Comlex 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Day of Gonococcal conjunctivitis and RX

A

Day 2-7. Rx is Ceftriaxone/ Cefotaxime

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2
Q

When is Chlamydial Conjunctivitis usually present and Rx ?

A

Day 5-14 Rx is PO erythromycin

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3
Q

BLAStomycosis

A

Bone, Lung Andskin, - Fever, cough, weight loss, chest pain, arthralgia, Verrucous skin lesion. Rx is Itraconazole. IF disseminated then Amphotericin

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4
Q

Cavernous Hemangioma when is Surgery indicated

A

Surgery is indicated only if its symptomatic or more than 5 CM. Otherwise just watch.

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5
Q

Multiple Myloma features.

A

Can present with decreased anion gap. bence jones proteins, hypercalcemia. pancytopenia. increased plasma cells in the bone marrow.

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6
Q

Carpel Tunnel what nerve, what fingers. ?

A

Median Nerve, First 3 fingers

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7
Q

Cubital Tunnel. What nerve, what fingers.

A

Ulnar nerve, last 2 fingers ( Ring and little ). worse with elbow flexion.

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8
Q

When should you check TSH level after starting someone on Levothyroxine

A

In 6 weeks.

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9
Q

ACL injury

A

*Most commonly injured when playing soccer/football and hit from side. Patient usually reports a POP sound with tear and significant joint swelling within hours.

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10
Q

Unhappy Triad

A

ACL, MCL and Medial Meniscus

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11
Q

Most common causes of Dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Alcohol, Chagas and Doxorubucin

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12
Q

Constructive pericarditis

A

Calcification around heart - need surgery

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13
Q

Holosystolic murmur best heard at the lower left sternal boarder that increases with inspiration

A

TR

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14
Q

Indications for weight loss surgery

A

BMI > 40 or BMI > 35 with a comorbidity ( such as HTN, CHF, DM ESRD, depression.. list go on)

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15
Q

How do you diagnose Endometriosis

A

Laparoscopy

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16
Q

Vit B12 def

A

Elevated MMA and Homocysteine. Vit B12 can be normal !!! WTF

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17
Q

Vit V9 dEf

A

Elevated Homocysteine, Normal MMA

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18
Q

Risk factors associated with shoulder dystocia

A

Macrosomia, > 4 Kg, prolonged second stage of delivery, maternal diabetes, multiparity, Rx is Flex mom’s knee to abdomen and apply suprapubic pressure.

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19
Q

How do you treat Wilson disease

A

Penicillamine

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20
Q

Characteristics of Wilson disease

A

Decreased ceruloplasmin-> Cu accumulation, Kayser-Flasicer ring, parkinson like features, depression, Elevated AST, decreased albumin

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21
Q

How do you treat Hemochromotosis

A

Phlebotomy

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22
Q

CD5 positive and smudge cells means

A

CLL Rx is supportive.

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23
Q

Tension Pneumothorax Classical findings

A

Hypotension, JVD, Tracheal deviation to opposite side, hyperresonance and absent breath sounds on affected side.

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24
Q

Most affected pancreatic part in cancer is

A

Head

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25
Q

Trousseau’s syndrome- Migratory thrombophlebitis

A

Can be seen in pancreatic cancer

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26
Q

Small greasy, scaly plaque on face with erythema

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis

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27
Q

Seborrheic dermatitis RX

A

hydrocortisone ointment with ketoconazole oinment

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28
Q

What is the most important first test to order in a patient with syncope

A

ECG

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29
Q

How to do you treat DI

A

Desmopressin

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30
Q

What are the prophylactic treatments for cluster headache

A

CCB( Verapamil), Prednisone, Valproic acid, topiramate, and ergotamine.

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31
Q

Acute treatment of cluster headache

A

100 % oxygen, sumatriptan intranasal lidocaine

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32
Q

what type of Gastric ulcer associated with NSAIDS

A

Type V ( anywhere)

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33
Q

What type of gastric ulcers are associated with hypersecretion of acids

A

Type II and III

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34
Q

Type II gastric ulcer is located where

A

Body - associated with duodenal ulcer as well

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35
Q

Type III gastric ulcer is located where

A

Pre pyloric

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36
Q

Gastric ulcer types

A
Type 1- on lesser curvature - most common, 
Type II- on Body and duodenum- 
Type III- Pre pyloric
Type IV- gastroesophageal junction 
Type V- can be anywhere
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37
Q

Treatment of choice for acromegaly

A

Transsphenoidal resection. Octreotide is only if patient is not a surgical candidate.

