility, when converted to an equivalent RVR, is at or above the minima for landing.LVO minima may be used if the aircraft is appropriately equipped, the crew qualified, and a LVO approach is available. c. Cloud ceiling shall be evaluated but it’s not a limiting factor for a precision approach. For a non precision approach, the cloud ceiling shall be at or above the appropriate MDH. d. Crosswind shall be evaluated in relation to aircraft and crew limits. e. Arrival may be planned during periods of forecast Light Freezing Rain (-FZRA) or Light Freezing Drizzle (-FZDZ).However, if the destination forecast (including PROB, TEMPO or INTER) for the relevant period indicates the presence of Moderate or Heavy Freezing Rain, Drizzle, then the nominated alternate shall not have a forecast (including PROB, TEMPO or INTER) of -FZRA, FZRA, +FZRA, -FZDZ, FZDZ, +FZDZ for the period from one hour before until one hour after the time of intended use.

366
Q

What is Reserve fuel?

A

Reserve Fuel is equal to 30 minutes holding at 1,500 ft based on aircraft’s planned landing weight at the alternate. In the absence of available data the A330 will use 2,600kg.Reserve Fuel is the company defined minimum fuel with which the aircraft must land.

367
Q

What is the Depressurization fuel?

A

Sufficient fuel must be carried at any point on the planned route to permit in case of loss of pressurization, failure of an engine or both: a. Continued flight to the nearest suitable ERAb. Hold at 1,500ft over that ERA for 30’c. Carry out 1 approach and landing. On any Dragonair route for which the route analysis shows that the above requirement is limiting, a Route Brief will be published to indicate the minimum Diversion Fuel Required along the planned route.

368
Q

What is Total Fuel?

A

Total fuel is the sum of: a. Fuel Required b. Recommended Extra Fuel

369
Q

What is the Operational halt procedure?

A

IOC will initiate the Operational Halt Procedure if :- The flight is on the ground preparing for takeoff- The loading variance exceeds the Maximum ZFW, breaks a structural limitation, or any other limit IOC shall immediately - Send the following ACARS message to the aircraft: “DO NOT TAKEOFF – LOADSHEET DATA ERROR”- Telephone the Departure Station or ATC to stop the takeoff until the data is verified and confirmed by a new Loadsheet.

370
Q

At what maximum distance the aircraft can fly from an alternate airport on a non ETOPS flight ?

A

Twin engined aircraft must remain within 60 minutes flying time of an adequate airport unless operating in accordance with Dragonair ETOPS policy.For these purposes, this is defined: A320 424nm A321 404nm A330 434nm

371
Q

What is the standard weight for checked in baggage?

A

There is no standard weight, the actual baggage weight is used

372
Q

What does Taxi Fuel account for?

A

Taxi Fuel accounts for a APU usage,b Engine start,c Taxi for departureA standard 500 kg Taxi Fuel figure is normally used for the A330. At certain airports where taxi time is above average a higher taxi fuel may be planned.

373
Q

What are the standard weights used for crews on the loadsheet?

A

Flight Crew and Cabin Crew 81kg (including 6kg Cabin bagage)

374
Q

What does Recommended Extra Fuel account for?

A

Recommended Extra Fuel is fuel additional to Fuel Required to cover - known or suspected weather avoidance requirements, - en-route air traffic constraints, - destination holding delays, - impact from NOTAMs - any condition that might cause increased fuel consumption On occasions where STA plus diversion time falls close to opening time of the preferred Destination Alternate, Recommended Extra Fuel may be planned to avoid the use of a more distant alternate. i. The sum of Contingency, Mandatory and Recommended Extra fuel is not less than 1500 kg on A330ii. The sum of Alternate, Mandatory and Recommended Extra Fuel is not less than Reserve Fuel, ensuring 1h fuel at destination. iii. Where there are known ATC restrictions or delays the reason to carry extra fuel will be stated in CFP special navigation notes.Where a Commander is very familiar with a particular route or flight he may reduce the amount of Recommended Extra Fuel based on his local knowledge and experience.

375
Q

What is Minimum Diversion Fuel?

A

Minimum diversion fuel is the sum of Alternate Fuel and Reserve Fuel. Where an amount of fuel is determined to be unusable, the Minimum Diversion Fuel entered in the FM shall be increased by an amount equal to the amount of unusable fuel.

376
Q

What are the weather and fuel requirements for Re-clearance Operations In-flight?

A

The following criteria must be met until the revised destination has been communicated to ATC:a. Weather shall be at or above Destination, published landing minimaAlternate, minima for Filing as an Alternateb. Fuel Required is the sum ofTrip Fuel Contingency Fuel (5% from overhead or abeam the last ERA)Diversion Fuel.

377
Q

What does Mandatory fuel account for?

A

On certain sectors an amount of additional fuel must be carried to support the following requirement: a. Sufficient fuel must be available, at all times during the flight, to allow the flight to be continued to the nearest suitable airport, hold for 30 minutes at 1,500ft and carry out an approach and landing. b. Loss of pressurisation and the failure of one engine must be considered. Depressurisation with all engines operating is normally the most fuel critical scenario.

378
Q

What does Contingency fuel account for?

A

Contingency Fuel allows for errors in forecast winds or temperatures, restrictions on altitude, minor route changes and extended taxi times. On most flights Contingency Fuel is planned as 5% of the Trip Fuel from departure to destination, with a minimum of 300 kg for the A330. The minimum Contingency fuel is 5% of the Trip Fuel from overhead or abeam the last suitable en-route airport (ERA) to destination.

379
Q

What documents must be carried on board for each flight ?

A

Documents which must be carried to meet the requirements of the AN(HK)O: a. Radio Station Licence. b. Certificate of Airworthiness. c. Certificate of Maintenance Review. d. Certificate of Registration. e. Maintenance Log. f. Copy of the Load Sheet.g. Flight Crew Licences (by individual Crew members). h. Operations Manual

380
Q

What is the Centralized Load Control time frame ?

