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OPP > COMLEX > Flashcards

COMLEX Flashcards

1
Q

superior facets of cervicles

A

BUM - backwards, upwards, medial

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2
Q

superior facets of thoracic

A

BUL - backwards upwards, lateral

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3
Q

Lumbar superior facets

A

BM - backward medial

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4
Q

muscle contraction that results in the approximation of the muscles origin and insertion without a change in its tension. the operators force is less than the patients force

A

isotonic contraction

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5
Q

muscle contraction that results in the increase in tesnion without an approximation of origin and insertion. in such case the operators force and the patients force are equal

A

isometric contraction

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6
Q

direct or indirect, active or passive?: Myofascial release

A

both, both

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7
Q

direct or indirect, active or passive?: CS

A

indirect, passive

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8
Q

direct or indirect, active or passive?: FPR

A

indirect, passive

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9
Q

direct or indirect, active or passive?: ME

A

direct, active

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10
Q

direct or indirect, active or passive?:HVLA

A

direct, passive

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11
Q

direct or indirect, active or passive?: Cranial

A

both, passive

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12
Q

direct or indirect, active or passive?: lymphatic

A

direct, passive

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13
Q

direct or indirect, active or passive?: chapmans

A

direct, passive

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14
Q

sequence: psoas syndrome

A

lumbar or thoracolumbar first

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15
Q

sequence: before cervicals

A

ribs and upper thoracics first

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16
Q

sequence:before ribs

A

thoracics first

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17
Q

sequence: acute SD

A

treat peripheral area first

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18
Q

sequence: cranial or other first?

A

cranial will help the patient to relax, making it easier to treat other areas

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19
Q

sequence: for extremities

A

treat axial skeleton first (spine, sacrum, ribs)

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20
Q

what are the O and I of the scalenes?

A

all O:posterior tubercle of cervicals

I: rib 1 (anterior and middle), rib 2 (posterior)

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21
Q

ROM of SCM

A

unilateral contraction= SB towards and R away

bilateral contraction= flexion of the neck

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22
Q

damage to the alar and transverse ligaments is common in what?

A

down syndrome and rheumatoid arthritis. can result in subluxation

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23
Q

where are the joints of luschka?

A

the uncinate processes of C3-C7

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24
Q

how to treat an acute cervical injury?

A

indirect fascial techniques or counterstrain first

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25
Q

primary motion of upper cervicals

A

rotation

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26
Q

primary motion of lower cervicals

A

SB

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27
Q

spine of scapula

A

T3

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28
Q

inferior angle of scapula

A

spinous process of T7, body of T8

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29
Q

sternal notch

A

T2

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30
Q

sternal angle of louis

A

Rib 2 and body of T4

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31
Q

nipples dermatone

A

T4

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32
Q

umbilicus dermatone

A

T10

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33
Q

main motion of the thorax

A

rotation

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34
Q

motions of upper thorax

A

rotation>F/E>SB

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35
Q

motions of lower thoracic

A

F/E>SB>rotation (like lumbars)

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36
Q

Diaphragm attachments

A

xiphoid process, ribs 6-12, bodies and discs of L1-3

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37
Q

primary mm of respiration

A

diaphragm and intercostals

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38
Q

typical ribs

A

T3-10 (atypicals have “1s” and “2s” - sometimes 10 is considered atypical)

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39
Q

false ribs

A

8-12 = do not attach to the sternum

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40
Q

motion of ribs 1-5

A

pump handle

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41
Q

motion of ribs 6-10

A

bucket handle

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42
Q

where is the dysfunction: costochondral junction or chondrosternal junction

A

pump handle rib problem

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43
Q

where is the dysfunction: intercostal muscles at midaxillary line

A

bucket handle ribs

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44
Q

O, I, and MOA of iliopsoas

A

O: T12-L5
I: lesser trochanter
MOA: primary hip flexor

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45
Q

umbilicus level

A

L3 and L4

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46
Q

main motion of the lumbar spine

A

F/E

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47
Q

what nerve comes out between L3 and L4

A

L3 nerve

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48
Q

what nerve is injured in a herniated disc between L3 and L4

A

L4 nerve is damaged

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49
Q

how to treat a herniated disc?

A

initially indirect techniques, then gentle direct techniques

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50
Q

How to treat psoas syndrome

A

must treat higher lumbar dysfunction

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51
Q

what is mostly associated with a flexion contracture of the iliopsoas?

A

F/E of L1 or L2

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52
Q

how to diagnosis spondylolisthesis? spondylolysis?