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38
Q

Patient is diagnosed with Lobular Carcinoma In Situ, What to do next ?

A

Excisional Biopsy. to rule out ductal carcinoma. Surgery is not indicated since this is just increases the cancer risk.

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39
Q

Anti Glomerular basement membrane abs positive in

A

Good pasteur

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40
Q

Treatment of Scabies

A

Permethrin cream applied neck down

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41
Q

Numerous Hamartomas + Pigmented melanotic(black) spots on the lips

A

Peutz-Jeghers

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42
Q

The most common risk factor for dementia is

A

Age

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43
Q

Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer/Lynch syndrome

A

Colon Cancer + Multiple other cancers ( Ovarian, endometrial, billiary) etc

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44
Q

Plummer- Vinson Syndrome

A

Fe Def Anemia -> Microcytic anemia, Spoon shaped finger nails ( Koilonychia), Esophageal webs and PICCA

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45
Q

Three per second spike and wave pattern on EKG

A

Absence seizure.

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46
Q

how long strep throat patients should stay home after starting abx

A

1-2 days - Its contagious !

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47
Q

Lupus Anticoagulant and Anti Cardiolipin Abs

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome.

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48
Q

Anti histone Abs

A

Drug induced Lupus

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49
Q

Cu def

A

Microcytic anemia, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia and fatigue, osteoporosis

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50
Q

Fetal heart rate tracing pneumonic

A

VEAL CHOP

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51
Q

Urine Coproporphyrin 1 80 % and Coproporphyrin III is 20 %

A

Dubin Johnson syndrome

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52
Q

Urine Coproprophyrin 1 is 20 % and Coproprophyrin III 80 %

A

Rotor Syndrome

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53
Q

Absolute Contraindications to Breast feeding

A

HIV, TB, Varicella on breast, Chemo/Radiation, Active drug use and Galactosemia

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54
Q

What should be supplemented to New born infants

A

Vitamin D if they are breastfeed

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55
Q

10 day old patient present with Hepatomegaly, vomiting, jaundice and cataract. What is the diagnosis?

A

Galactosemia

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56
Q

Lens dislocation, osteoporosis, Hypercoagulability, tall stature what is the diagnosis.

A

Homocystinuria. Rx is Vit B6

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57
Q

Mentally retarded patients with musty order and hypopigmentation

A

PKU Rx. is Phenylalanine.

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58
Q

48 Hr old infant is crying high pitch, tachypnea, vomiting, diarrhea, what did the mother use

A

Morphine

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59
Q

High pitch cry, increased alertness, decreased weight and head circumference of the baby. What did the mother use

A

Cocaine

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60
Q

Smudge cells and increased alk phos and lymphocytes showing CD5 what is the diagnosis

A

CLL

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61
Q

How do you treat Hep A

A

Reassurance.

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62
Q

what are the contra indications for post menopauseal HRT

A

History of breast cancer, or increased risk of clotting ( Current smoker, hereditary clotting disorders )

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63
Q

What is the treatment for post menopausal symptoms in a patient who is non smoker and with no hysterectomy

A

Oral combined estrogen and progesterone

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64
Q

3 Conditions where you use IVIG

A

Kawasaki disease, ITP and GBS

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65
Q

How do you treat Essential Tremor

A

BB

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66
Q

Only anemias with Increased RDW

A

Fe Def and Hemolytic anemias

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67
Q

Main difference between Fe def and ACD

A

TIBC , High in Fe def. Both can present and Microcytic

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68
Q

what to check for Carcinoid syndrome

A

5 Hydroxy indol acetic acid ( 5 HIA) in the urine

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69
Q

How do you treat Carcinoid syndrome that is non resectable

A

Octreotide.

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70
Q

PTSD RX

A

SSRI

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71
Q

Organophosphate toxicity

A

Cholinergic Toxicity- Diarrhea, miosis, salivation, lacrimation Rx is Atropine

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72
Q

TCA Toxicity

A

QRS, QT prolongation, anti choliergic toxicity CNS problems.

