COMLEX random Flashcards

1
Q

Physicians continue to commit to a diagnosis because there has been a large amount of time, energy, and resources devoted to a diagnosis

A

Sunk-Cost effect

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2
Q

Discontinuing the search for the answer once any finding has been discovered

A

Search-Satisfying Error

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3
Q

Overestimating the possibility of a diagnosis with devastating consequences in order to eliminate potential regret if the diagnosis is missed

A

Regret

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4
Q

Using recent instead of older information, even if the older information is more relevant

A

Recency

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5
Q

The tendency towards inaction rather than action based on fear of being held responsible for the outcome

A

omission

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6
Q

When knowledge of the outcome influences perception of past events, hindering understanding or critical appraisal of events (e.g. physician simply concludes they “knew it all along” and does not critically evaluate the situation)

A

Hindsight

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7
Q

Decision/judgment made based on how a problem/situation is presented

A

Framing

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8
Q

Gathering and interpretation of medical data which confirms the diagnosis, to the exclusion of conflicting information

A

Confirmation

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9
Q

The tendency towards action rather than inaction

A

commission

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10
Q

Use of recent examples/experiences in forming a clinical impression instead of a careful assessment of the data

A

Availability

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11
Q

Clinical decisions based on initial judgment/impression and failing to change from initial impression/diagnosis despite additional information

A

Anchoring

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12
Q

The mistaken belief that population (eg, aggregate) data does not apply to the individual patient scenario, leading a physician to ignore guidelines

A

Aggregate

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13
Q

Can a Point of Service plan cover visits with providers that are out of network?

A

Yes, but higher co-pays and deductibles
if OUT OF NETWORK.
* Need referral from primary care physician

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14
Q

Health Maintenance Organization denies care that is not……………………

A

Denies care that is not evidence-based!
Need referral from primary care.
Can only see certain providers unless its an emergency.

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15
Q

Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) CAN be out of network, but………

A

Higher co-pays and deductibles for ALL SERVICES!

No referral is needed.

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16
Q

Accountable Care Organization uses providers that are voluntarily enrolled. They take……….

A

Medicare

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17
Q

Exclusive Provider Organization has limited providers covered, unless emergency care. Do you need referral?

A

Nope.

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18
Q

Medicare part A

A

Stays in hospitals
Skilled nursing facilities
Hospices

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19
Q

Medicare part B

A

Certain doctor’s fees
Outpatient care services
Medical supplies
Diagnostic testing

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20
Q

Medicare part C

A

A bundling of Parts A, B, and sometimes D delivered by private insurance companies approved by Medicare

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21
Q

Medicare part D

A

Drugs

22
Q

Directive counseling

A

When there is only one medically reasonable option so doc only presents that.

23
Q

veracity

A

being truthful to patients

24
Q

Can parents refuse life saving blood for their children?

A

No! While the U.S. Constitution protects the freedom to practice religion, courts have not interpreted that freedom to include the right to refuse lifesaving treatment for a child on the basis of that religion

25
Q
he success (or failure) of a new process can be measured by using the four quality improvement measurements: balancing, outcome, process, and structural.
Describe each.
A

Balance: Impact of intervention on other aspects of the system that were not planned Ex: Did implementing a reminder to consider removing the Foley catheter cause an increase in postrenal azotemia?

Outcome: Impact of healthcare on patients,
Intended effect of an intervention

Process :Assessment of activities performed by health care providers, compliance with implementation of the initiative

Structural: Ability to provide quality health care, Framework and capacity of the system

26
Q

What baby weight is considered macrosomia?

A

4500 grams

9.9 pounds

27
Q

Height of bellybutton is how many gestational weeks?

A

20

28
Q

A patient was admitted to the cardiac care unit and his antiepileptic medication, carbamazepine, was not ordered, causing him to experience a seizure. This preventable medical error most likely would have been prevented if…………..

A

two or more providers had performed an independent review of his preadmission medications (medication reconciliation).

29
Q

A…….. chart is a quality improvement tool that can depict the effects of a policy change or intervention on a process measure.
Ex: we are using silver impregnated ET tubes to see if it helps with vent associated pneumonia.
We can use this chart to see if using these tubes effected wether or not intubations were performed.

A

run

30
Q

Correct execution of an incorrect action (ex: Phlebotomist draws blood of a patient into tubes that they labeled with the wrong patient’s name) is………..