A

Lateral view = spondylolisthesis

Oblique view = spondylolysis - will see scotty dog

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53
Q

all the following may be seen in a patient with R sided psoas syndrome EXCEPT:

  1. a +Thomas test
  2. Tenderpoint medial to ASIS
  3. Pelvis shifted to R
  4. a non neutral SD of upper lumbar segments
  5. sacral dysfunction on an oblique axis
A

Pelvis shifted to R

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54
Q

how to treat newborn suckling difficulties

A

condylar decompression of the occiput to improve PSNS function (XII), or treating dysfunctions of CN IX and X at the jugular foramen (occiput/temporal).

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55
Q

what can you treat to alleviate some labor pain caused by cervical dilation, dysmenorrhea, conspitation?

A

Sacral somatic dysfunctions to normalize hyperPSNS activity.

56
Q

what should you treat if a person has thick secretions associated with an URI

A

Sphenopalatine Ganglion (CN VII)

57
Q

what should you treat to treat ileus?

A

treat the paraspinals at L1 and L2

58
Q

what should you treat if a person has dysmenorrhea to tone down the PSNS

A

sacral inhibition - apply deep pressure at the sacrum for 2 minutes

59
Q

how can you treat tight paraspinals to enhance the cranial rhythmic impulse?

A

sacral rocking

60
Q

best way to treat someone with decreased cranial rhythmic impulse and decreased amplitude

A

CV4

61
Q

what are the 3 true pelvic (sacroiliac) ligaments

A

anterior, posterior, and interosseus sacroiliac ligaments

62
Q

which ligament divides the greater and lesser sciatic foramen?

A

sacrospinous ligament

63
Q

which ligament is painful in lumbosacral decompensation?

A

iliolumbar ligament

64
Q

O, I, NN, and MOA of piriformis

A

O: inferior anterior aspect of sacrum
I: greater trochanter of femur
NN: S1 and S2
MOA: externally rotates, extends thigh, and abducts the thigh with hip flexed

65
Q

where is the respiratory motion of the sacrum?

A

superior transverse axis of S2

66
Q

what is a common sacral diagnosis in post partum patients?

A

Bilateral sacral flexion

67
Q

what somatic dysfunction can you see in the lumbars for a person with R psoas syndrome?

A

L1 or L2 FRSR (flexed and SB to the same side as the syndrome)

68
Q

primary upper arm external rotators? internal?

A

external - teres minor and infraspinatus

internal - subscapularis

69
Q

what is compromised in contracture of the anterior and middle scalenes?

A

subclavian aa. the subclavian vv runs anterior to the anterior scalene and so it is unaffected.

70
Q

what nerves are usually injured in Erb-Duchenne’s palsy (most common injury)

A

C5-6

71
Q

saturday night palsy is an injury to which nerve?
chronic crutches use?
midshaft humoral fractures?

A

all answers are Radial nerve

72
Q

what nerve is affected in tennis elbow

A

radial nerve

73
Q

what nerve is affected in golfers elbow?

A

median nerve

74
Q

what innervates the supinator?

A

radial nerve

75
Q

what innervates the pronators?

A

median nerve

76
Q

if you have an increased carrying angle of the elbow, you will have more of an (adduction/abduction) of the wrist?

A

increased carrying angle = abduction of the ulna = adduction of the wrist

77
Q

falling foward on an outstretched arm causes what radial diagnosis? falling backwards?

A

posterior radial head, anterior radial head

78
Q

what does the fibular head do when the ankle is dorsiflexed, everted, and abducted?

A

the fibular head is anterior

79
Q

what makes up the lateral arch of the foot?

A

calcaneus, cuboid, and 4th and 5th metatarsals

80
Q

what to treat to help induce delivery?

A

CV4 bulb decompression

81
Q

where can CN X be restricted?

A

jugular foramen, OA, AA, C2

82
Q

what force is used in DIRECT MFR? INDIRECT?

A 
Direct = traction
Indirect = compression
83
Q

where level innervates the cisterna chyli?

A

T11

84
Q

where is the L5 tenderpoint located?

A

on the pubic rami

85
Q

mm for ribs 1 and 2

A 
1= anterior and middle scalene
2= posterior scalene
86
Q

mm for ribs 3-5? 6-9?

A 
3-5 = pec minor
6-9 = serratus anterior
87
Q

mm for ribs 10-11? 12?

A 
10-11 = lats dorsi
12 = QL
88
Q

what are the absolute contraindications of HVLA?

A

osteoporosis, osteomyelitis, fractures, bone mets, rheumatoid arthritis, down syndrome

89
Q

what are the relative contraindication of HVLA?

A

acute whiplash, pregnancy, post-surgical conditions, herniated disc, anticoagulants or hemophilia, vertebral aa ischemia

90
Q

wallernbergs test test for what?

A

vertebral artery insufficiency

91
Q

Military posture test tests for what?