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73
Q

Digoxin Toxicity

A

Bradycardia. CNS problems. Green yellow color blindness.

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74
Q

Bulls eye Calcification B/M?

A

Benign- Granuloma

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75
Q

Pop Cron Calcification B/M ?

A

Benign- Hamartoma

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76
Q

Panic Attack first line

A

SSRI

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77
Q

Pheo, Medullary Thyroid Cancer, Mucosal neuromas and Marfanoid habitus

A

MEN II B

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78
Q

How do you diagnose Intestinal malrotation

A

Upper GI Sereis

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79
Q

How do you diagnose Intussusception and Hirschsprung disease

A

Contrast Enema

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80
Q

How do you treat Cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

IV ABX

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81
Q

B3 def

A

Pellagra- Diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia

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82
Q

Treatment of Polycythemia vera

A

In High Risk - Hydroxyurea, In Low risk- Serial Phlebotomy.

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83
Q

Patient presents with Diarrhea, Steorrhea, DM, Hepatomegaly, Cholylithiasis and Hypocholrhydria and weight loss. What is the diagnosis ?

A

Somatostatinoma.

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84
Q

Right 2nd intercostal crescendo- Decrescendo murmur

A

AS- Pulsus parvus et tardus

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85
Q

Murmurs that increases with Valsalva

A

MVP and HOCM

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86
Q

Murmurs that increases with inspiration

A

Right sided murmurs

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87
Q

Murmurs that increases with expiration

A

Left sided murmurs

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88
Q

Treatment of Choice of Endometriosis

A

OCP + NSAIDS

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89
Q

How do you differentiate Syphilis from Chancroid and Herpes

A

Syphilis is painless and herpes and chancroid are painful with painful LAD

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90
Q

How do you diagnose Primary syphills

A

Dark field microscopy /Fluorescent ab testing

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91
Q

How do you diagnose Secondary or tertiary syphilis

A

RPR/VDRL–> FTA ABS / Darkfield microscopy

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92
Q

Syphilis RX

A

Primary/Secondary - Single PCN G
Tertiary syphilis - 3 doses of PCN G
Neurosyphilis– PCN G Infusion

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93
Q

Patient with Vertigo, Hearing loss and Tinnitus

A

Meniere’s disease

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94
Q

First line treatment for Graft vs Host disease, Second line

A

IV Steroids. Second line Tacrolimus, Mycophenolate mofetil. Cyclosporine.

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95
Q

Prophylactic for Graft vs Host disease

A

MTX + Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus + Sirolimus

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96
Q

Head injury– LOC lucid phase and LOC

A

Epidural hematoma - MMA Biconvex

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97
Q

Subdural hematoma, what artery, how do they look

A

Bridging vein Crescent shaped.

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98
Q

Men over 50 what routine test to be done

A

HIV, Zoster vaccine, Tetanus booster, Hep C, colonoscopy, DM every 3 years and FLP every 5 years.

99
Q

Earliest Xray finding in Osteomyelitis

A

Elevation of periosteum

100
Q

Initial test of choice in Osteomyelitis

A

Xray

101
Q

IE prophylaxis

A

Heart criteria –> 1. Artificial valve, 2. History of endocarditis, 3. History of heart transplant. 4. Non repaired congenital heart problems

Procedure Criteria - Respiratory and infected skin ( I&D) Tissues just under the skin, msk. Dental procedures.

Cystoscopy, EGD and Colonoscopy DO NOT require ppx.

102
Q

When do you expect Alcoholic DTS ( Time )

A

after 48 hours usually with autonomic instability.

103
Q

Palpable purpura in the LE, Abdominal pain, Athralgias

A

HSP - Ig A deposit in the mesangium

104
Q

Most specific test for Pancreatic Cancer

A

ERCP

105
Q

Most Sensitive test for Pancreatic Cancer

A

CT abdomen

106
Q

Patient present with jaundice what is the best next step?

A

Abdominal ultrasound

107
Q

What are the associations of Adult polycystic Kidney disease

A

Berry aneurysm, Hepatic cyst and Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm.

108
Q

Esophageal Web Proximal vs Distal naming

A

Proximal - Plummer Vinson syndrome, Distal- Schatzi ring

109
Q

What is the abx of choice for SBP

A

3rd generation Cephalosporin

110
Q

Sinusoidal Fetal heart rate pattern indicate what ?