An incorrect execution of a correct action (ex: Nasogastric tube is inserted but it curls up in the patient’s mouth) is…………

A

Mistake

Slip

31
Q

Toddler fracture vs child abuse

A

A toddler’s fracture is a spiral fracture of the tibia without any injury to the fibula.
All other spiral fractures should be reported to CPS for possible child abuse.

32
Q

The doctrine of……………… states that it is ethical for a physician to provide palliative therapy to relieve pain and suffering, even if such treatment may hasten a patient’s death, provided that the intent is to relieve suffering and the medications administered are titrated for that purpose.

A

double effect

33
Q

The Spurling test evaluates the presence of cervical foraminal narrowing. The physician extends the patient’s C-spine and side-bends it…………..the side being tested. Pressure is directed downward, compressing the cervical foramina. A positive test occurs when pain radiates into the arm.

A

toward

34
Q

………………test evaluates the biceps tendon as it courses through the bicipital groove. To perform this test, the patient fully extends the elbow, flexes the shoulder, and supinates the forearm. The patient then flexes the shoulder while the physician provides resistance. A positive test occurs with pain in the bicipital groove, suggesting bicipital tendonitis.

A

Speed’s

35
Q

A lateral ankle sprain is a common mechanism for development of a posterior fibular head somatic dysfunction and a posterior fibular head is a common cause of entrapment of the………….. nerve.

A

common peroneal (fibular)

36
Q

The term “torsion” is derived from the fact that the sacrum and L5 are rotated in opposite directions. When compensated mechanics of the lumbosacral junction are present, the following rules for lumbosacral motion apply:

  • The sacral oblique axis is engaged on the same side as the sidebending of L5
  • The sacrum rotates in the…………. direction as L5
  • The seated flexion test is found on the opposite side of the oblique axis
A

opposite

Rotates Opposite-> “RO”

37
Q

Viscerosomatic reflexes for the lungs are located at…….

A

T2-T7

38
Q

The………. test evaluates for the presence of a completely ruptured achilles tendon. To perform the test, the patient is placed prone with the feet hanging over the end of the table. The affected calf is then squeezed.

A

Thompson

Don’t get confused with the test to determine if the psoas is tight, the Thomas test

39
Q

Facilitated positional release is (direct or indirect) and (passive or active)?

A

indirect and passive technique

40
Q

Maverick tender points require the muscle to be lengthened rather than shortened. They are……..

A

AC1 (Near the angle of the mandible and transverse process of C1)
AC7 (on clavicle, near attachment of SCM)
PC1 midline (just lateral to the inion)
PC3 midline (inferior aspect of C2 spinous process)

41
Q

Foot supination pulls the distal fibula…………..
resulting in……….. glide of the fibular head.
(head and distal fib move opposite, reciprocal motion)

A

anteriorly

posterior

42
Q

Iliotibial band syndrome has a positive………. test

A

Ober

43
Q

The thoracic duct drains…..

A

Entire left side of body

r lymphatic duct only drains r arm

44
Q

Anterior thoracic counterstrain points associated with T3-T6 are located on the mid-line of the sternum at the level of the corresponding rib and are treated with marked………

A

flexion

45
Q

Inhaled racemic epinephrine and oral corticosteroids would be the appropriate treatment for a child with moderate to severe………..

A

Croup (laryngotracheitis)

46
Q

Acute management of asthma exacerbation in children includes……………

A

inhaled albuterol, ipratropium bromide, and systemic corticosteroids

47
Q

…… are used to treat ribs 1 & 2 with muscle energy
…… for 3-5
…… for 6,7,8
…… for 9-10

A

scalenes
Pec minor
serratus anterior
latissimus dorsi

48
Q

Wilsons disease treatment

A

First-line therapy is penicillamine (D-penicillamine), along with lifestyle management (↓ dietary copper) and oral zinc (↑ copper excretion).

49
Q

Stark law

A

physicians can’t refer to any designated healthcare services if they have a financial benefit due to being involved (or family involved) in that company. This includes therapy, labs, imaging, anything!

50
Q

Anti-kickback law

A

prohibits the exchange (or offer to exchange), of anything of value, in an effort to induce (or reward) the referral of business reimbursable by federal health care programs.
Waving co-pay is a violation of this!