A

ETD - 6 hours Estimated ZFW issued to Flight Dispatch for production of CFPETD - 60 mins Traffic staff verbally inform the Flight Crew of the latest ZFW ETD - 30 mins Final ZFW sent via ACARS to the aircraft printer by CLC ETD - 25 mins Final Fuel Figures sent to CLC via ACARS by the Flight Crew ETD - 15 mins Loadsheet sent via ACARS to aircraft printer by CLCETD Aircraft off-blocks (with Loadsheet acknowledged / signed

381
Q

What is the maximum fuel temperature for JET A and JET A1 fuel?

A

55 degrees

382
Q

With what kind of ice contamination is it acceptable to take off without de-icing the aircraft?

A

Take-off is permissible with:- light coatings of frost (white color) up to 1/8in (3mm) in thickness on lower wing surfaces due to cold fuel.- Thin hoar frost on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear. (white deposit of fine crystalline texture)CAUTION: Lower wing surface ice ridges of any size are not acceptable, all leading edge devices, all control surfaces, and upper wing surfaces must be free of ice and snow

383
Q

During cockpit preparation what shall be done if the aircraft carries unusable fuel due to technical problem?

A

After refuelling, Flight Crew shall:- Note usable fuel quantity in each tank and send it through the ACARS Fuel Distribution page. - Send the location and quantity of unusable fuel to OPS (Attention CLC) via ACARS free text, or via the Traffic Officer. If the ACARS is unavailable, a “Non-Standard Fuel Order Confirmation Sheet” form located in the Flight Deck Documents wallet must be completed and passed to the Traffic Officer for transmission to CLC.

384
Q

During the cockpit preparation what shall you do if you have a non standard fuel distribution after refueling?

A

When non-standard fuel distribution occurs, the Flight Crew shall complete and send the details using the ACARS Fuel Distribution page. If the ACARS is unavailable, a “Non-Standard Fuel Order Confirmation Sheet” in the Flight Deck Documents wallet shall be completed and passed to the Traffic Officer at the departure airport for transmission to CLC.

385
Q

How should Livestock be carried?

A

On A320/A321 aircraft, Livestock other than cold-blooded animals (AVC) and live fish (AVP/PES), shall not be carried as cargo. On A330 The bulk cargo hold (Hold 5) is designed for transport of livestock as it is equipped with a ventilation system.Live animals should be placed in suitable cages or pet kennels.The animal containers and crates should be tied down in order to be secured against any movement at take-off, landing and during flight.

386
Q

What is the hot cabin procedure?

A

Passenger boarding should not commence until a cabin temperature of 28°C or below is achieved. HAECO is responsible for the implementation of the Hot Cabin procedure.

387
Q

What thrust setting is used to compute the Top of Climb waypoint on the CFP?

A

Derate 1 thrust increasing to climb thrust when predicted rate of climb reduces to 500 ft/mn.

388
Q

On the CFP what is the maximum correction of Trip Fuel that you can accept before you have to amend the Trip Fuel ?

A

When the correction to the TRIP FUEL exceeds 300 kg the Trip Fuel should be amended.

389
Q

2 different Holdover Time values are given in the tables, what do they correspond to?

A

The lower HOT value in a cell which contains a range of times presents information for moderate precipitation conditions.The higher HOT value is representative of fluid performance for light precipitation conditions.

390
Q

What is the definition of an isolated airport?

A

An isolated destination airport is defined as a destination airport where an alternate airport is not available within 1 hour 45 minutes flight time from the destination.

391
Q

What is the door opening policy ?

A

Aircraft doors shall only be opened by persons who are trained and competent to do so. In NORMAL circumstances aircraft doors shall be opened from the outside of the aircraft. Doors are allowed to be opened from inside the aircraft under ABNORMAL or EMERGENCY conditions.

392
Q

In what case shoud you raise an ASR after a flight in RVSM airspace?

A

Flight deviates by 300 ft or more from a cleared flight levelWake Turbulence encountered ASR report is to be completed and submitted to the Dragonair Corporate Safety & Quality Department. Line Ops should also be notified via CAR.

393
Q

What type of Deicing fluid is approved by Dragonair?

A

Type I,II and IV.Type III fluids are not approved for use on Dragonair aircraft.

394
Q

Following a diversion if ground staff are not available to prepare a loadsheet what can the crew do?

A

Contact CLC and fill in a “No Change to Traffic Load” form stored in the Spare Documents Wallet. The form will only be required if a new ACARS/Computer Loadsheet cannot be obtained. This can occur during a major disruption (e.g. severe weather affecting Hong Kong) when multiple aircraft are diverting and Load Control is unable to support the diverted flights. Flight Crew shall be familiar with the completion of the form. Although the No Change Loadsheet is normally completed by the Flight Crew, Dragonair approved Loadsheet Officers can complete the form if requested to do so by the Commander/PIC.

395
Q

What documents must be left on ground for each departure?

A

The following documents are to be left to the handling agent, station representative or qualified engineer: a. Load Sheet signed by the Commander. b. Trim Sheet, if not using computer Loadsheet. c. Dangerous Goods documentation including a copy of the NOTOC. d. Station Copy page of the Maintenance Log signed by the Commander.

396
Q

What colors are the De/anti-icing fluids ?

A

Type I : OrangeType II : Colourless, or pale strawType III : Light yellowType IV : Emerald green

397
Q

What is the door closing policy?

A

Aircraft doors may be closed only by suitably trained personnel. When an aircraft is departing for a flight, the doors shall be closed from inside the aircraft by the cabin crew. Airport staff may assist cabin crew to close aircraft doors by pushing on the physical structure of the door but under no circumstances should they interfere or participate in the locking process. Once closed, doors shall not be re-opened without the Captain’s approval.

