Colorectal Flashcards

1
Q

Data supports what kind of bowel prep for elective colorectal surgery?

A

combined mechanical and oral antibiotic regimens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does a miralax, gatorade, and bisocodyl mechanical bowel prep work?

A
  • bisocodyl stimulates colonic peristalsis and reduces the volume of PEG preparation required
  • miralax produces an ostomotically balanced solution that washes out the colonic stool burden
  • gatorade improves the flavor and patient tolerance of prep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does magnesium citrate work? What are the downsides?

A
  • it is a hyperosmotic saline laxative that increases motility by increasing intra-luminal volume
  • it’s hyperosmotic tone increases the risks of fluid and electrolyte shifts compared to PEG solutions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does an oral antibiotic prep alone compare to a mechanical bowel prep alone?

A

oral antibiotic prep is associated with reduced morbidity, SSI, anastomotic leak, and post-operative ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are diverticuli?

A

pseudodiverticuli at the site of penetrating branches of the vasa recta through the muscularis propria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What percentage of diverticulosis becomes symptomatic?

A

only about 4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What recommendations should be given to those with asymptomatic diverticulosis?

A

to increase fluid and fiber intake in an effort to reduce strain on the colonic wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which side of the colon typically forms bleeding diverticuli?

A

right-sided diverticuli are more likely to bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What did the Swedish Antibiotic Therapy of Acute Uncomplicated Colonic Diverticulitis trial show?

A

no difference in future diverticulitis complications, hospital LOS, or recurrence rates between those admitted for IVF and IV antibiotics and those who weren’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Antibiotics for diverticulitis require good coverage of what organisms?

A

gram negatives and anerobics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What did two Swiss and French trials show with regards to the preferred operation for Hinchey 3 and 4 diverticulitis?

A
  • no difference in morbidity and mortality between Hartmann’s and primary anastomosis with DLI
  • higher rates of ostomy reversal for DLI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should patients with new diverticulitis undergo colonoscopy?

A

approximately 6 weeks after non-operative management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the prevalence of cancer and pre-malignant advanced adenoma in those with acute diverticulitis?

A

about 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the natural history of diverticulitis.

A

we now know that the first episode is likely to be the worst/most complicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most reliable way to identify the top of the rectum?

A

where the taenia splay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is intervention for diverticular bleeding generally recommended?

A

because although it is often self-limiting, it has a high risk of near-term recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the detection rates for tagged RBC scans, CTA, and angiography?

A
  • tagged RBC: 0.1mL/min
  • CTA: 0.3mL/min
  • angio: 0.5mL/min
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the traditional indications for operative management of diverticular bleeding?

A
  • requirement of more than 4-6 units within 24hrs
  • continuous bleeding more than 72hrs
  • rebleeding on the same admission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For patients with diverticular bleeding undergoing resection, which patients should be considered for an ostomy?

A

those requiring high-volume transfusion given that this increases the risk of anastomotic leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does smoking impact IBD patients?

A
  • it is protective for UC
  • it is harmful for Crohns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the predominant symptoms of UC?

A
  • diarrhea, often bloody
  • and tenesmus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the typical histologic features of UC?

A
  • crypt abscesses
  • polymorphonuclear cells in the laminate propria
  • mucosal ulceration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does the treatment for UC usually escalate?

A
  • start with mesalamine
  • add steroids
  • then add infliximab or other biologic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is mesalamine and how does it work?

A
  • it is 5-ASA and the active component of sulfasalazine
  • it modulates local inflammatory response by mediating the action of leukotrienes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the indications for colectomy in UC?

A
  • failure of medical management
  • severe extra-intestinal manifestations
  • growth failure in children
  • presence of dysplasia or neoplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the pathogenesis of toxic megacolon?

A

it results from any process that causes the mucosa to slough, losing the barrier function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the preferred operation for toxic megacolon?

A

subtotal colectomy with end ileostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which UC patients are better served by an end ileostomy?

A

those with jobs that don’t allow for frequent stooling, those with poor mobility, those with poor sphincter function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the expected frequency of bowel movements from an IPAA?

A

5-6 bowel movements per day and 1 at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the CRC screening guidelines for UC?

A
  • begin 8 years after disease onset
  • undergo annual colonoscopy with surveillance biopsies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is chromoendoscopy?

A

a form of surveillance biopsies that uses a dye to identify suspicious areas of mucosa that can then be targeted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the risk of delayed surgery for UC in patients with growth failure?

A

delayed onset of puberty, short stature, and poor bone density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When doing a subtotal colectomy for UC, what should you think about doing with the Hartmann’s stump?

A

suturing the staple line above the fascia in case it dehisces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long should a J pouch be?

A

15cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How long should the rectal cuff be for a J pouch?