A

Fetal Anemia

111
Q

PUD associated with pain that is worse with food

A

GAstric ulcer Associated with Type A blood group

112
Q

PUD associated with less pain with food but pain after 1-2 hours after food and during night

A

Duodenal ulcer Associated with Type O blood group

113
Q

Medications that causes prolactinoma

A

Antipsychotics

114
Q

FENa in ATN

A

> 2 %

115
Q

Ottis Externa Rx

A

Topical Cipro drops and hydrocortisone ( Tympanic membrane is freely movable vs otitis media) and pushing the tragus increases the pain

116
Q

Leg Clave PErthe Disease

A

Young male ( 4-10), femoral head necrosis - Hip, groin, thigh and knee pain.

117
Q

When do you treat ITP

A

When Platelet is less than 30K or with bleeding. Starte with steroids, then Rituximab/splenectomy, IVIG.

118
Q

What is the most appropriate diagnostic test in

  1. Diverticulosis
  2. Diverticulitis
A
  1. Colonoscopy

2. CT with Contrast.

119
Q

Felty Syndrome

A

RA + Thrombocytopenia + Splenomegaly

120
Q

Normal Cardiac parameters in pregnancy

A

increased blood volume, increased HR, Increased Stroke volume, Increased CO. Decreased SR, Decreased BP and Anemia.

121
Q

Cancers that met to bone

A

BLT with Mayo and Kosher Pickle ( Brest, Lungs, Thyroid, MM, Kidney and Prostate ).
BLT M and K are osteolytic
B and P are osteoblastic
B is both

122
Q

Tourette syndrome Rx

A

Clonidine, Haldol

123
Q

Overflow incontinence

A

Women with post voidal residual urine, hesitancy, incomplete emptying, nocturia, dribbling Rx is Self Cath .

124
Q

Indications for CABG

A

Left main disease > 50 %, or triple vessel disease.

125
Q

Deficiency of what causes, alopecia, depression, dermatitis, central and peripheral neuropathy, nausea and vomiting

A

Biotin/Vitamin B7

126
Q

Pauci articular vs Poliarticular juvenile onset RA

A

PAuci 4 or less joints, poly is 5 or more. Both are in girls <5 years and RF is negative. Usually with uveitis, Asymmetrical leg length- Rx is NSAIDS

127
Q

Stress incontinence Rx

A

First line is Kegel exercise, Second line is Anticholinergic and TCA ( Oxybutynin )

128
Q

Urge incontinence PAthology

A

Detrusor muscle hyperactivity Rx is life style changes first ( frequent urination ) and then Anticholinergics.

129
Q

OVerflow incontinence Rx

A

intermittent Self cath

130
Q

Erythematous annular lesion with raised edges and fine scales on the forearm what is the diagnosis and Rx

A
Ring worm _ Tenia corporis 
Hand - Tenia Mannus,
head- Tinea Capitis
nail - Onychomycosis
Groin - Tenia Cruis 

Rx - Tenia Corporis , Mannus and Cruis - Topical Azole

Tenia Capitis, Onychomycosis, and extensive tenia corporis - Griseofulvin

131
Q

Bone fracture + Blue Sclera + and Hearing loss

A

Osteogenis Imperfecta

132
Q

First Line of treatement for Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

NSAIDS, ( Diclofenac)

133
Q

Oral Thrush in Adult

A

Clotrimazole and Nystatin

134
Q

First line treatment for Psoriasis

A

Topical Steroids –> UVB then PUVA

135
Q

WHen would you treat Subclinical Hypothyroidism

A

TSH > 10, Symptomatic, Pregnant, positive TPO abs

136
Q

How do you treat Superficial Thrombophlebitis ( Venous stasis )

A

NSAIDS, Leg elevation and compression stockings. Do Serial physical examination as it can progress to DVT.

137
Q

Positive Skewed distribution relationship of mean, median and mode

A

Mean>Median>Mode Also known as Right sided distribution.

138
Q

How do you treat B/L Adrenal Hyperplasia

A

Spirinolactone

139
Q

What nerve problem causes Erb Duschene palsy

A

C5-C6

140
Q

WHat nerve problem cause Klumpksy palsy

A

C8- T1

141
Q

How do you treat Dermatitis Herpetiformis ?