398
Q

if you detect an error in the Navigation Data Base what should you do ?

A

All errors and omissions in the Navigation Data Base must be reported to Operations by entering the details on the CAR for the attention of Line Operations

399
Q

What color of fuel is acceptable for uplift ?

A

Fuel shall be bright, clear and coloured within the range “White Water to Light Amber or Straw colour”. Fuels which are coloured Blue, Red or Green are not to be uplifted.

400
Q

What are the restrictions to uplift defueled fuel?

A

Defuelled fuel may be uplifted if: 1. It was defuelled from a CX / AHK / KA aircraft. 2. It has not been held in a tanker for longer than 24 hours. 3. A normal water contamination check is made. 4. Wide-cut fuel contains an anti-static additive. Once fuel is returned to the fuel farm it is considered contaminated and must not be reloaded.

401
Q

If the precipitations are intermittent do you have to apply the holdover time?

A

Yes, after the anti-icing HOT clock has been started, it must not be stopped. HOT credit cannot be given due to the fact that the precipitation has temporarily stopped falling.As precipitation falls on an aircraft that has been anti-iced, the fluid is being diluted. the more diluted the fluid becomes, the more readily it flows off the aircraft, and the higher the freezing point becomes. Even if the precipitation stops falling, the diluted fluid will continue to flow off the aircraft due to gravity. There is no practical way to determine how much residual anti-icing fluid is on the wing under these circumstances.

402
Q

When and how do you use the corrections to trip fuel (CORR LNDG and CORR RAMP) on the CFP?

A

These figures are provided to allow the TRIP FUEL to be adjusted for changes in Take-off weight, whatever the reason for that change. The CORR LNDG figure should be used when the TOTAL FUEL figure is adjusted as it contains a fuel allowance required to carry that extra fuel. The CORR RAMP figure should be used if the total fuel remains the same and the crew decides to use fuel that is already on board, as REC EXTRA or CONT FUEL.

403
Q

What’s the freezing point of a de/anti-icing fluid?

A

The freezing point of a fluid is function of the glycol concentration, it is assessed in the field; A temperature buffer is then applied to cater for absorption of precipitation, for errors in application, and for the influence of variations in the weather conditions.Lowest Operational Use Temperature for a given fluid is the higher of:i. The lowest temperature at which the fluid meets the aerodynamic acceptance test for a given aircraft type, orii. The freezing point of the fluid plus its freezing point buffer (10°C for a Type I fluid, and 7°C for a Type II, III, or IV fluid).

404
Q

what is the highest CI that can be used ?

A

Due to the significant fuel penalty associated with high speed cruise flight, the use of a CI greater than CI-150 should only be used to guarantee an arrival before a published Airport Curfew, or when Crew duty hours are critical.

405
Q

What actions must be taken if a spillage of fuel occurs during refuel?

A

If a spillage of fuel is detected, the Commander must take the following actions: 1. Inform the refueller and stop refuelling 2. Inform the Ground Engineer, airport authorities and fire services3. If passenger boarding has commenced, decide whether if it is necessary to offload passengers already on the aircraft. 4. If passenger boarding is allowed to continue, boarding passengers must be kept as far as possible from the fuel spillage.

406
Q

On what part of the aircraft should the de/anti-icing procedure start?

A

The aircraft wings must be sprayed first, therefore the wings become the most critical surface and if they are clean when a Pre Take off Inspection is required, it can be assumed that the rest of the aircraft is clean.De/anti-icing fluids are applied close to the skin of the aircraft to minimise heat loss.

407
Q

when the Holdover time is expired can you do another anti ice application on the aircraft?

A

NO, if an aircraft has to be re-protected prior to flight then external surfaces must be de-iced first with hot mixed fluid before a further application of anti-ice fluid is made.

408
Q

Do you have to ask the engineer to fill in the Tech log after the de/anti-icing procedure?

A

When aircraft have been de/anti-iced, Engineering should complete the relevant de/anti-icing field in the Aircraft Maintenance Logbook. However, along with refueling and oil quantity columns, this is not part of the Airworthiness Certificate of Release. As such, the Aircraft Commander is approved to complete the de/anti-icing field in the absence of a qualified engineer on the flight deck, saving the need to re-open aircraft doors after the de/anti-icing procedure.

409
Q

In case of delays due to technical reasons should you start boarding?

A

Board passengers if the technical delay is estimated by Maintenance Control or the licenced engineer in charge of the rectification to be less than 30 minutes.If the rectification is likely to take more than 30 minutes, then the passengers should be boarded when it is estimated to be within 30 minutes of completion.The exceptions to this will be if an engine run is required at higher than idle power, or if the Flight Deck crew have been denied access to the cockpit for pre-flight preparation.

410
Q

What are the restrictions for carrying out an engine ground run with passengers on board?

A

If the ground engineer carries out the engine run, the Captain must be in a control seat. The Captain remains fully responsible for the safety of the passengers on board and for ordering an emergency evacuation if required. He must monitor the run until completion and all other duties such as flight deck preparation should be deferred.

411
Q

Can you Take off or Land when a Microburst alert is issued?

A

Dragonair aircraft receiving a Microburst alert are to delay take off or “go around” as appropriate

412
Q

Which visual inspection should be done before take off if the aircraft has been anti-iced ?

A
  • No inspection required until the lower (more limiting) time in the HOT cell has been exceeded.- Pre-take-off Contamination Inspection shall be completed if the elapsed time is within the range of time given in the HOT cell for the conditions present.- Should the higher (less limiting) time in the HOT cell be exceeded, the only option available to allow take-off is a Pre Take-off Contamination Check which must be conducted externally by Ground Crew. If it is not possible to conduct this check, or it is not possible to take-off within 5 minutes of conducting the check, the aircraft must return for de/anti-icing.
413
Q

If ATC has reported that the aircraft position was inaccurate what should the cew do after landing?