A

less than 1cm or patients may develop cuffitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When would you want to hand sew an IPAA?

A

if there is dysplasia in the lower rectum or polyposis extending to the dentate line and you want to perform a mucosectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What steps can you take if you need more mesenteric length to form an IPAA?

A
  • mesenteric windowing
  • Kocherize the duodenum
  • divide the SMA or ileocolic vessel depending on which is holding tension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the problem with an S-pouch anal anastomosis?

A

it often has emptying problems

39
Q

Where along the small bowel should the DLI be for an IPAA? When should it be closed and what should be done first?

A
  • as distal as possible without adding tension to the anastomosis, usually about 40cm
  • should get a gastrograffin enema at 4-6 weeks
  • then can reverse it around 8 weeks
40
Q

What is important about the views obtained on a gastrograffin enema when studying an IPAA?

A

must get a lateral since the most common site for a leak is posterior

41
Q

What is the most common complication after IPAA?

42
Q

Which UC candidates are at particular risk for recurrent or chronic pouchitis?

A

those with PSC, so they should generally be offered an end ileostomy

43
Q

What should you consider in a patient with chronic or recurrent pouchitis after an IPAA for UC?

A

that they may have terminal ileitis from Crohns

44
Q

How does an IPAA after fertility?

A

it alters fallopian tube anatomy and reduces female fertility

45
Q

What should you do with a patient with an IPAA who has a large for gestational birth?

A

c-section since these patients are incredibly reliant on sphincter function and can’t risk obstetric injury

46
Q

What is the problem with a continent ileostomy?

A

they often prolapse and require revision and this revision often sacrifices a lot of bowel

47
Q

What does the medical management of toxic megacolon consist of in general?

A
  • fluids
  • electrolyte correction
  • serial radiographs
  • antibiotics
  • cessation of anti-motility agents
48
Q

What is particular about the medical management of IBD-related toxic megacolon?

A

the mainstay is steroids

49
Q

What is the preferred option for surgical intervention in those with toxic megacolon? What is an alternative?

A
  • prefer a TAC or subtotal with end ileostomy
  • alternative is Turnbull procedure with transverse loop colostomy and DLI
50
Q

What portion of CD patients have:
- ileocolitis
- perianal disease
- isolated colonic disease

A
  • 50% have ileocolonic disease
  • 30% have perianal disease
  • 20% have isolated colonic disease
51
Q

What is the age distribution for Crohn’s?

A

20s-30s and 50s-60s

52
Q

What endoscopic and pathology findings are suggestive of Crohns?

A
  • pseudopolyps (seen on both)
  • cobblestoning/bear claws/deep linear ulcers
  • granulomas
  • creeping fat externally
53
Q

What are some high-risk features of Crohns?

A
  • diagnosis before 30
  • tobacco use
  • elevated CRP or fecal calpro
  • deep ulcers or long segments of disease on endoscopic evaluation
  • extra-intestinal manifestations
  • perianal disease
  • history of bowel resections
54
Q

What is meant by a top-down strategy for Crohns and what are the benefits/downsides?

A
  • start aggressive up front and then back off, accepting more side effects for better disease control
  • more rapid onset, preserving normal bowel architecture, and better long-term side effect profile compared to steroids
  • more expensive and insurance companies may limit access unless other meds have been tried
55
Q

What is first line therapy for low-risk CD patients?

A
  • begin with budesonide for ileocolonic disease
  • can use prednisone for other areas of disease or for patients with extra colonic CD
  • can add an anti-metabolite or methotrexate for maintenance once remission is induced
56
Q

Where is sulfasalazine active?

A

only in the colon because it relies on colonic bacteria for activation

57
Q

What is first line therapy for high-risk CD patients? Adjuncts? Second line?

A
  • anti-TNF biologics like infliximab, adalimumab, or certolizumab
  • in combination with anti-metabolites to improve pharmacokinetics and reduce immunogenicity against the biologics
  • second line is ustekinumab (anti-IL12/23) or vedolizumab
58
Q

What should you do if you don’t plan to resect a Crohn’s colonic stricture?

A

biopsy it to rule out malignancy

59
Q

How should Crohn’s fistula or perforation be managed?

A
  • non-operatively upfront if able
  • followed by delayed resection given the 30% risk of recurrence unless there are short gut concerns
60
Q

Which extra-intestinal manifestations of CD will get better with surgical intervention?

A

pyoderma gangrenous and perianal disease

61
Q

What are the benefits of intersphincteric proctectomy for benign disease?

A
  • decreases wound size and wound healing complications
  • better preserves sexual function
62
Q

When should endoscopy be performed following Crohn’s resection?

A

6 months post-op to restate and surveil for recurrence

63
Q

What are the two major arcades connecting the IMA and SMA?

A
  • marginal artery
  • Arch of Riolan
64
Q

What is the predominant mechanism for colonic ischemia?

A

non-occlusive

65
Q

Although the splenic flexure is at high risk of ischemia as a watershed area, why is the right colon also thought to be high risk?

A

because the vasa recta on this side are less developed and thus low flow states also have significant impact here

66
Q

What three medical and two surgical conditions may predispose one to ischemic colitis?

A
  • MI
  • hemodialysis
  • hypercoagulability
  • cardiac bypass
  • aortoiliac surgery
67
Q

What should be an early step for management of ischemic colitis?

A

endoscopic evaluation to confirm the diagnosis grossly and with biopsies and to evaluate the thickness/extent of disease

68
Q

What is the treatment for ischemic colitis?

A
  • fluid resuscitation
  • bowel rest
  • treatment of contributing conditions
  • broad spectrum antibiotics
69
Q

Intra-operatively, what adjuncts can be used to assess colonic viability?

A

doppler and indocyanine green/SPY

70
Q

What class of bacteria is C. diff?

A

a gram-positive, spore-forming anaerobic bacillus

71
Q

How do C. diff toxins work?

A
  • toxin B are cytotoxic
  • both A and B interfere with actin cytoskeletons of epithelial cells, rendering them non-functional and simulating an inflammatory cascade
72
Q

What are the three primary risk factors for C. diff?

A
  • antibiotic use
  • recent hospitalization
  • age > 65
73
Q

What antibiotics are most commonly associated with C. diff?

A
  • clindamycin
  • cephalosporins
  • penicillins
  • fluoroquinolones
74
Q

What are the criteria for severe or fulminant C. diff?

A

severe: WBC > 15, Cr > 1.5, tachycardia, fever, moderate tenderness

fulminant: hypotension, pressor requirement, intubation, severe oliguria, perforation, megacolon

75
Q

How common is fulminant C. diff without diarrhea?

A

occurs in 37% of patients secondary to ileus

76
Q

What is the difference between the NAAT and EIA tests for C. diff?

A
  • NAAT: looks for C. diff toxin genes and is more sensitive
  • EIA: looks for free toxins and is more specific
77
Q

What is the first line treatment for non-fulminant C. diff?

A

PO fidaxomicin 200mg q12 for 10 days

78
Q

What is the second line treatment for non-fulminant C. diff?

A

PO vancomycin 125mg q6 for 10 days

79
Q

What is the first line treatment for fulminant C. diff?

A
  • PO vancomycin 500mg q6 and IV metronidazole 500mg q8
  • add PR vancomycin if they have an ileus
80
Q

What is the treatment for third C. diff episode?

A

vancomycin in tapered pulsed regimen

81
Q

What is bezlotoxumab? When is it indicated?

A
  • a monoclonal antibody that neutralizes C. diff toxin B
  • indicated as an adjunct for recurrent disease treatment
82
Q

What is the preferred operation for treatment of C. diff?

A

TAC with end ileostomy (although DLI with integrate vanc enemas has shown reduced morality in early trials)

83
Q

What is the leak rate for an unprepped right colectomy with primary anastomosis? Left?

A

about 5% versus 20%

84
Q

What are options for the surgical treatment of LBO?

A
  • loop colostomy
  • segmental resection with primary anastomosis +/- DLI
  • resection with end colostomy +/- mucous fistula
85
Q

What are the benefits of using stents to temporize LBOs?

A
  • provides decompression
  • offers time for medical optimization
  • allows for evaluation of synchronous lesions
  • increases the odds of a single stage operation
86
Q

What are contraindications to stunting an LBO?

A
  • within 5cm of the anal verge
  • short and tethered colon
  • closely associated abscess/infection
87
Q

What is the difference between a cecal volvulus and bascule?

A
  • volvulus is a twisting on the axial plane
  • bascule is a fold in the sagittal plane onto itself
88
Q

What is the preferred operation for those with cecal volvulus?

A

ileocecectomy

89
Q

How is sigmoid volvulus managed?

A
  • upfront endoscopic detorsion, evaluation, and decompression
  • followed closely by sigmoidectomy given 50-80% recurrence rate
90
Q

Describe the management of Ogilvie’s syndrome.

A
  • fluid resuscitation, electrolyte replacement, discontinuation of opioids and anti-cholinergic, bowel rest
  • can follow with 1-2 doses of neostigmine if failure to improve after 3-4 days
  • can follow with endoscopic decompression if this also fails
  • last resort is a percutaneous or surgical cecostomy
91
Q

What is neostigmine?

A

an anti-cholinesterase inhibitor that makes acetylcholine more available

92
Q

What are the possible side effects of neostigmine and how are they treated?

A
  • bradycardia treated with atropine
  • bronchospasm treated with glycopyrolate