A

Dapsone

142
Q

First line treatment of Sideroblastic Anemia

A

Vit B6

143
Q

Warfarin effects on PT/ platelet count and bleeding time

A

PT is increased. Bleeding time and platelet counts are not affected.

144
Q

How do you screen for Pb poisoning

A

Blood lead level

145
Q

Erythema nodosum is seen on what ? Give 2 examples

A

Sarcoidosis duh and Coccidiomycosis ( Rx with Amphotericin)

146
Q

Myasthenia Gravis is due to abs affecting what ? Be specific

A

Auto Abs against Post synaptic Nicotinic Acythel choline receptors.

147
Q

Reed Sternberg cells are seen in what ? RX

A

Hodgkins lymphoma Rx is Chemo ( ABVD)

148
Q

What cancer risk increases in women who take HRT ( E+P)

A

Breast Cancer

149
Q

What type of cancer is increased if you use HRT ( with Estrogen alone )

A

Endometerial

150
Q

Acute bronchitis Rx

A

Antitussive ( Dextromethorphan ), Decongestant ( pseudoephedrine ) and Tylenol or NSAIDS. No SABA or ABX.

151
Q

Neural tube defect how to diagnose

A

Increased Maternal and amniotic AFP , increased AchE

152
Q

Five Different types of Fine needle aspiration types of Thyroid nodule

A
  1. Benign- repeat ultrasound in 6 months,
  2. Atypia- Repeat FNA in 6 months
    3-5. Follicular, Suspicious, Malignant- Sx
153
Q

How do you treat PSGn

A

Supportive only ( No steroids indicated )

154
Q

WHen do you check babies for HIV with Elisa and western blot

A

exposed babies ( during pregnancy ) after 18 months. initially do a HIV PCR at 1-3 months.

155
Q

when to do surgery for hepatic adenoma

A

When > 5 CM, symptomatic or if they do not regress after OCP use.

156
Q

RTA

A

RTA II Urine ph < 5 ( inability to absorb bicarb )
RTA I DCT ( Urine Ph > 6 ( Inability to secrete Acid)
RTA IV - Hyperkalemia

157
Q

what need to be started on patietns with Turnurs syndrome who is < 5 in height

A

Growth hormone and

Estrogen/progestin

158
Q

Hemophilia Lab abnormaliteis

A

Factor 8 or 9 def, PTT is prolonted, PT, Bleedig time, platlet is not affected

159
Q

Von Willebrand’s disease lab abnormalities

A

Prolonged bleeding time and PTT, mucosal bleeding

160
Q

Bronchiolitis s/s what cause it

A

RSV, Fever first then 2 days after, URI, nasal flaring, expiratory wheeezing, cynaosis - No need for CXR,

161
Q

what need to be checked in a patient with Poly arteritis nodosa

A

Hep B

Medium vessel vasculitis - Abdominal pain with food, levedo reticularis,

162
Q

RX for Nephrogenic DI

A

Amlodride, and NSAIDS

163
Q

How do you diagnose Esophageal perforation ?

A

Contrast Esophageogram ( Iodine/gastrograffrin )

164
Q

Concussin Grades

A

Grade 1- less than 15 min - may return to sport after 15 mint
Grade 2- More than 15 min- May return after 1 week
Grade 3- LOC- May return to work in 2 week

Second time concussin - move 1 grade

165
Q

Child 2-14 month with first UTI. What test to order ?

A

Renal and bladder ultrasound- Abnormal or Second UTI - Do a voiding cystourethrogram

166
Q

Difference between Z and T score

A

Z score are based on actual value, T score are based on Estimates

167
Q

Treatment of choice for Insulinoma

A

Surgery

168
Q

If you suspect Urethral injury, what test to order

A

Retrograde urethrogram. Foley is contraindicated

169
Q

If you suspect bladder injury, what test to order

A

Cystogram first, then order a retrograde cystourethrogram before putting foley to make sure urethra is intact.

170
Q

BPPV Diagnosis test

A

Dix Hall pike manuver

171
Q

BPPV Treatement

A

Eply manuver

172
Q

Best test to do after an abnormal LSIL, HSIL ASC- G and AGC

A

Colposcopy

173
Q

Most common location of Diverticula is

A

Sigmoid colon

174
Q

Child with intracranial calcification on the basal ganglia, hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis what is the causative organism?