A

Whenever ATC notifies that the aircraft position is in error, the Captain shall report the notification with all relevant details by Air Safety Report (ASR).

414
Q

What are the restrictions on flights in Schedule 8 navigation area?

A

It is prohibited to operate a flight of over 500nm through any part of a Schedule 8 Navigation Area unless article 18(4) of the AN(HK)O is complied with, procedure FCOM/PRO-SPO-52 :Applicable route: HKG – XIY – HKGThe following equipment shall be serviceable: 2 FMS. 2 GPS or 2 MMR (as installed).2 DME. 2 VOR. 1 ADF (Two ADF for any route with NDB only segments). 1 Weather radarIf the navigation equipment specified above becomes unserviceable to the extent that it affects navigation accuracy, the Commander is to adopt a course of action that will ensure the aircraft is navigated to an area where normal navigation can be resumed as expeditiously as possible.In practice this may include continuing on the flight planned route provided ATC can confirm appropriate navigation by radar.

415
Q

Can you fly VFR or in Uncontrolled airspace?

A

No, All commercial flights are to be conducted under an IFR Flight Plan.Flights into and out of uncontrolled airspace and airports are generally prohibited. However, such flights may be conducted in order to complete a charter flight.It should only be done after an appraisal showing that the flight can be safely operated and approval of the General Manager Operations

416
Q

Can you select a takeoff alternate airport that only has a GPS approach?

A

No, where a takeoff alternate is required at least one non-GPS approach must be available.

417
Q

What are the fuel requirements in flight?

A

Continuous assessment of fuel on board ensures that there is sufficient fuel available to:a. Proceed from present position to destination.b. Make an approach to land.c. Divert to an alternate airport, with 5% Contingency Fuel.d. Hold for 30 minutes at 1,500ft and carry out an approach and landing.

418
Q

You are doing an ILS approach below 1000 ft the RVR reduces below the minimus what’s your decision?

A

Continue the approach and land if visual

419
Q

Can you operate with an inoperative TCAS?

A

Operating with an inoperative TCAS is permitted (including RVSM Airspace) provided it is completed in accordance with the applicable MEL.The TCAS must be serviceable ex-HKG; At Outports it may be inoperative subject to Time and Sector constraints detailed in the MEL.TCAS is required to operate in Chinese RVSM airspace

420
Q

What are the criteria for In Flight reduction of normal fuel?

A

a. En-route and Prior To Descent For Destination Airporti. The airport has two independent runways suitable for landing i.e. not crossing or reciprocal.ii. The actual and forecast weather for the ETA at the destination airport indicate weather conditions at or above the Non-Precision Alternate Planning minima and the crosswind is within aircraft limits.iii. There are no known or probable ATC delays.iv. Fuel remaining is sufficient to continue to destination, plus 5% contingency fuel from overhead or abeam the last suitable en-route airport, plus 30 minutes holding at 1,500ft and carry out an approach and landing.b. After Commencing DescentIf a delay or unforeseen situation develops which would result in the aircraft landing with less than Minimum Diversion Fuel, the flight may continue to the destination airport provided that the fuel remaining on landing will be at least equal to Reserve Fuel.The Commander must consider all relevant factors with particular reference to the reason for the delay, weather deterioration, and runway availability at the destination and alternate before electing to continue rather than diverting to the alternate.

421
Q

What are the standard aircraft separation used in HKG for arrivals?

A

Hong Kong ATC normally provide separation of 4NM for a “HEAVY” aircraft following another “HEAVY” aircraft5NM for a “MEDIUM” aircraft following a “HEAVY” aircraft.Following an A380, separation increases to 6NM / 7NM respectively.

422
Q

What calls shoud be made to ATC to advise of a minimum fuel condition?

A
  • “MINIMUM FUEL” when having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the Commander/PIC calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned final Reserve Fuel.- “MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL”, when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned final Reserve Fuel
423
Q

What is the sterile flight deck procedure?

A

The procedure commences from engine start to Cruise Altitude (or approximately 30min after take off), and from the “30min to landing” call until the aircraft is parked.The Flight Crew shall only be disturbed for urgent operational issues and access to the Flight Deck is not permitted unless initiated by the Flight Crew.

424
Q

How can you contact the Duty Operations Manager (DOM)?

A

The Duty Operations Manager (DOM) is available at any time for advice on operational and technical matters. All communications between the Commander and the DOM will be coordinated through IOC.

425
Q

Can a pilot assess RVR for take off?

A

When RVR is not reported, the Commander may assess the RVR by noting the number of runway lights visible from the aircraft (ICAO standard spacing for runway edge lighting is 60m).

426
Q

If multiple RVR are reported for take off which one are mandatory?

A

The Commander may not commence a take-off when the RVR, or cloud ceiling where required, is below the minima specified for take-off.If multiple RVRs are reported, all reported RVRs must be at or above the minima.

427
Q

what minimum visual reference are needed at the MDA for a non precision approach?

A

With lighting, at least seven consecutive lights which may be approach lights, runway lights, or a combination of both.Without lighting, Runway threshold and touchdown zone

428
Q

If you want to use LVO take off minima shown in parentheses on the port page, what do you have to check?

A

If lower state or Dragonair LVO take-off minima have been approved, these figures will be shown in parentheses. If take-off is predicated on these lower minima, all RVR readings (touchdown, mid point and stop end) must be available and at or above this minima.

429
Q

What is the minimum altitude to initiate a turn after take off ?

A

Unless stated on the Port Page, the minimum altitude for initating a turn after take-off is 400ft AAL

430
Q

What criteria must be checked before accepting a change of destination in flight ?