A

neurovascular compromised between the clavicle and first rib

92
Q

Yagason’s test tests for what?

A

stability of the biceps tendon in the bicipital grove

93
Q

Allens test

A

blood supply to the hand by the radial and ulnar aa

94
Q

finkelsteins

A

de quervain’s disease

95
Q

Hip drop test

A

evaluate sidebending (lateral flexion) of the lumbar spine

96
Q

seated flexion test

A

sacroiliac motion

97
Q

standing flexion test

A

iliosacral motion

98
Q

pelvic side shift

A

tight iliopsoas (a tight R iliopsoas will allow for a L + pelvic shift)

99
Q

spring test

A

posterior sacral base

100
Q

Ober’s test

A

a tight IT band and TFL

101
Q

bounce home test

A

full knee extension - meniscal tears or joint effusions

102
Q

nerve distribution: C1, C2, C3, C4

A

C1-vertex of the skull
C2- temple and occipital area
C3- supraclavicular fossa
C4- superior aspect of the shoulder

103
Q

nerve distribution AND motor: C5, T1

A

C5- lateral aspect of elbow, elbow flexors

T1- medial elbow, finger abduction

104
Q

nerve MOTOR function: C6, C7, C8

A

C6- wrist extensors
C7- elbow extensors
C8- deep finger and wrist flexors

105
Q

what nerve controls the following reflexes: biceps, brachioradialis, triceps,

A

C5, C6, C7

106
Q

innervation: deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis

A

Axillary, suprascapular, suprascapular, subscapular

107
Q

Innervation: teres minor, teres major, lat dorsi

A

lower subscap nerve, axillary nerve, thoracodorsal nerve

108
Q

innervation: coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, brachialis

A

all musculocutaneous

109
Q

innervation: triceps, anconeus

A

all radial nerve

110
Q

what muscles of the anterior forearm are innervated by ulnar nerve?

A

flexor carpi ulnaris only

111
Q

what innervates the supinator?

A

radial nerve

112
Q

nerve distribution: L4, L5, S1

A

medial malleolus, dorsal aspect of foot and big toe, lateral malleolus

113
Q

nerve motor functions: L4, L5, S1

A

ankle dorsiflexors, toe extendors, ankle planter flexors

114
Q

what nerves are associatd with the following reflexes: patellar, achilles

A

L4, S1

115
Q

obturator nerve innervates which muscles?

A

Adductors

116
Q

what innervates the gluteus maximus? minimus?

A

inferior gluteal, superior gluteal

117
Q

what innervates gastrocnemius and soleus?

A

tibial nerve

118
Q

what innervates the muscles of the distal leg: extensors, flexors?

A

extensors - deep peroneal

flexors- tibial

119
Q

what innervates abductor hallucis longus?

A

medial plantar nerve

120
Q

what innervates the flexors of the foot (except digiti minimi?)

A

medial plantar nerve

121
Q

guyon’s canal problem, which nerve?

A

ulnar nerve

122
Q

suboccipital or paravertebral muscle spasms are usually associated with…

A

upper rib problems on the same side

123
Q

mnemonic for L5 on S1

A

ROSS

124
Q

what can cause supraspinitis tendonitis?

A

Chronic NSAID use

125
Q

injury to which nerve can occur with shoulder dislocation?

A

axillary nerve

126
Q

which direction does the fibular head glide with foot supination?

A

posterior

127
Q

the Primary Respiratory mechanism is made up of which 5 things?

A
  1. CNS
  2. CSF
  3. Dural Membranes
  4. Cranial bones
  5. sacrum
128
Q

what is the inherent motility of the brain and spinal cord?

A

the brain and spinal cord lengthens and thens during exhalation and shortens and thins during inhalation

129
Q

what is the rate of Cranial Rhythmic Impulse (CRI?)

A

10-14 cycles per minute

130
Q

what will decrease the CRI? Increase?

A

decrease-stress, depression, chronic fatigue, chronic infections
increase- physical exercise, systemic fever, following OMT

131
Q

what are the dural attachements?

A

Foramen Magnum, C2, C3, and S2

132
Q

vagal SD can be due to problems at which locations?

A

Jugular foramen (tempora/occiput), OA, AA, or C2

133
Q

how to induce labor in post dates gravid women

A

CV4

134
Q

ganglion of the parotid gland

A

otic (receives CN IX from the medulla)

135
Q

ganglion of lacrimal and nasal glands

A

sphenopalantine (receives CN VII from the pons)

136
Q

chapmans point of the appendix

A

tip of the 12th rib (T11 transverse process posteriorly)

137
Q

trigger point vs. tenderpoint?

A

Trigger points may refer pain when pressed, tenderpoints do NOT

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