A

Toxoplasma - Rx is pyrimethamine and Sulfadiazine.

175
Q

How do you treat Sigmoid Volvulus

A

Sigmoidoscopy

176
Q

s/s of Cocaine withdrawl

A

sleepy, hunger and dysphoria

177
Q

S/s of Opioid withdrawl

A

Lacrimation, rhinorrhea, N/V, Abdominal and leg cramps and piloerection and dilated pupil

178
Q

Treatment of PBC

A

Cholestyramine for pruritus and Ursodeoxycholic acid to prevent disease progression .

179
Q

During pregnancy what happens to thyroxine

A

Total thyroxine increases, Free thyroxine is normal ( although TBG increases )

however in hypothyroids you need to increase the levothyroxine due to decreased response.

180
Q

Side effects of ECT

A

Anterograde and retrograde amnesia, HA, postictal confusion and nausea

181
Q

Pregnant female with Syphilis, What is the treatment of choice.

What if patient is allergic to PCN?

A

PCN, Desensitize and give PCN

182
Q

Unilateral bloody discharge from a breast indicate what type of cancer

A

Intraductal papilloma

183
Q

What is the drug of choice for OCD

A

SSRI or TCA ( clomipramine )

184
Q

Malignant transformation of a chronic wound especially after a burn

A

Marjolin’s ulcer- Majority are squamous cell carcinoma -

185
Q

What drug toxicity causes, Ataxia, Hyperreflexia, tremor, confusion, dysarthria

A

Lithium

186
Q

Contraindications for vaginal delivery

A

Placenta previa, vasa previa, Active herpes, breech presentation, umbilical chord prolapse.

187
Q

First line for GAD

A

SSRI/SNRI. Buspirone is only 2nd line

188
Q

Rx of Testicular Torsion

A

Surgical Detorsion of the testicle and BILATERAL orchiopexy ( Testicular fixation )

189
Q

Patient with 10% pneumothorax, Now what ?

A

so no intervention unless > 15. so give supplemental oxygen and closely monitor. repeat CXR in 24 hours.

190
Q

What abx to use for superficial bite by a dog ?

A

No abx !! Got ya Only in cat bite

191
Q

WHat lymph nodes drains the gonads ?(Overy and testes )

A

Para aortic lymph nodes.

192
Q

Pheo Rule of 10s

A

Malignant, Familial, B/L, In children, extra adrenal , occur after sx.

193
Q

What test to be done for Conns syndrome after you find a elevated aldo/renin ratio?

A

Na loading test.

194
Q

Pityriasis Rosa Rx

A

Emollients.

195
Q

First line treatment of TTP

A
Plasma exchange . Not steroids. 
Remember TTP by  FAT RN
Fever
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Renal Failure
Neurological problems
196
Q

What is the antidote for methanol poisoning

A

Fomepizole.

197
Q

Treatment of choice for Pemphigus vulgaris

A

IV steroids.

198
Q

Rx for gastrin secreting tumor ( Zollinger Ellison )

A

PPI –once you localize then Surgery ( Use octreotide scan )

199
Q

Status epilepticus treatement

A

Benzo–> Fos Phenytoin–> Barbiturates–> Propofol

200
Q

Treatment of choice for pustular psoriasis

A

ORAL retinoids. Methotrexate, TNF alpha inhibitor. Cyclosporine etc

201
Q

What test can be used to determine the difference between maternal and neonatal blood ( when an infant vomits blood within hours after delivery )

A

APTTEST

202
Q

Prolactinoma patient on Bromocriptine- Does Not work now what ?

A

TRy cabergoline before attempting surgery

203
Q

Most common cause of epididymitis is

A

< 35 - Chlamydia

> 35 E. Coli

204
Q

Morning after pill ( Progestin only pill ) is effective upto what time after sex?

A

72 hours

205
Q

Allergic Rhinitis Rx

A

Intranasal corticosteroids

206
Q

Treatment of Aplastic Crisis

A

Blood transfusion

207
Q

Treatment for Precocious puberty

A

GnRH analog- Leuprolide, histrelin, Nafarelin.