A

The following criteria must be met until the planning exercise is complete and the revised destination has been communicated to ATC. 1. The destination airport weather meets the criteria specified in flight planning minima to be used for a Destination Airport. 2. An alternate airport must be available where the weather at that airport meets the criteria specified in flight planning minima to be used for an Alternate Airport. 3. Fuel is sufficient to continue to destination, plus 5% contingency fuel from a point overhead or abeam the last suitable en-route airport, plus Minimum Diversion Fuel.

431
Q

What are the weather conditions required to proceed for a visual approach?

A

The PF may commence a visual approach provided the following conditions can be maintained throughout the approach:a. Visual contact with the landing runway environment (runway threshold, approach lighting, or other markings identifiable with the runway)b. A visibility along the intended flight path not less than 5km.NOTE: When a thin layer of ground fog or mist is present at an airport in otherwise good visibility conditions, the minimum RVR for a visual approach must be 800 metres, or the visibility required for a non precision approach to the runway of intended use, whichever is greater, regardless of the approach lighting or the time of day.

432
Q

What’s the rule for outbound timing in a hold?

A

At or below 14,000ft AMSL - 1 minute Above 14,000ft AMSL - 1½ minutes

433
Q

You are doing an ILS approach passing 4000 ft the RVR reduces below the minimus what’s your decision ?

A

Continue to 1000 ft and go around at 1000 ft if RVR has not increased above minimas

434
Q

For a CAT 1 approach what is the minimum value of Midpoint RVR ?

A

In the context of CAT 1 approaches, the Midpoint RVR is generally not reported. When the Midpoint RVR is reported by ATC the minimum Midpoint RVR value is 200 metres (150 metres for autoland)

435
Q

What minimum visual reference are needed at the DA for a precision approach?

A

Lighting available, sufficient lights of the approach and/or runway lighting system and 1 row of crossbar lights (or barrettes) visible to ensure that the desired flight path can be maintained using visual reference only.No lighting, Runway threshold and touchdown zone must be visible.

436
Q

What minimum visual reference are needed at the MDA for a Circle to Land approach?

A

Continuous sight of ground features to ensure that aircraft position is maintained within the visual manoeuvring (circling) area and that the aircraft can be positioned on the approach for the runway in use.

437
Q

In order to assess the weather for a flight what is the definition of dispatch ?

A

Dispatch is defined as the time parking brake is released prior to commencing pushback or taxi.

438
Q

What is the Policy for headset use?

A

Headsets must be used by the operating crew during periods of high cockpit workload and at all times below 15,000ft or, where higher, the transition level.

439
Q

You are below 1000 ft, an aircraft or aerodrome failure necessitates a reversion to a degraded approach capability, can you continue to the DA/MDA?

A

If an aircraft or airport systems failure necessitates a reversion to a degraded approach category, the approach may not commence (i.e. descend below 1,000ft AAL), or continue if already below 1,000ft AAL, unless the RVRs reported are at or above the minima for the degraded approach category.

440
Q

At what weather conditions should you do an autoland if the airport is approved?

A

visibility less than 1,500m or cloudbase below 300ft An autoland is strongly recommended when the ports are approved for autoland operations

441
Q

What PA message must be made in case of moderate to severe turbulence?

A

“Please note that the seatbelt signs are switched on, Cabin Crew please be seated”

442
Q

Where can you find the correction on landing minima for aerodrome Equipment failures ?

A

OPS PART A Chapter 8 Flight Procedures

443
Q

what are the minimum and maximum Glide path angles for autoland?

A

Glide Path AngleThe minimum ILS Glide Path angle is 2.5°.The maximum ILS Glide Path angle is 3.25°.

444
Q

What is a standard emergency call?

A

The two states of Emergency are classified :Distress “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY”A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance. Urgency “PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN”A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of some person on board or within sight but which does not require immediate assistance. The emergency message should contain the following information:- Name of station addressed (when appropriate and time and circumstances permit)- Callsign- Type of Aircraft- Nature of the Emergency- Intentions- Present or last known position, Flt Level/altitude and heading- Any other useful information e.g. endurance remaining, number of people on board etcOnce communication has been established, the flight‟s callsign should be prefixed with a single “MAYDAY” or “PAN” as appropriate, e.g. “MAYDAY Dragon 810”

445
Q

What is a precautionary landing?

A

A Precautionary Landing is executed when there has been an abnormal or emergency occurrence with the aircraft and in the commander’s opinion an emergency evacuation is not anticipated (e.g. engine failure).

446
Q

What are Low Visibility Procedures ?

A

Low Visibility Procedures (LVP) are ICAO requirements imposed on airport authorities for the conduct of AWO.They are defined as procedures applied at an airport for the purpose of ensuring safe operation during approaches below Standard Category 1 and during LVTO. Note: ICAO requires LVP to be in force for all take-offs below 550m RVR, not only LVTO (400m).

447
Q

What are the minimum and maximum Threshold Crossing Heights for autoland ?

A

Threshold Crossing Height (TCH).The minimum Threshold Crossing Height is 40ft.The maximum Threshold Crossing Height is 60ft.

448
Q

If the Pan call is not recognized, what can you say to ATC?

A

Some countries may not recognise the term “Pan Pan” as an urgency message. In situations where a “Mayday” call is considered inappropriate and a “Pan” call is not achieving the desired response from ATC then the phrase “We are declaring an emergency” should be used.

449
Q

If the aircraft dispatches with an inoperative PA, how do you communicate the commands to the cabin ?

A

a. The Seatbelt sign will be cycled once as a turbulence alert b. Use the Cabin Interphone to convey all commands to the cabin. The crew member who answers the call will then pass the information to the other Cabin Crew. This will cover all events including “Evacuate”, “Attention! Cabin Crew at Stations”, “Cabin Crew Resume Duties” etc.c. Switch the seatbelts sign Off and On six or more times for ordering the “brace” position. If possible this should be done 30 seconds before impact.

450
Q

Can you reset a circuit breaker on a remote panel or in the avionics bay ?