208
Q

Infertility timing

A

need to be at least 1 year to say that they are infertile

209
Q

Diagnostic Modality for posterior urethral valve

A

Voiding cystourethrogram

210
Q

Erythema multiformae minior major, TEN and Steven johnson diffrences ?

A

Erythmea multiforme minor- Targatoid lesion on extermities.
Erythema multiformae major - Targatoid lesions on the exteremities and mucosal involement ( less than 10 %)
Steven johnson - Wide speread blisters on face, trucnk ( less than 10 % )
Toxic epidermal necrolysis ( wide spread blisters on trunk and face > 35 %

211
Q

What is the diagnosis when an infant presents with cyanosis that is worse with feeding and improves with crying ?

A

Conchal atresia - Dx NG tube

212
Q

Most common cause of death in ESRD

A

MI

213
Q

Acute MS Rx and Chronic MS Rx

A

Acute - STeroids, Chronic - Beta interferon, Glatiramer

214
Q

How long is Measles contagious for after the onset of the rash ?

A

4 days.

215
Q

Rx for Seratonin Syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine

216
Q

Best way to prevent tumor lysis syndrome

A

IV hydraion, Then allopurinol , Rasburicase in patients without G6 PD def

217
Q

Long thoracic Muscle innervates what muscle

A

serratus anterior and causes winging of scapula

218
Q

Difference between klatskin and Krukenberg tumor

A

Klatskin is cholangiocarcinoma of the bile duct.

Krukenberg is GI tumor that mets to ovary

219
Q

When would you refer a child with umbilical hernia for surgery

A

After 4 years of age.

220
Q

Parkland formula

A

% of BSA X wt in kg X 4 cc. This should be given in the first 24 hours. of which give half in the first hours and rest in the next 16 hours.

221
Q

Churg- Strauss Syndrome

A

Allergic rhinitis, Eosinophilia, Asthma and p ANCA

222
Q

Treatment of choice for Tinea versicolor

A

Numerous white spot that don’t tan. caused by malassezia fur fur. Spaghetti meat ball. Rx is Topical Selenium sulfide.

223
Q

What would you do if a person who received rabies vaccination get bitten by a bat

A

Give him Rabies vaccine as post exposure prophylaxis

224
Q

Klumpke’s paralysis is what

A

Horner’s syndrome, intrinsic hand muscle paralysis and loss of sensation in the ulnar distribution. C8- T1

225
Q

What is the treatment of choice for molluscum contagiosum ?

A

Very close monitoring ! Just observation.

226
Q

how do you treat hirsutism in a patient with PCOS

A

Spironolactone

227
Q

characteristics of RA pleural effusion

A

Low glucose.

228
Q

First line treatment for Epiglottis

A

Secure the airway then ABX

229
Q

What is the most common cause of pancreatitis

A

Gall stones

230
Q

What is the treatment for PID in a patient who cannot tolerate PO intake

A

Gentamicin and Clindamycin

231
Q

where would you see auto abs against myeloperoxidase and proteinase 3 ?

A

pANCA and cANCA

232
Q

how do you treat Diabetic Gastroparesis?

A

Reglan or Erythromycin

233
Q

Blood types associated with gastric and duodenal ulcers

A

gAstric -A, duOdenal - O

234
Q

Appearance of Tetralogy of fallot on Xray

A

Boot shaped heart

235
Q

Appearance of TAPVR on Xray

A

Snowman

236
Q

Appearance of Transposition of great vessels on Xray

A

Egg on a string

237
Q

When should you repair cleft lip and cleft palate

A

Cleft lip - non problem with sucking - aT 3 months

Cleft palate- Problems with sucking- give a special nipple and surgical repair at 9- 12 months

238
Q

Most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

Early within 1 year - Staph epidermis

Late after 1 year - STreph viridans

239
Q

Seminoma facts

A

most common testicular tumor, bHCG is elevated. If AFP is elevated not really seminoma.
Fried egg appearance.

240
Q

Yolk sac tumor

A

AFP is elevated. Schiller- Duvalll bodies.

241
Q

CXR of Silicosis

A

nodular opacities of the upper lobe

Silicoisis - Sand blasting. Glass, granite

242
Q

Berylliosis CXR finding

A

B/L hilar LAD

Berylliosis- Electric, Nuclear workers, aerospace.

243
Q

Asbestos CXR finding

A

B/l opacities with pleural plaques.