A

Crew members are not permitted to reset or cycle any circuit breaker located on a remote panel or in the Avionics Bay without specific authorisation from the Duty Operations Manager (DOM). The DOM should be contacted through IOC and will conduct a risk assessment prior to granting such authority. An authorisation to enter the Avionics Bay will only be granted to a crewmember qualified on the aircraft type and where that crewmember is additional to the minimum operational cockpit crew. An ASR must be submitted at any time there is cause for a crewmember to enter the Avionics Bay during flight.

451
Q

What is the Policy for mobile phone use on the flight deck ?

A

Mobile phones are not authorised for use by Flight Crew and Jumpseat passengers whilst the aircraft is taxiing for departure or after landing until parked at the arrival gate. Mobile phones shall not be used during any crew briefing.The Commander/PIC shall ensure all Flight Crew and Jumpseat passengers mobile phones are turned OFF and properly stowed before leaving the parking gate to minimize distraction during critical phases of flight.

452
Q

What should you do to ask the Ground Engineer to return to the aircraft after headset disconnection?

A

Flash the runway turn off lights twice.The Ground Engineer will then return to the aircraft and re-establish communications with the Cockpit.

453
Q

What is the rule for airport to report RVR values?

A

Touchdown, Mid-point and Roll-out (Stop End) RVR readings shall be passed to aircraft when they are at or below 800m (depend on regulatory authority). RVR values are reported in 50m increments at a delay of less than 30s Below 400 m, 25 m increments with a delay not exceeding 15 s.

454
Q

In which circumstances the “ATTENTION! CABIN CREW AT STATIONS!” call will be made?

A

At 2000ft AAL prior to an Emergency LandingDuring a Rejected Take-OffOn ground If the Cabin Crew are not seated and an emergency or abnormal situation requires the crew to immediately return to their seats.This alert level should be cancelled, when appropriate, using the phrase“CABIN CREW RESUME DUTIES”

455
Q

What are the company callsigns on 131.75?

A

“Cathay Ops”, IOC Responsible for the overall monitoring of company operations.“Dragon Dispatch”, Flight Dispatch Responsible for Flight Dispatch related paperwork.“Cathay Engineering”, CX Engineering. Responsible for technical support.”Dragon Hong Kong”, HKIA Hub Station Control. Responsible for gate allocation, crew bus

456
Q

In flight, prior to the ETOPS Entry Point, what is the weather requirement at ETOPS enroute Alternates?

A

The weather at the nominated ERA(s) must remain above landing minima.

457
Q

When contacting the company using ACARS free text, messages requiring priority attention what prefixes should be used?

A

OPS For operational issues.ENG For engineering messages.HUB For gate allocation, crew bus requests, etc.MED For medical advice (MEDLINK).

458
Q

Can you reset a tripped circuit breaker in the cockpit?

A

In-flight A tripped circuit breaker must not be reset in-flight unless the procedure is clearly defined in the QRH. On the ground A tripped circuit breaker must not be reset unless the action is co-ordinated with maintenance personnel and the cause of the circuit breaker tripping has been identified.

459
Q

What are Low Visibility Operations?

A

Low Visibility Operations (LVO) are ICAO requirements imposed on Operators for the conduct of AWO.They are defined as: a. take-off (referred to as Low Visibility Take-off (LVTO)) with an RVR less than 400m. b. landing with an RVR less than 550m.

460
Q

What is the definition of cloud ceiling?

A

Cloud ceiling is defined as more than half the sky covered by cloud. The meteorological designations, BKN and OVC, both constitute cloud ceiling.

461
Q

If a suspicious object is found on board, what should be done?

A

The guidance given by the Operations Manual in the case where a suspicious object(s) has been found during flight is to “Use all airport facilities to disembark without delay.” Bomb On Board QRH can be referred to if sufficient time

462
Q

For Cat 2 and Cat 3 approaches which RVR are controlling?

A

CAT 2 and 3A approaches:Touchdown RVR (TDZ) and Midpoint RVR (MID) are controlling and shall be at or above published minima.Rollout (Stop End) RVR (RO) is advisory and shall be considered by the Commander/PIC if relevant.If MID RVR is temporarily unserviceable, RO RVR is controlling.CAT 3B (No DH) approaches:Touchdown RVR (TDZ), Midpoint RVR (MID) and Rollout (Stop End) RVR (RO) are controlling and shall be at or above published minima.If 1 transmissometer is temporarily inoperative, operations may continue using the 2 remaining transmissiometers.

463
Q

What is ETOPS?

A

Operations of a twin engined aircraft conducted over a route that contains a point further than 60 minutes flying time in still air, at the specified one engine inoperative cruising speed, from an adequate airport.

464
Q

What is the Critical Fuel point on an ETOPS flight?

A

The Critical Fuel Point is the point on the aircraft route that is most critical with regard to ETOPS fuel requirements. It is normally, but not always, the last enroute Equitime Point.

465
Q

Can you do a Cat 3 approach with Autothrust OFF?

A

No, for approaches to CAT 3A/3B minima, use of Automatic thrust control system in the approach mode is mandatory.

466
Q

What is the rule time for ETOPS operations?

A

Rule Time is the maximum still air diversion time which may be planned for a flight from an Adequate airport.The approved times for the aircraft’s most limiting ETOPS significant system and most limiting cargo fire suppression capability are considered when permitted Rule Times are determined and authorised.The Rule Time is currently 120 minutes.

467
Q

What maximum distance from Enroute Alternate can you fly on ETOPS procedures?

A

A Rule Time of 120 Minutes, 853nm

468
Q

What is the Critical Fuel scenario for an ETOPS flight ?

A

The most critical fuel scenario of either engine-inoperative or all engines operating and loss of pressurization are assessed based on the following scenarios occurring at the Critical Point: a. Immediate descent: i. all engines operating with pressurisation failure, immediate descent at MMO/VMO to 10,000ft and then cruise at LRC.ii. one engine failure with pressurisation failure, immediate descent at MMO/VMO to 10,000ft and then cruise at VMOiii. one engine failure normal pressurization, descend at MMO/VMO to the engine inoperative stabilising altitude and then cruise at VMO.

469
Q

What is the Fuel Policy for ETOPS flights?

A

Normal fuel policy applies, with the following exceptions: Sufficient fuel shall be carried to permit the loss of pressurisation or an engine failure, or both, at any point on the intended route and predicated on the following: a. the flight shall be continued to the nearest ERA for landing; b. hold at 1,500ft over the nearest ERA for 15 minutes; and, c. initiate an approach, followed by a missed approach, then continue to a normal approach and landing.

470
Q

What speed is used to compute the 60 and 120 minutes distances for ETOPS flights?

A

VMO/MMO

471
Q

What is the minimum cruise time to perform an ETOPS verification flight on a non ETOPS flight?

A

The verification process on a non ETOPS sector only requires the flight duration to be long enough to establish that the system(s) requiring verification is/are now fully operable. There is no specified minimum flight time requirement.

472
Q

If an ETOPS verification flight is done on the initial segment of an ETOPS flight prior to the aircraft entering the ETOPS segment of the route, how long should be that segment?

A

The initial segment of the flight prior to the ETOPS entry point must be a minimum of 90 minutes after departure, thereby permitting sufficient time for the crew to evaluate the serviceability of the aircraft system(s) which required the verification flight.

473
Q

What color are permanent circuit breaker collars ?

A

White

474
Q

What are the limitations for an APU check in flight required for ETOPS operations?

A

The start attempt requires a “sector time” greater than 3 hours, not 3 hours above FL 300. There is no requirement to record start parameters, just the number of start attempts.

475
Q

What type of ADD are listed in the documents given by dispatch HK?

A

For flights departing Hong Kong, a paper copy of the PADD status is provided at dispatch using the “Performance Acceptable Deferred Defect Report”. This report reflects the PADD status in Ultramain; as there can be a delay between the engineers raising or clearing a PADD and then updating Ultramain, there may be differences between the PADD Report and the actual aircraft status. This report is specific to PADDs only, SADD are not included.

476
Q

If a defect occurs after doors are closed do you have to consult engineering?

A

No, unless the defect requires maintenance action.It is within the authority of the Commander to accept a defect without consulting a ground engineer after the doors are closed, provided the defect does not require a maintenance procedure (m) and is covered in the MEL.

477
Q

If a failure occurs during the taxi phase before the start of the takeoff roll what should you do?

A

If a failure occurs during the taxi phase before the start of the takeoff roll, any decision to continue the flight shall be subject to pilot judgement and good airmanship. The applicable ECAM/FCOM procedure shall be actioned and the Commander should refer to the MEL before any decision to continue the flight is taken.

478
Q

If maintenance work has been performed on an aircraft at a line station where no appropriately licensed engineer is available to sign the CRS can you dispatch?

A

Yes, the commander may exercise his discretion to fly to a station where the CRS can be issued. This would constitute an aircraft dispatch under Article 11(1) of the AN(HK)O.

479
Q

If the aircraft is dispatched Under temporary autorisation (temporarily authorise an engineer to issue a CRS when there is no appropriately qualified engineer available) what should the captain write in the AML ?

A
  1. At the departure station, the AML shall be completed as follows (Refer to Part A 8.6.1.26):- The Commander will write details of the defect.- The Engineer will complete the “action taken‟ section including references to relevant technical documentation e.g. AMM reference and complete the CRS with the CX Temporary Authorisation.2. Upon arrival at Hong Kong, or a Manned station, the Commander will write the following log entry in the defect column: “Aircraft dispatched under Temporary Authorisation. Refer to LP xx ITEM x (description of defect and previous action taken)”, (Where xx is the AML Log Page number and x is Item number).
480
Q

What color are temporary circuit breaker collars?

A

Red

481
Q

what is a Certificate of Release to Service ?

A

Following any maintenance on an aircraft it is necessary to have a Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) in force before the aircraft is allowed to fly.A CRS can only be issued by an appropriately licensed engineer. Aircraft defects are listed in the left hand column of the AML and the maintenance action taken is detailed in the adjacent column.The far right column is then completed with an authorised signature. This signature constitutes a Certificate of Release to Service.

482
Q

For an aircraft defect or un-serviceability allowable under the MEL that does not require maintenance action, what should be reported in the AML?

A

Such a defect or unserviceability is to be entered in the AML and transferred as a (P)(S)ADD as applicable from the MEL. At unmanned stations pilots are authorised to make these AML entries. In such a case, the CRS shall remain unsigned until the aircraft reaches a place where an appropriately authorised licensed engineer can issue the CRS.

483
Q

What is ARTICLE 11(1) DISPATCH ?

A

Article 11(1) of the AN(HK)O permits an aircraft to be dispatched following maintenance action, but without a CRS.Dispatch under the provisions of Article 11(1) can only be applied after consultation with Cathay Engineering and after informing the Duty Operations Manager (DOM).Following a dispatch under Article 11(1), the Commander must submit a written report (Article 11(1) Dispatch Form in the Spare Documents Wallet) within 5 days to CX QA (Engineering) and copied to Technical Manager (Airbus). The CAR shall be annotated to advise that the aircraft was dispatched under Article 11(1).

484
Q

Who can decide a dispatch under article 11(1)?

A

Cathay Engineering cannot authorise dispatch under Article 11(1). They may, however, be able to advise whether an Article 11(1) dispatch is possible. The decision to do so, after taking into consideration the airworthiness of the aircraft, rests solely with the Commander.

485
Q

When would you write maintenance messages in the AML?

A

Class 2 messages under “Maintenance‟ on the STATUS page must be written on the AML when the flight is terminating at a manned station.

486
Q

Where can you fly when you’ve dispatched under article 11(1)?

A

The aircraft must be flown to the “nearest place‟ at which a CRS can be signed. Notwithstanding airports in mainland China and elsewhere where appropriately licensed engineers are available, the “nearest place‟ in the context of an Article 11(1) dispatch may be considered to be Hong Kong.In the event of an en-route diversion or diversion from the intended destination, it is permissible to fly more than one sector to reach the place where the CRS can be signed.

487
Q

Who is authorised to do a Pre Flight Check (PFC)?

A

Authority is automatically given for pilots to carry out PFC and refuelling procedures on completion of the ground training course.

488
Q

How do you complete the AML for a dispatch under article 11(1)?

A

The AML shall be completed as follow (Refer to Part A 8.6.1.28):- At the departure station, the Commander will write details of the defect and any maintenance work carried out along with the words “A/C dispatched under AN(HK)O Article 11(1).”- At the station where the CRS is to be issued, the Commander will write the following log entry in the defect column: “A/C dispatched under AN(HK)O Article 11(1). No CRS issued. Please refer LP xx.” (Where xx is the AML page number).

489
Q

Do you need to sign a CRS after a check?

A

All checks except a PFC or OCT require a CRS. The “Check Completed‟ block in the AML has a bold border denoting that the signature in the block is a CRS. Pilots are not permitted to sign a CRS, nor sign the “Check Completed‟ block nor carry out “Transit Checks‟.

490
Q

What is On Call Transit Procedure (OCT)?

A

On Call Transit procedures are applicable at all manned stations (except Hong Kong) and unmanned stations when a Riding Engineer is carried. The Commander is responsible for ensuring the OCT check has been carried out and the AML completed correctly. Qualified aircraft mechanics will;- Conduct a walk around and carry out refuelling- Review the AML for defects, info entries, PADD/SADD/ADDs.- Notify an engineer to cover maintenance and/or certification actionLicensed Aircraft Engineers (LAE) will;- Respond when required- Do a walk around and sign the CRS following maintenance or overnightWhen a riding engineer is carried, he performs the functions of mechanic and/or LAE as required.

491
Q

What should you do if you want to correct an error on the AML?

A

Where corrections are to be made to an AML entry, the error will be crossed out with a single line so as to ensure the error remains legible

492
Q

If you have a failure that requires an ASR/MOR, do you need to write anything in the AML?

A

If an entry requires submission of an ASR/MOR, “ASR/MOR Raised” must be written in the AML entry box

493
Q

What should you write in the AML if you get an ECAM warning that self clears ?

A

Such ECAM warnings are to be recorded in the AML as a “For Info‟ entry. This allows the Engineering Department to track potential problems.NOTE: A “For Info‟ entry should only be entered inbound to HKG or at a manned station. Although such entries do not require a CRS, they do require a comment in the action taken column.

494
Q

Who can carry a duplicate inspection?

A

Commanders are permitted to carry out duplicate inspections following maintenance action at outstations, provided:a. A second qualified engineer is not available.b. Only a minor adjustment is involved.c. The crew member is qualified on the aircraft type.Close liaison with the Ground Engineer is necessary to ascertain the details of the specific checks required. In general, duplicate inspection requirements involve checking the affected control system for freedom of movement and correct direction of movement and the security and safety locking of the disturbed component.A duplicate inspection may be required for dispatch under Temporary Authorisation or Article 11(1) of the AN(HK)O.

495
Q

What must be written on the AML following a PFC?

A

When a pilot carries out the PFC, “Pre flight check required” must be entered in the defect block.After the inspection, in the Action Taken block, make the entry, “Pre flight check carried out SATIS” and make a signature including ERN.

496
Q

What is the procedure following a hard or overweight landing ?

A

The procedure below must be followed regardless of whether the station is Manned or Unmanned:i. An entry is to be made in the AML immediately following the event.ii. CX Engineering must be advised through IOC (Phone/SATCOM or ACARS).iii. Load 15 report must be analysed by CX ENG.iv. The Commander must submit an ASR (not required if CX ENG confirm no limits exceeded.)Note: If DMU is unserviceable the aircraft may be AOG until the DFDR is read.It is important to realise that the aircraft cannot dispatch without the approval of CX Engineering following such events.If a Suspected Hard Landing at an Unmanned station is confirmed by load 15 Report to not exceed limits then dispatch may be considered under Article 11(1).

497
Q

What should be done if spillage occurs in an aircraft?

A

Cargo packages showing any signs of leakage, fuming, stains or any other evidence of damage shall be reported to the Duty Ground Engineer and the Commander/PIC immediately.If the spillage is a flammable liquid, do not continue to use or operate any electrical system.Station management is to notify the appropriate authorities depending on the nature and gravity of the incident. Engineering personnel will carry out an inspection of the aircraft in accordance with their procedures.A SADD shall be raised whenever spillage occurs in order to facilitate the necessary clean-up work on return to Hong Kong.

498
Q

what should be done if dispatch is done using the CFDS procedure?

A

CAR must be annotated and addressed to Technical Manager (Airbus)AML Action taken must be annoted with CFDS procedure carried out IAW FCOM PRO SUP 45 item x, Aircraft dispatched IAW MEL…

499
Q

Can you dispatch when the MEL rectification interval has expired?

A

Yes, a 1 time extension of rectification Interval B, C or D, may be permitted for the same duration provided:- A description of duties and responsibilities for controlling extensions is established by the operator and accepted by the Authority, and- The Authority is notified of any extension authorised.

500
Q

What is a Based Deferred Defect (BDD)?

A

Any defect that does not change the procedures for flight, (not visible to the Flight Crew or Ground Engineer) and doesn’t affect safety, nor airworthiness may be raised as a BDD until materials and opportunity can be made available for rectification.

prueba (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions