Colon & Rectum Flashcards

1
Q

RUSH–COLON

With regard to the anatomy of the colon and rectum, which of the following statements is true?

A. The colon has a complete outer longitudinal and and incomplete inner circular muscle layer
B. The haustoria are separated by plicae circulares
C. The ascending colon and descending colon are usually fixed to the retroperitoneum
D. The rectum is totally invested by three complete muscle layers
E. The distal part of the recutm begins at the point where the taeniae merge

A

C

Colon has two muscle layers–outer longitudinal layer and inner circular layer. Inner completely encircles the colon. Outer layer is in the form of three longitudinal strips or taeniae coli that do not cover the full circumference of the colon. At the rectosigmoid junction, three taeniae coli become broad and fuse together and the return is totally invested with two complete muscle layers. (Why diverticula do not form in the rectum)

Plicae semilunares are spaced, transverse, crescentic folds that separate the tissue between the taeniae coli and form haustoria. Produce characteristic, intermittent bulging pattern that permits differentiation from of colon from small bowel radiographically. Small bowel has circular mucosal folds known as plicae circulares or valvular conniventes that traverse the full diameter for the small bowel.

Ascending and descending portions of the colon are fused to the retroperitoneum, whereas transverse and sigmoid portions are free. Anomalies of fixation seen with malrotation and volvulus are not uncommon.

Upper border of rectum is at the peritoneal reflection. Alternative definition is at the point at which the taeniae have completely merged. Rectum lacks taeniae and appendices epiploicae. The distal end of rectum is void of peritoneal covering, the middle part is covered by peritoneum centrally and upper portion is completely covered of peritoneum except for a thin strip dorsally, where the short mesorectum suspeds the rectum to the presacral tissue

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2
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following statements is true regarding colon physiology?

A. Transit time through the colon is independent of the ferment ability of nonstarch polysaccharides such as lignin, cellulose and pectins.
B. L colon is the segment of colon where bacteria are the most metabolically active in the fermentation process. R colon is the site of storage and dehydration of stool.
C. 50% of daily energy expenditure is obtained from the absorption of short chain fatty acids by the colon; this energy is used to stimulate blood flow, regulate the pH of the colonic environment, and renew colonic mucosal cells
D. Butyrate is a short chain fatty acid and a bacterial fermentation product that is the main fuel for colonic epithelial cells
E. Colonic epithelium can use various fuels, but it prefers glutamine over n-butyrate, glucose or ketone bodies

A

D

Colon absorbs 1-2L of water and up to 200 mEq of sodium and chloride per day. Absorptive capacity can increase up to 5-6L/day thereby protecting the person against severe diarrhea. Cecum and R colon absorb sodium and water the most rapidly, whereas rectum is impermeable to sodium and water. Sodium is actively transports against chemical and electrical gradients in the colon. Butyrate plays a role in stimulating sodium absorption in the colon. Potassium and chloride are secreted by the colon through sodium-potassium ATPase and Na/K/Cl co transporters. Chloride ions are actively absorbed at the expense of bicarbonate, which is secreted in exchange. Absence of luminal chloride inhibits secretion of bicarbonate.

Main anions in stool include the short chain FA butyrate, acetate and propionate. Host and colonic bacterial flora have a symbiotic relationship: the host promotes bacteria proliferation with energy substrates from the diet and cellular debris, whereas bacteria provide the host with butyrate, a bacterial fermentation product and short chain fatty acid that fuels colonic epithelial cells. Non starch polysaccharides or dietary finer such as lignin, cellulose and fruit pectins are the main substrates for bacterial fermentation. Fermentation takes place mostly in the R colon, with the cecum being the colonic segment where bacteria are the most metabolically active.

Colonic transit time and bulking of stool are depending on the fermentability of nonstarch polysaccharide. The transit time of stool through the colon is also dependent on stool pH, ANS, and gastrocolic reflex (postprandial increase in electrical activity and colonic tone)

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3
Q

RUSH–COLON

Pregnant 32F admitted for severe abdo pain and diarrhea. Recently d/c’ed from hospital after having been tx for pyelonephritis. Plain films show distended colon. She underwent flex sig which reveals pseudomembranous colitis. Which statement is true regarding her condition?

A. Diarrhea that begins 1 wk after Abx use has been d/c’ed rules out PMC
B. PMC does not occur in the absence of abx therapy
C. Administration of PO vanco is appropriate tx
D. Relapse rate of 50% after tx
E. Use of alcohol based hand gels by health care workers helps eliminate spread of this disease in a hospital

A

C

Pseudomembranous colitis seen with incr freq and is assoc with the use of many abx. Disease has not been described with the use of vanco with with antimicrobials used to tx mycobacteria, fungi or parasites. Evidence that abx change the intracolonic flora and allow overgrowth of clostrium difficile, which then produced enterocolitis. Also evidence PMC is infectious and spread by patient to patient or staff to patient contact

Should be suspected in any patient in whom diarrhea develops during or up to 3 wks after cessation of Abx. Dx is established endoscopically by visualizing characteristic raised mucosal plaques or by cytotoxic assay for C. Diff exotoxins, which usually has a + result in patients with PMC.

Therapy should begin with prompt cessation of offending Abx. PO vanco (125 mg PO QID x 10 days) or PO/IV Flagyl (250-500mg IV QID x 7-14 days) has been used to tx this condition. PO vanco is safe for use in pregnant women.

Relapse rate is 20% with vanco and 23% with metronidazole. Most cases of C diff colitis can be successfully tx medically. Indications for surgery include: >65 y.o, immunocompetent, severe leukocytosis, and lactic acidosis. Tx is subtotal colectomy. 30 day mortality is 53%. Independent predictors of 30 day mortality are leukocytosis >50, lactate > 5, older than 75 y.o. , immunosuppression and shock requiring vasopressors

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4
Q

RUSH–COLON

With regards to amebiasis, which of the following statement is true?

A. Most ppl in the US are asymptomatic carriers
B. Entamoeba histolytica antibodies are detectable in serums > 90% of those with active amebiasis
C. Acute amebic dysentery closely resembles fulminant UC and should be treated aggressively with steroids
D. Amebic abscess of the spleen is the most common complication of amebic colitis
E. Perforation of the colon with peritonitis occurs in ~1/2 of patients with an acute manifestation

A

B

Amebic colitis is caused by protozoan Entamoeba histolytica, which infests primarily the colon and rectum and secondarily, liver. 10% asymp carriers. Transmission through food or water contaminated with feces containing entamoeba cysts. Acute and chronic forms.

Findings similar to acute UC (i.e. Fever, cramps, and blood diarrhea). Distinguishing between the two is important. Steroids are given routinely on a short term basis to treat UC but are contraindicated in tx of amebic dysentery.

Proctosigmoidoscopy would reveal extensive ulceration of intestinal epithelium and warm saline prep of the stool usually demonstrates numerous trophozoites containing ingested erythrocytes. Dx strengthened by a serologic test for E histolytica antibodies, which has a + result in 90% of patients with active amebiasis. Perforation of colon during acute form of disease is rare. Amebic abscess of liver is most common complication of amebic colitis, which may in turn rupture into the pleura, pericardium or peritoneum. Tx is Flagyl 750 mg TID for 10 days

Chronic amebic dysentery is more common and is characterized by 3-4 foul smelling BMs/day, along with abdo cramping and fever. Dx is more difficult to establish b/c cysts or trophozoites are not always demonstrable in stool prep and findings on sigmoidoscopy are N in up to 30%. E histolytica antibodies should be detectable. Tx is diiodohydroxyquin 650 mg TID x 20 days and flagyl or diloxanide furoate 500 mg TID x 10 days

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5
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which disease is correctly matched to the appropriate treatment?

A. Actinomycosis: Penicillin and drainage
B. Lymphogranuloma venereum: penicilllin and steroids
C. TB enteritis: isoniazaid and colectomy
D. Yersinia infections: flagyl and appendectomy
E. Entameoba histolytica: flagyl and R hemi

A

A

Actinomycosis = supparative, granulomatous disease caused by actinomyes israelii, an anaerobic, gram + bacterium that produces chronic inflammatory induration and sinus formation. Part of normal flora. Infections in cervicofacial area, thorax or abdo. Cecal region most frequent site of abdo infection, with a pericecal mass, abscesses, and sinus tracts. Rectal strictures reported as well. Tx consists of surgical drainage and penicillin or tetracycline

LGV is a STD caused by chlamydia trachomatis. Most frequently in men who have sex with men. Starts as proctitis and produces tenesmus, discharge and bleeding. Perianal and rectovaginal fistula may develop as well as rectal strictures. Dx with frei intracutaneous test or by complement fixation test. Tetracycline is curative and steroids have been recommended

Tuberculous enteritis seen most commonly in ileocecal region and occasionally leads to stenosis of distal ileum, cecum, and asc colon. Endoscopic and radiographic features similar to Crohn’s. Sx reserved for patients with obstruction, megacolon or perforation. Tx with amiosalicylic acid and streptomycin.

Yersinia cause by gram neg rods that is transmitted through food that is contaminated by urine or feces . Produces clinical picture indistinguishable from appendicitis. May also cause gastroenteritis, which primarily the ileocecal region. Responds to tx with tetracycline, streptomycin, ampicillin or kanamycin

Amebic colitis is caused by protozoan Entameoba histolytica which infects primarily the colon and rectum and secondarily, organs such as the liver. 10% asymptomatic carriers. Transmission of dishes is through food or water contaminated with feces Entameoba cysts. Acute or chronic. Tx is flagyl 750 mg PO TID x 10 days.

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6
Q

RUSH–COLON

With regard to ischemic colitis, which of the following statements is true?

A. The most common symptoms are lower abdo pain and BRBPR
B. Occlusion of the major mesenteric vessels is responsible for producing ischemia in most cases
C. Splenic flexure and hepatic flexure are the most vulnerable areas, although any segment of the colon may be involved
D. Non op management is not justified b/c in a significant percentage of such patients, perforation and peritonitis eventually develop
E. Griffith point is the vulnerable area at the rectosigmoid junction

A

A

Ischemic colitis should be considered in the ddx of any elderly pt with LLQ pain. Found in individuals of any age in assoc with hypercoagulable state, periarteritis nodosa, SLE, RA PCV and scleroderma. Clinical syndrome depends on 1) extent and duration of vascular occlusion, 2) adequacy of collateral circulation, 3) extent of septic complications. Appears to be a disease of small arterioles. Can occur in any segment of large bowel but most commonly seen in the splenic flexure or distal sigmoid colon due to suboptimal blood flow in areas positioned between two vascular systems (watershed area) that rely on an intact but meandering artery for blood supply.

Sudeck point is area between blood supply from last sigmoid artery and the superior rectal artery. Clinical significance is questionable b/c of retrograde flow from the middle and inferior rectal arteries. Griffith point is vulnerable area at the splenic flexure that is positioned between areas perfumed by the L branch of the middle colic artery and the asc branch of the L colic artery.

Dx is made by endoscopic exam showing cyanosis, edematous mucosa that may be covered with exudative membranes or barium enema showing typical thumb printing of bowel wall.

If ominous physical findings such as involuntary guarding or rebound tenderness, studies are contraindicated and prompt exp lap.

Transient ischemic colitis usually response to nonop management. Ischemic strictures may be resected electively with primary anastomoses after the initial ischemic episode has subsided. If sx is needed for peritonitis and gangrenous colitis, resection with end colostomy is preferred option.

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7
Q

RUSH–COLON

72F with PMHx: HTN, afib,and recent hemorrhagic stroke is noted to have an episode of dark blood stool. Abdo is diffusely tender on palpation. As a result of her stroke, her anticoagulation was d/c’ed 3 wks earlier. Patient undergoes exp lap, which reveal as the presence of ischemia of the small bowel, cecum and ascending colon and a normal distal colon and rectum. Which statement is most correct concerning intestinal blood flow?

A. Ischemia of the colon is caused by lack of blood flow to the ileocolic, right colic and middle colic, which originate from the SMA
B. Rectum receivers its blood supply from the superior and middle rectal arteries, which originate from the IMA
C. ~20% of intestinal blood flow circulates to the mucosa and submucosa, and the remaining 80% passes to the serosa and muscularis layers
D. Colon and small bowel are equally vulnerable to ischemic injury produced by acute reductions in blood flow
E. An increase in functional motor activity of the colon is accompanied by a corresponding increase in blood flow

A

A

Mesenteric vascular anatomy has a vast amt of collateral blood flow. Especially noted when a patient has experience chronic occlusion of one or more branches over time. Sudden occlusion of a main branch may be poorly tolerated.

R and transverse colon are derived from midgut and receive their blood supply from SMA, via ileocolic, R and middle colic branches. L colon and sigmoid derived from hindgut and supplied by L colic and sigmoid branches from IMA. Rectum, a hindgut structure, is supplied by the superior hemorrhoidal artery (from IMA) and middle and inferior hemorrhoidal arteries (from internal iliac or its internal pudendal branch). Venous and lymphatic drainage systems of the colon and rectum generally parallel the arterial supply with exception of the IMV which courses cephalad to empty into the splenic vein

Total blood flow to GI tract is ~25 cc/kg/min or 20% CO. During a meal, blood flow to the intestines rises to 50% above normal without a corresponding rise in CO. Physical exercise, in contrast, doubles CO with a 20% decrease in SMA flow.

~80% of blood flow to the wall of the colon reaches the mucosa and submucosa, remaining 20% supplies the muscularis. Despite extensive collateral vessels to the colon, it receives only 50% of the blood flow that the small intestine does. Colon is more sensitive to ischemic injury during acute reductions in blood flow. In contrast to other areas of the body, an increases in functional motor activity of the colon does not result in a parallel increase in absolute colonic blood flow.

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8
Q

RUSH–COLON

56M is schedules to undergo a lap segmental colectomy for dx of carcinoma of the desc colon. Which of the following statements is true concerning bowel prep for colorectal operations?

A. Preop nonabsorbable PO abx are effective in preventing post op wound infections
B. Preop mechanical bowel cleansing alone is most effective in preventing post op wound infections
C. Administration of broad spectrum Abx should be administered in immediate perioperative period
D. Mechanical cleansing with sodium phosphate is preferred in patients with renal insufficiency, cirrhosis, ascites and CHF.
E. Complete bowel obstruction and perforation are relative contraindications to mechanical cleansing but can still be used in select patients

A

C

Colon contains higher concentration of bacteria, both aerobic and anaerobic, than any other are of the body and infectious complications constitute the majority of morbidity of colorectal operations. Bacteroides is the most common anaerobe and E. coli is the most common aerobic organism found in colon.

Mechanical cleansing of the colon can be achieved by a cathartic in combination with enemas or by per oral lavage with a nonabsorbable PEG solution administered the afternoon before surgery. The need for bowel prep before colectomy has been questioned. Suggested that usage does not decrease incidence of post op septic complications, and it may be assoc w/incr morbidity. Oral and rectal sodium phosphate has the benefit of mechanically cleansing the bowel with less value. It’s use has been assoc with significant complications so it is no longer indicated for bowel prep. Complete bowel obstruction and perf are absolute contraindications to mechanical bowel prep.

Combo of mechanical bowel prep and nonabsorbable oral abx effective against both aerobic and anaerobic colonic flora have never proved to decrease postop septic complications. Systemic abx after often combined with lavage and PO abx but such as combo has not been conclusively demonstrated to confer an advantage over the use of lavage and PO abx alone.

Administration of systemic abx in place of oral abx is effective method of abx ppx and may surgeons have resorted to this to avoid nausea assoc with PO Abx. Broad spectrum parenteral abx should be administered within 30 min of skin incision to provide adequate coverage against both aerobes and anaerobes.

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9
Q

RUSH–COLON

Common causes of colorectal anastomotic breakdown include all of the following except:

A. Poor blood supply to the bowel edges
B. Short rectal stump
C. Inadequate bowel mobilization
D. Hand sewn anastomoses
E. Poor technique
A

D

Causes of anastomotic leak can be divided into implicated and definitive factors.

Implicated factors include the use of drains, advanced malignancy, shock, malnutrition, emergency surgery, smoking, steroids, male gender (narrow pelvis), and technical reasons (i.e. Tears from stapling devices).

Definitive factors include poor blood supply to the anastomoses and tension on the staple line. Anastomoses that are below the peritoneal reflection and the length of rectal stump are risk factors for leaks because of the increasing difficulty in performing the anastomoses. In addition, the environment of the anastomoses (such as radiation therapy, emergency operations and contaminated fields) may also contribute to leaks. Patients with crohn’s have a higher incidence of leaks. No difference between hand sewn and stapled anastomoses.

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10
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following is the best initial management for acute colonic pseudo-obstruction (Ogilvie’s syndrome)?

A. Colonoscopy
B. Rectal tube decompression
C. NG tube decompression and correction of electrolytes
D. Neostigmine
E. Lower GI and gastrograddin enemas
A

C

Ogilvie’s syndrome involves distension of the colon without evidence of mechanical obstruction and has been assoc with use of opiates and neuroleptic meds, diabetes, myxedema, scleroderma, uremia, hyperparathyroidism, lupus, Parkinson’s, RP hematoma, and severe metabolic illness. Pathophysiology is unclear.

Thought to involve an imbalance in neural input to the colon, distal to the splenic flexure and result in contraction of the distal part of the colon and functional obstruction. Frequently, right and transverse sections of the colon are dilated with a decompressed distal colon that contains some air on plain radiographs. Risk of ischemia incr with cecal diameter >12cm. Obstipation present in up to 40%.

If hemodynamically stable, no peritonitis, and without known mechanical obstruction, management includes hydration, mobilization, correction of lytes, avoidance of offending drugs such as opiates, placement of NG, tap water enemas, and serial abdo exams.

Mechanical obstruction should be r/o with contrast enhanced enema. Although colonoscopy is the initial management for sigmoid volvulus in that it can be both diagnostic and therapeutic, it is an alternative diagnostic tool to evaluate for mechanical obstruction when Ogilvie’s syndrome is suspected and it could be used therapeutically to decompress the colon if aforementioned measures fail. 70% improve with conservative mgmt in 48 hrs.

Neostigmine and colonoscopy should be considered if conservative tx fails to resolve the symp beyond 48 hrs. It is a cholinesterase inhibitor that can cause bradycardia. All patients receiving neostigmine must be placed on a cardiac monitor and atropine must be available if bradycardia occurs. Placement of rectal tube is rarely effective b/c the tube cannot be advanced blindly into the proximally distended colon. Patients who fail conservative therapy should be considered for surgery. Options include cecostomy placement or resection if the cecum is ischemic or perforated

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11
Q

RUSH–COLON

In the US, what is the most common cause of mechanical obstruction of the colon?

A. Adhesions
B. Diverticulitis
C. Cancer
D. Volvulus
E. Inguinal hernia
A

C

When patient has sign and symptoms of obstruction, define the level of obstruction. Colonic obstruction suggested by gas pattern on plain X-RAY and can be confirmed radiographically by enema with water soluble contrast. Barium not used due to concern of causing peritonitis in the presence of a perforating lesion. Another is inspiration proximal to a partially obstructing cancer or diverticulitis, which converts a partial obstruction to a complete obstruction

CRC. Is the leading cause of bowel obstruction in US. Diverticulitis is next most common cause. In some places (i.e. Iran, Iraq, and Pakistan) where there is a high fibre content in the diet resulting in large volumes of stool and an elongated colon, volvulus is the leading cause of obstruction. In US, sigmoid volvulus is rare and usually seen in elderly, institutionalized pts. Intussusception is a common cause of colonic obstruction in infants and children but unusual in adults unless a neoplasm has precipitated it. Unlike small bowel, it is highly unusual to have obstruction of large bowel from adhesions or incarceration from a within an inguinal hernia. Other causes of LBO include fecal impaction, benign strictures secondary to ischemia or IBD

Neglected obstruction can be fatal. Colon obstruction in the presence of a competent ileocecal valve creates a closed loop phenomenon. Progressive distension of colon between point of obstruction and ileocecal valve may lead to necrosis and perforation. Volvulus can behave in the same manner and have the same consequences.

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12
Q

RUSH–COLON

74M adm to hosp for abdo pain and obstipation. Plan radiographs are taken showing a loop of bowel formin and inverted U shape and pointing to LUQ. Which statement is true about this patient’s dx?

A. Patient has cecal bascule, which is usually caused by twisting segment of bowel on a narrow mesentery
B. Patient has a cecal volvulus, which is tx by non op reduction in 70% of patients
C. Patient has a cecal volvulus, which is commonly associated with signs of SBO and is seen in elderly debilitated persons w/psych or neuro diseases
D. Patient has a sigmoid volvulus, which is commonly assoc w/signs of SBO and is seen in elderly debilitated persons with psych or neuro diseases
E. Patient has a sigmoid volvulus, which is initially tx by non op reduction in up to 70% of patients

A

E

Patient has sigmoid volvulus. Pre-requisite for development of sigmoid or cecal volvulus is mobile segment of bowel that can rotate around a mesentery whose points of fixation are in close proximity.

Cecal volvulus is found most freq in ppl 25-35 yrs. Sigmoid volvulus is more common in elderly, debilitated ppl or in those with psychiatric or neuro disorders in which immobility, meds that impair bowel motility, and loss of accessory defecatory muscles may lead to constipation and elongation of colon.

Both types of volvulus cause abdo distension and pain. With cecal volvulus, there may be radiographic evidence of SBO. With sigmoid volvulus, distended twisted loop has fairly characteristic of a bent inner tube

For sigmoid volvulus, endoscopic detorsion plus insertion of rectal tube to evacuate voluminous fecal contents is the preferred initial therapeutic approach but should be attempted only if the mucosa does not appear gangrenous. Should not be attempted if patient has rebound tenderness or other signs of peritoneal inflammation. Non op detorsion successful 70% of the time, recurrence rate of 33% to 60 % mandates elective resection of elongated colon if patient believed to have acceptable operative risk

Nonop colonoscopic reduction of cecal volvulus is successful in only 25% and should not be attempted in those with peritoneal inflam. If a colonoscopy is unsuccessful or contraindicated (i.e. When tender), an operation is indicated as soon as the patient can be prepared. In the absence of vascular compromise, cecopexy with or without cecostomy is sufficient. The most important determinant of pt outcome is whether bowel gangrene is present, with mortality being highest if surgery is performed for intestinal infarction or perforation. Mortality is also higher if operating for recurrent volvulus

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13
Q

RUSH–COLON

20 healthy, active man with no prev medical problems is being evaluated for chronic constipation. His lytes are normal. He denies recent travel and is not currently taking any meds. Plain X-RAY show a dilated colon. Transit studies are abnormal with slow transit times. What is the next best step in mgmt of this patient?

A. Flex sig
B. Modification of diet and Abx
C. Placement of rectal tube proximal to the normal caliber aganglionic bowel to decompress the dilated non diseased bowel
D. Anal manometry you, rectal biopsy and barium enema
E. Exp Lap

A

D

Should be evaluated for Hirschsprung disease. Megacolon may be congenital or acquired. Both forms characterized by dilation, elongation, and hypertrophy of colon proximal to a segment of non peristaltic collapsed bowel causing obstruction. Infection with trypanosoma cruzi, Hirschsprung’s disease and neuronal intestinal dysphasia should all be considered in patient with slow transit constipation and megacolon.

Hirschprung’s is caused by congenital abscence of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus of the bowel, which results in loss of peristaltic activity in that segment of intestine. Rectosigmoid region is most frequently involved, with variable extension of disease proximally. Transition zone from N bowel, which is dilated to the abnormal bowel, which is aganglionic, aperistaltic and of normal or decrease calibre.

Although primarily a disease of infants and children, occasionally it does not appear until later in life if an ultra short distal rectal segment is involved. In these cases, patients relate a hx of constipation dating back to infancy. Dx is apparent during first 24 hrs of life if the infant fails to pass meconium. Rectal bx is diagnostic. In adolescent and young adults, it can be dx by anal manometric measurements. If the disease is present, normal relaxation of the internal sphincter , which is the expected response to rectal distension is lost. Tx is primarily surgical and involves the use of a coloanal anastomosis.

Acquired megacolon may be seen in patients with protozoal colon infections with T cruzi, which is endemic in South and Central America. Condition has not been reported in N America. Causes widespread destruction of intramural nervous system. Acquired megacolon also occurs in patients with colonic dilation as a result of chronic constipation b/c of the loss of voluntary defecatory muscles (i.e. Paraplegia), extreme inactivity (i.e. Poliomyelitis), or voluntary inhibition of defecation (i.e. In psychotic disorders). Resection of excessive redundant colon is occasionally justified in the latter group. Patient does not related a hx of T cruzi infection or neuro disorder.

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14
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following is true regarding rectal prolapse?

A. The extruded mucosa has radially orientated folds
B. Rectal prolapse occurs mostly in men with a male to female ration of 6:1
C. Altemeier procedure involves full thickness resection of the prolapse rectum through a perineal incision
D. Fecal incontinence is not a predominant symptomatic feature in rectal prolapse
E. Rectal prolapse is commonly attributed to intussusception of the rectum as a result of a neoplasm forming a lead point

A

C

Pelvic floor disorder that is commonly found in women with 6:1 F:M ration. Bimodal distribution of incidence, with peak onsets within the 1st three years and after the 7th decade of life.

Varying degrees of prolapse–internal intussusception or occult rectal prolapse (of rectal wall without protrusion through anus), providential (complete protrusion of all layers of the rectum) and mucosal prolapse.

Rectal prolapse is differentiated from incarcerated internal haemorrhoids by close exam of the mucosal folds. Hemorrhoids have radially invaginated tissue, which distinguishes hemorrhoidal cushion beds. Rectal prolapse has concentric folds.

Pathophysiology is not clear. Weakness in pelvic floor results in full thickness intussusception of the rectum through anal canal. Anorectal physiology studies have indicated that proximal pudendal nerve injury contributes to pelvic floor weakness. Direct trauma, obs injury, neuropathic diseases such as diabetes, and neoplasms involving the sacral nerve root can all lead to pudendal nerve damage. Even though neoplasm is a common cause of adult small bowel intussusception, it is not usually the cause of rectal prolapse.

Most common symptom is sensation of anal mass that reduces with manual pressure. Protrusion usually occurs with increased abdo pressure such as during coughing or defecation. Fecal incontinence is a predominant sympt in 50-75% of patients. Other symptoms include tenesmus and rectal pressure.

Operative repair can be done through abdominal or perineal approaches. Abdominal involves resection of redundant sigmoid colon and rectopexy. Approach is generally reserved for healthier patients who can tolerate abdominal surgery. Either an open or lap approach can be used. Recurrence is low. Altemeier is perineal approach that involves proctosigmoidectomy with full thickness resection of redundant rectum while prolapsed. An anterior levatorplasty is also often performed with this procedure to correct the weakness of the pelvic floor muscles assoc with this condition

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15
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following is a common cause of massive colonic bleeding?

A. Cancer
B. UC
C. Diverticulosis
D. Diverticulitis 
E. Granulomatous colitis
A

C

Diverticulosis and angiodysplasias are responsible for most cases of massive colonic bleeding. Although their relative freq may vary, they are the two most common reasons for LGIB. These two entities frequently coexist and precise identification of the bleeding may require endoscopic, radiographic and histologic methods.

Cause of angiodysplasia is not known. May be related to degenerative changes assoc with aging and intramural muscular hypertrophy that obstructs submucosal veins and leads to dilation and propensity of these veins to bleed. Almost all cases of colonic angiodysplasia are located in the cecum and R colon. Bleeding is venous and not as severe.

Diverticulosis can also cause massive bleeding and is attributed to ruptured vasa recta at the apex or neck of diverticulum. Diverticulitis can likewise cause bleeding as a result of mild superficial mucosal ulceration but such bleeding is usually mild.

UC is more likely to cause mild to moderate bleeding and is frequently assoc with diarrhea and systemic signs of a chronic illness, such as wt loss and failure to thrive.

Colon cancer generally causes occult rather than massive GI bleeding

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16
Q

RUSH–COLON

21F noted to have persistent bloody diarrhea, abdo cramps, and fever. Stool studies are neg for infectious diarrhea. Colonoscopy reveals friable mucosa in a continuous manner from the rectum to the sigmoid colon. No granulomas are found on bx. What statement is true regarding the most likely dx in this patient?

A

B

Patient probably has UC. In UC, anus is spared whereas in Crohn’s, anal or perianal disease is the 1st manifestation in 25-30% of patients. Anal disease ultimately develops in 50-70% of patients with crohn’s colitis.

Rectal involvement can be seen with both of these inflammatory diseases of the colon but is more common in UC (95% vs 50%).

Small bowel is extensively involved in 50% of patients with Crohn’s disease, whereas “backwash ileitis”, a nonspecific dilation of the TI, occurs in only 10% of patients with UC and has no prognostic or physiologic implications.

Clinical features of these two entities are similar: chronic diarrhea, cramping, abdo pain and fever. Blood stools, common with UC, are less frequent with Crohn’s disease. Total protocolectomy or colectomy, rectal mucosectomy, and ileal pouch-anal anastomosis eliminate UC, whereas there is no curative operation for Crohn’s.Even after total proctocolectomy for pancolonic involvement of Crohn’s, its recurrence rate may be as high as 50%. 1/3 of patients require additional surgery for such recurrence. Toxic megacolon can be an emergency, life threatening complication of either UC or Crohn’s, although it occurs less frequently with the latter.

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17
Q

RUSH–COLON

With regard to diverticular fistula, which of the following statements is true?

A. Colocutaneous fistulas occur spontaneously
B. Patients with colovesicular fistulas normally have urinary tract infections that may be accompanied by pneumaturia and fecaluria , and the dx is best confirmed with a barium enema
C. Coloenteric fistulas may be totally asymptomatic
D. Surgical correction is best accomplished in stages
E. Colonic fistula occurs in up to 30% of complicated cases of diverticulitis

A

C

Fistula formation occurs in 5% of complicated cases of colonic diverticulitis. Fistulas are usually adjacent to viscera–bladder, uterus, vagina. Colocutaneous fistulas rarely form spontaneously. They are most commonly seen as postop complications in which they drain through operative incisions or drain tracts.

Colovesical fistulas are most frequently the result of diverticular disease, followed in freq by cancer, Crohn’s, radiation induced colitis, and foreign bodies. Their 1st sumps (e.g. Fecaluria and pneumaturia) are referable to the urinary tract. Patient may have hx of abdo pain and fever before development of fistula.

Although barium enema may give info regarding the site and extent of involvement of the colon with diverticulosis, a fistula is demonstrated in only one half of the cases. Cystoscope may demonstrate bullous (edematous) edema of the done of the bladder, a finding consistent with a fistula. CT may reveal a constellation of findings including air in the bladder, a thickened loop of bowel lying adherent to the bladder and enteric contrast in the bladder (before IV contrast has been administered). CT has become the diagnostic test of choice.

Coloenteric fistulas may cause no symptoms or may be manifested as diarrhea, depending on which segments of bowel are involved with the fistula.

Fistula can be corrected in a one stage operation in most patients, which is preferred treatment. If bowel prep is inadequate or there is extensive local inflamm or abscess formation beyond immediate vicinity of colon or its mesentery, staged procedures may be required.

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18
Q

RUSH–COLON

Cecal diverticula are different from sigmoid diverticula in that:

A. Sigmoid diverticular are true diverticula
B. Cecal diverticulitis is usually indistinguishable from cancer
C. Cecal diverticular are considered congenital in origin
D. Asymptomatic cecal diverticular found on barium enema should be tx operatively b/c of high incidence of complications
E. In presence of feculent peritonitis from perforation of a cecal diverticula, resection and primary anastomosis can be performed safely in most cases

A

C

Sigmoid diverticular lack a muscular component and thus are not considered true diverticula. R sided diverticular may occur as part of diffuse colonic diverticulosis and are therefore pseudo diverticular and acquired. Occasionally, isolated, solitary, R sided diverticular are found and possess all layer of the bowel wall. They are probably congenital in origin. Cecal diverticulitis is uncommon and the correct pre-op diagnosis is rarely made b/c it is confused with acute appendicitis in 80% of patients and with cancer in approx 5%. In patients with repeated attacks, the cecal inflam and subsequent scarring and fibrosis may be indistinguishable from those assoc w/cancer. Similarly, an inflammatory mass of the sigmoid colon may resemble a cancer at laparotomy.

Surgical options depend on extent of inflam. If inflamm is minimal and limited, segmental resection and anastomosis may be all that are necessary. If there has been a perforation with frank feculent peritonitis most surgeons hesitate to perform a primary anast and instead resect the involved segment and divert the stool proximally. For both types of diverticulitis, surgical therapy is not required if the diverticulum is discovered incidentally and the patient is asymp.

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19
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following disease processes warrants colonoscopy?

A. Determining the extent of UC in a patient in a toxic condition admitted to the hosp for an acute exacerbation
B. Management of patients with recurrent anal fistula and fissures
C. Evaluation of an equivocal findings on CT in a febrile patient with an acute exacerbation of diverticulitis
D. Evaluating GI symptoms such as rectal bleeding and severe abdo pain in a patient in an ICU with recently underwent repair of an AAA
E. Evaluation of the radiologic findings of a sigmoid colon cutoff sign and free air under the diaphragm in a patient with an acute abdomen

A

B

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20
Q

RUSH–COLON

Colonoscopy is indicated in the following group of patients except:

A. Patients with Crohn’s to monitor the efficacy of tx
B. Patient with 8 to 10 year hx of UC involving the entire colon
C. Family members at risk for HNPCC
D. A patient with an adenomatous polyp in the upper part of the rectum on sigmoidoscopy
E. Patients with CRC in a 1st degree relative

A

A

Different colonic diseases have different indications for and contraindications to colonoscopy

A

IBD
-Endoscopy is essential for dx and tx of IBD. Not indicated simply for purpose of monitoring response to therapy; this can be performed on clinical basis alone. Pts w/hx of UC for >8-10 yrs are at higher risk for adenoca of the colon and bx of multiple site for determination of dysplasia. Should be done annually or every other year, even if disease is in remission. Patients with IBD appear to be at higher risk for cancer than those with limited left sided disease but the latter group should also undergo surveillance. For Crohn’s disease, risk for cancer and indication for colonoscopy are less well understood. Patients with recurrent or multiple anal fistulas and fissures should undergo colonoscopy to exclude Crohn’s. If the ileum is not intubated, a small bowel radiograph should be obtained. Colonoscopy should not be performed during acute manifestations of IBD b/c of potential for colonic perforation.

Ischemic colitis/diverticulitis
-Colonoscopy is contraindicated in patients with acute peritoneal inflammation, such as acute diverticulitis, peritonitis or perforation. Colonoscopy may be done after the acute inflammation has resolved to evaluate for cancer

Polyposis syndromes
-Some authors advocate flex sig for screening at risk patients with a famhx of familial polyposis. B/c colonic polyps rarely develop in the absence of rectal polyps, it is probably not necessary to examine more proximal than the area normally covered by a flexible 60 cm sigmoidoscope.

Hereditary non polyposis colon cancer
-Beginning at age 20 or 10 yrs younger than the earliest cancer case in the family, colonoscopy should be performed q2 years

Routine Screening

  • Gold standard for screening for colon cancer
  • In general population, screening can begin at age 50.
  • For those at risk (i.e. Strong family hx), screening should begin 40 yrs of age.
  • Scope q 5-10 yrs is adequate for screening the asymp population
  • CT colonography is indicated for patients whom colonoscopy was incomplete b.c of a tortuous sigmoid colon or pain.
  • Colonoscopy may confirm or refute suspected or equivocal radiographic findings during a barium enema exam. If an adenomatous polyp or cancer is discovered during screening sigmoidoscopy, colonoscopy is indicated to exclude the possibility of proximal synchronous polyps (30%) or cancer (4-8%)

Volvulus/Pseudoobstruction
-Colonoscopy is indicated for patients with sigmoid volvulus and pseudo-obstruction of the colon, provided there are no signs of peritoneal inflammation. Decompression of the distended colon can be achieved successfully with minimal patient prep.

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21
Q

RUSH–COLON

A 68M adm to hospital after having passed three large maroon colored stools. On arrival at hospital, he passes more bloody stools as well as clots. He is pale, orthostatic, and tachycardic. NG aspirated are bilious. After resusc is begun, which of the following is the most appropriate initial test?

A. Angiography
B. Nuclear medicine RBC scan
C. Rigid proctoscopy
D. Colonoscopy
E. Barium Enema
A

C

All tests may play a role in evaluating a patient with massive loss of blood through the rectum, hematochezia protoscopy is the most appropriate initial test. Proctoscopy may reveal an anorectal source of the bleeding and a diffuse mucosal process, such as ulcerative proctitis.

Barium obscures details if angiography is subsequently needed. Furthermore, finding sigmoid diverticula does not prove that they are the souce of the bleeding. Mesenteric angio is performed if the hemorrhage is brisk and persistent. Bleeding rate of 1-5 cc/min is necessary to visualize the vessel. SMA should be injected first b/c most bleeding originates in the R colon. If no abnormalities, injecting IMA and finally celiac axis. If a should of bleeding is found, embolization may be performed with Gelfoam strips. coils or autologous blood clots. Rebleeding following occurs in 25%. Embolizatoin may occlude >1 bleeding vessel and lead to ischemia and even colonic infarction (5%). Embolization reserved for patients who cannot tolerate surgery or vasopressin.

Vasopressin may be selectively infuesed unto the mesenteric vessel. Even though it stops the bleeding in many patients, it may also cause cardiac arrhythmias, heart failure and HTN. Cessation may precipitate further bleeding in 30%. Use gives physician time to complete the resuscitation and address coexisting medical disorders

Sulfur colloid nuclear scanning’s isotope is cleared rapidly by the reticuloendothelial a and prepepitive scanning is not possible. RBCS may be tagged with technetium. detects bleeding at a rate as low as 0.1 mL/mL. This isotope is not cleared from the vascular system as rapidly. Repeated scanning may be possible over an dextended period

Colonoscopy is a valuable diagnostic and therapeutic tool for stable patients, who are not bleeding much. No bowel cleansing is needed but the exam must be does by an experienced endoscopist . Angiodysplastic lesions can be carefully treated by endoscopy measures

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22
Q

RUSH–COLON

With regard to UC, which of the following statements is true?

A. In at least half of the patients, the entire colon is involves with skip areas
B. Characteristic histologic findings of crpypt abscesses is the sine qua non of UC and is not seen with other inflammatory bowel conditions
C. The disease is most commonly a chronic relapsing one, with an acute/fulminant course seen in only 10% to 15% of patients
D. Cancers arising in association with UC tend to be located in the rectum and sigmoid, similar to cancers not assoc wirh I
E. Histgologic demonstration of granulomas confirmed the dx

A

C

UC is usually limited to the mucosal and submucosal layers of the bowel. Rectum is almost always involved with continuous proximal spread to varying lengths of colon. The entire colon is involved in at least 1/2 the patients

Characteristic crypt abscesses, which contain infiltration of neutrophils and eosinophils, extend down into the bases of the crypts of Lieberkuhn and lamina propria. Although crypt abscesses may be seen with other inflammatory conditions of the colon, they are always present with UC and generally in greater number. In contrast to Crohn’s disease, in which the supply of goblet cells is preserved, the microscopic appearance of UC characteristically reveals goblet cell depletion. UC is most commonly chronic and relapsing in character, although in 10-15% the disease runs an acute and fulminant course.

Cancers assoc with UC are usually dx later in their course b/c the S &S may be confused initially with an inflammatory relapse. For this reason, these cancers are assoc with a poorer prognosis. Studies have shown that contrary to what is believed, colitic cancers do not behave more aggressively than noncolitic counterparts. When compared with noncolitic cases, cancers arising within a colitic colon are more evenly distributed throughout the colon, have a higher incidence of proximal involvment and are frequently multiple. Granulomas found on histopathologic analysis are pathognomonic for Crohn’s disease and are not usually seen in patients with UC.

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23
Q

RUSH–COLON

39M with hx of mild long standing UC controlled with sulfasalazine recently underwent routine colonoscopy that shows a lesion in the sigmoid colon. Pathologic evaluation reveals high grade dysplasia. Which of the following is the best surgical option?

A. Sigmoid colectomy, provided that rectum is minimally involved
B. Proctocolectomy, construction of an ileal reservoir and ileoanal anastomosis
C. Proctocolectomy with continent ileostomy (Koch pouch)
D. Total proctocolectomy with Brooke ileostomy
E. Polypectomy to reduce the risks assoc with major abdo surgery

A

B

Proctocolectomy with permanent end ileostomy is an acceptable operation however, healthy, motivated patients who require surgery for UC may be eligible for a sphincter-preserving procedure. Options include abdominal colectomy with ileorectal anast, total proctocolectomy with continent ileostomy (Koch pouch) or the ileal pouch-anal anastomosis procedure. Ileorectal anast does not eradicate the disease or mucosa at risk for malignant transformation. The continent ileostomy procedure may require revision surgery at a future date b/c of slippage of the nipple valve and is not considered the best operation for a patient with an intact, normally functioning sphincter. The combo of protocolectomy, ileal reservoir (J pouch) and ileoanal anast offers the advantage of the diseased mucosa and the need for a permanent stoma being eliminated. Pouch may be a S or J shaped, which increases intestinal storage capacity and decr stool freq. A temporary diverting ileostomy is usually required for 2-3 months while the pouch heals. Recommended for select patients with UC and those with FAP. Not indicated for Crohn’s disease b/c of risk of recurrence within the pouch, which may lead to complex fistulas and septic complications. Although advanced age is not an absolute contraindication, elderly patients with multiple comorbid conditions may be better served with a permanent ileostomy. Similarly, ileoanal anast should be avoided in patients with pre-existing fecal incontinence from anorectal surgery or obstetric injuries. For appropriately selected patients, the functional results are good, with preservation of autonomic innervation to the bladder and genitalia. Fecal sensation and continence are retained in most of these patients.

The patient requires surgery b/c of dysplasia; total removal of mucosa at risk is essential. Polypectomy or segmental colectomy is not appropriate

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24
Q

RUSH–COLON

25F hx of repeated episodes of bloody diarrhea and general abdo cramping along with lower abdo pain and wt loss. The presumed dx is UC. Which of the following is the correct mgmt?

A. Barium enema radiographic exam is done early to assess the extent and severity of disease
B. Hydrocortisone has been shown to induce remissions but such steroid induced remissions are more likely than spontaneous remissions to be followed by a relapse
C. TPN if administered early as a part of the tx, may delay or even prevent the need for colectomy
D. Maintenance, low dose steroids are effective in preventing relapse
E. If medical therapy fails and abdo colectomy with an ileorectal anastomosis is performed, there is a 15-20% chance that carcinoma will develop in the rectal remnany during the next 30 yrs

A

E

Endoscopy w/bx is the most widely used method for dx’ing UC. Barium enema exams can be performed but should be done with caution and avoided during acute attacks b/c of risk for perforation and precipitation of toxic megacolon.

Prednisone or hydrocortisone is highly effective in tx acute phases of the illness. However, both drugs have side effects sufficiently adverse that the dose is tapered early when possible. Administration of low dose steroids on a maintenance basis has not been shown to prevent relapses. Risk for relapse is same whether it follows a steroid induced remission or a spontaneous remission.

Optimal role for TPN in the tx of these patients has not been well defined but it does not appear to delay the need for surgical intervention. It should not be used as a primary tx

Infliximab is used in patients with Crohn’s but it is also used in moderate-severe UC and an inadequate response to steroids. It is a anti TNF alha antibody that blocks the TNF alpha receptor, which in turn decreases inflammation. In general, it reduces S&S and maintains remission

Cancer developed in ~5-6% of patients with UC. Patients with pancolitis or disease of long standing duration are at highest risk. When an ileorectal anastomosis is performed, lifetime proctoscopic surveillance for dysplasia or neoplasia is mandatory b/c the risk for subsequent cancer is ~20% after 25 yrs. In addition to the risk of cancer, proctitis symptomatic enough to require proctectomy is another concern following ileorectostomy for UC. ~50% of patinet undergoing this operation require proctectomy b/c of cancer, dysplastic changes or refractory proctitis.

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25
Q

RUSH–COLON

18M with UC is adm for an acute exacerbation of disease. He is febrile and tachycardic with a HR of 135 beats/min. His bp is stable. He is noted to have leukocytosis and colonic distension on plain radiographs. What is the next step in the treatment of toxic megacolon in this patient?

A. NG decompression, broad spectrum Abx, and IV steroids
B. Endoscopy
C. Emergency total abdominal colectomy with end ileostomy
D. NG decompression, broad spectrum Abx, and infliximab
E. Colostomy

A

A

Toxic megacolon seen in patients w/UC (1-13%) and less frequently in Crohn’s. Rapid fluid resusc plus transfusion of blood products is essential. NG should be inserted to help minimize the accumulation of swallowed air in the colon. Air usually gathers in the transverse colon and such accumulation is promoted in patients lying supine.

Little need to confirm the dx w/endoscopy. Intubation of colon above the peritoneal reflection may cause perforation. In patients with a fulminant manifestation and no prev hx of IBD, a proctoscope, if inserted, should be advanced carefully to 10-15 cm and with little insufflation. It helps confirm suspected IBD and r/o anorecal causes of BRBPR, such as hemorrhoids.

Dx of toxic megacolon is based on clinical findings of fever, tachycardia, and abdo bloating, comined with radiographs of the abdomen showing colonic distension. Response to medical treatment is assessed with serial abdo radiographs. Prompt administration of steroids is an important factor when inducing a response. Broad spectrum abx are also used. Even if medical therapy is successful, most patients do not have satisfactor long term outcome and ongoing symptoms and even recurret toxic colitis continue to be concerns.

Infliximab is an anti-TNF alpha antibody that blockes the TNF alpha receptor, which in turn decrease inflammation. It is used to reduce the S&Ss of IBD and maintain remission. It is not used in the setting of toxic megacolon related to IBD.

Worsening colonic distension, fever and leukocytosis are indications for surgery. In these instances, the operative choice is abdominal colectomy and ileostomy without proctectomy. This allows sphincter-preserving surgery to take place long term.

26
Q

RUSH–COLON

22M in whom Crohn’s disease has recently been dx’ed has just recovered from his first Crohn’s flare-up. Currently he has no perianal involvement. What medical therapy is not used as a first line agent to maintain remssion?

A. 6 MP
B. Metronidazole
C. Mesalamine
D. Infliximab
E. Methotrexate
A

D

No cure for Crohn’s. Surgical and medical therapies are palliative. Goal of therapy is to relieve acute exacerbations or complications of the disease and control symptoms. Surgical therapy is reserved for obstruction, perforation, the rate instance of life threatening bleeding, cancer, and complex fistulas

Much of the tx is medical.

  • Sulfasalazine is commonly used. Active component is 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5ASA). Shown to be beneficial in patients with colitis and ileocolitis but its effectiveness for Crohn’s disease limited to the small bowel is controversial. Sulfasalazine alone has not been proved to maintain remission but in combo with a corticosteroid may be used to maintain remission
  • Mesalamin, a new drug that also releases 5-ASA is likewise used to maintain remission. 1st line therapy for Crohn’s and is also used in combo with a corticosteroid.
  • Corticosteroids such as prenisone and budesonide, are useful in the induction of remission of active Crohn’s disease. Corticosteroids alone are ineffective in maintaining remission.
  • Mechanism of abx in treating Crohn’s is unclear. Metronidazole is the most commonly used abx for Crohn’s disease in the setting of perianal disease, enterocutaneous fistulas or active colon disease
  • Infliximab is an anti-TNF alpha antibody that blocks the TNF alpha receptor, which in turn decreases inflammation. It is used to reduce the S&Ss of IBD and maintain remission. Useful in treating patients with Crohn’s disease and fistulas but not considered the 1st line of therapy for Crohn’s disease.

Other agents that have been shown to be effective for Crohn’s but are not considered first line agents include azathioprine and 6 MP

27
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Backwash ileitis is associated with UC
B. Diversion colitis is assoc with UC and crohn’s colitis
C. Microscopic colitis is assoc with Yersinia infection
D. Metronidazole is used to treat acute ileitis caused b y Yersinia infection
E. Pseudomembranous colitis is assoc with amebiasis

A

A

Backwash ileitis consists of nonspecific inflammation and dilation of the ileum in patients with UC involving the entire colon. No thickening or narrowing as seen in Crohn’s disease. Its presence does not imply a pre-Crohn’s disease condition, nor does it imply a poor outcome after the ileal pouch-anal anastomosis.

Diversion colitis is found in segments of defunctionalized bowel. Instillation of short chain fatty acids ameliorates this condition, thus supporting the concept that these substances (being primary nutrients for colonic mucosal cells) are deficient in this condition. Preliminary trials on idiopathic ulcerative proctocolitis have shown a response to short chain fatty acid enemas. Following reversal of the fecal diversion, the endoscopic findings of diversion colitis usually resolve.

Microscopic colitis (aka lymphcytic colitis) is characterized by a hx of watery diarrhea and microscopic inflammation of colonic mucosa. The colitis often responds favorably to sulfasalazine. Collagenous colitis (which exhibits a collangenous band under the surface epithelium of the colon on microscopic exam) may be a variant of this condition b/c patients have similar symptoms and respond to sulfasalazine. Spontaneous remission of these two conditions is common. Most of these patients have been incorrectly labelled for years as having IBS. Colonoscopy w/bx may yield the correct dx.

Acute inflammatory ileitis causes RLQ pain and is commonly confused with appendicitis or Crohn’s disease. Acute ileitis, often attributable to Yersinia enteroclitica infection, is capable of producing a self limited, acute ileitis and colitis, sometimes with a granulomatous reaction

Abx-induced colitis (aka pseudomembranous colitis) is characterized by watery diarrhea, which is rarely bloody and caused by proliferation of C. difficile. Dx is made by detecting C diff toxin in the stool. Either PO vanco or flagyl is used to tx this condition.

28
Q

RUSH–COLON

Pouchitis can frequently complicate the ileal pouch-anal anastomosis procedure. With regard to this condition, which of the following is true?

A. It occurs with equal frequency in patients with familial polyposis and UC
B. It is found more frequently in patients with capacious S shaped pouches than in those with J shaped pouches
C. Most patients can be tx successfully with oral flagyl
D. The pathogen responsible is usually bacteroides
E. Recurrent persistent pouchitis invariable necessitates pouch excision

A

C

Pouchitis is a non specific inflammation of the ileal reservoir following the ileal pouch-anal anastomosis. It occurs in up to 50% of patients. Its cause is not precisely known but it is seem more frequently in patinets with UC than in those with familial polyposis. Not related to pouch design, stasis within the pouch or a specific aerobic or anaerobic pathogen. Manifested clinically as increased stool output and frequency, malaise, cramps and arthralgias. Most cases respond to oral flagyl and hospitalization with pouch excision being required rarely.

29
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following is true regarding anorectal u/s imaging?

A. Sedation is required
B. The bowel must be prepared as that for colonoscopy or colectomy
C. Scanning is best performed with a 3.0 MHz crystal
D. Imaging of lesions more than 10 cm from the anus is not possible
E. Image guided needle biopsy of extraluminal nodules is safe.

A

Anorectal u/s is generally performed as an office procedure without the need for sedation or formal bowel prep. Frequently a single enema is given 1-2 hrs before the exam to remove any stool from the rectal vault.

B/c minimal penetration of the rectal wall and perirectal tissues is required, a high frequency u/s crystal is used (I.e. 7 or 10 MHz) to obtain high resolution of the superficial structures. It is possible to image lesions in the mid and upper portions of the rectum, but to be certain that the u/s probe is in contact with neoplasms at this level, it is necessary to insert the probe under direct vision through a 2 cm wide proctoscope.

Endorectal u/s is used to stage rectal cancer. It is superior to CT for locoregional staging and has an overall accuracy for predicting tumor stage of up to 80-95% as compared with CT, which is 65-75% accurate.

EUS also provides the benefit of guiding FNA bx to improve the accuracy of nodal staging. EUS demonstrates the depth of invasion of the cancer (T stage) and nodal involvement (N stage). For EUS to be accurate on staging LNs, the nodes must be at least 5 mm. Interobserver variability in performing EUS can be a limitation.

In addition, EUS is limited in restating patients treated with neoadjuvant chemo and radiation bc of treatment induced fibrosis.

US staging is as following. UT1 is confined to mucosa and submucosa. UT2 invaded but does not penetrate through muscularis propria. UT3 Invades into the perirectal fat. uT4 Invades into adjacent organs. UN0 has no LN enlargement. UN1 has LN enlargement.

Image guided needle bx of extralumina nodes is a safe procedure that can be performed under US guidance; suspicious perirectal nodules can also undergo bx in this fashion. Only if the bx specimen contains benign lymphoid tissue can it be assumed that the nodule in question is truly free of cancer

30
Q

RUSH–COLON

62F complains of BRBPR, mixed with stool. On DRE, palpable mass at the tip of the finger. Endoscopic exam of her rectum shows the presence of a 4 cm ulcerated mass at the dorsal aspect of her rectum that occupies 35% of its circumference. The tumor begins 4 cm from the dentate line. Which of the following is not indicated in the initial management of this patient?

A. Colonoscopy and tumor biopsy
B. Transrectal is
C. Transanal excision
D. CT of the abdomen and rectum
E. Rigid protosigmoidoscopy
A

C

31
Q

RUSH–COLON

62F complains of BRBPR, mixed with stool. On DRE, palpable mass at the tip of the finger. Endoscopic exam of her rectum shows the presence of a 4 cm ulcerated mass at the dorsal aspect of her rectum that occupies 35% of its circumference. The tumor begins 4 cm from the dentate line.

Patient undergoes a complete evaluation that shows a rectal adenocarcinoma and no evidence of distant mets or direct local tumor invasion. EUS shows invasion of muscularis propria and prominent LNs.

Select the most appropriate treatment for this patient:

A. Local excision
B. Transanal microscopic excision
C. APR
D. Preoperative chemo and radiation
E. Fulguration
A

D

Most common symptom of rectal cancer is hematochezia. Other symp include musus discharge, tenesmus, and changes in bowel habits. Work up for rectal cancer includes a complete colonoscopy to exclude synchronous colon tumors. Precise location is best determined by rigid sigmoidoscopy, which should be done even if the tumor has been dx with colonoscopy to assess the relationship of the tumor to the anal canal.

EUS and MRI can be used to assess the extent of tumor invasion through the bowel wall and to evaluate adjacent LNs. CT is useful in assessing the metastatic work up. Baseline CEA levels can be obtained and used to compare with subsequent CEA levels for monitoring treatment or recurrence. Transanal excision is not part of the initial management of rectal cancer and should be considered only after the evaluation is complete and the results assessed.

Tumors in the distal 5 cm of the rectum can be difficult to treat. Us stages T1 tumors can be to via a transanal approach, which can be achieved with conventional instruments or transanal endoscopic microsurgery (TEM). TEM uses co2 insufflation through a 40 mm rectoscope to create better endoscopic visualization of the operative field. TEM is more likely to yield neg margins, intact specim n, and lower recurrence than conventional instruments. Pitfall with any transanal approach is inability to assess LN status. In stage I cancers, incidence of lymphatic mets is < 8%. US staged T2 rectal cancers should undergo radical surgery.

US image of this patient shows deep penetration of the muscularis propria and possibly the mesorectal fat. Suspicious LNs (spherical, hypoechoic) are seen as well. Pt should undergo chemoradiation initially. In the US, stage II and III rectal cancers are commonly treated with preop radiation consisting of 45-50.4 Gy and 5 FU based chemo.

Fulguratoin I’ve used in patients with lesions below the peritoneal reflection who are poor surgical candidates. This technique cannot provide a specimen to assess the pathologic stage. APR involves complete excision of the rectum and anus through a perineal and abdominal dissection, it leaves the patient with a permanent colostomy. Indicated when patient has poor preop sphincter control, patient’s body habitus is unfavorable, tumor involves anal sphincter, or part of the sphincter needs to be resected to obtain neg margins. LAR involves excision of the rectum and mesorectum through an abdominal approach. May involve the use of a protective stoma, which is often revised at a later date.

32
Q

RUSH–COLON

27M after chole has recently undergone colonoscopy for recurrent blood per rectum. His colonoscopic findings are show multiple polyps in multiple segments of colon. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the endoscopic findings?

A. Diet high in fiber
B. Diet low in animal fat and protein 
C. UC
D. Familial polyposis
E. Prev chole
A

D

In US, CRC is 2nd only to lung cancer as the leading cause of death from cancer when both genders are considered. Enviro factors, particularly dietary habits, may explain wide variation in the geographic distribution of colon cancer. This patient has familial polyposis. Genetic factors play a definite role in carcinogenesis and mutational abN have been identified in patients with FAP and HNPCC. Cancer develops in 100% of patients with FAP usually by age 40, if the colon is left untreated. In HNPCC, lifetime risk for development of CRC approaches 80%. Diets low in fiber and high in animal fats and protein are assoc with an incr risk for colon ca. Mechanisms may include alterations in intestinal transit time and an incr in the formation of carcinogenic compounds as a result of bacterial metabolism of dietary components.

Gallstone disease appears to be more common in areas where colon cancer is prevalent. Some studies have suggested that chole is assoc with a higher incidence of subsequent colon cancer, particularly that involving the R colon. Proposed mechanism is related to the carcinogenic potential of secondary bile acids, to which the intestinal mucosa is increasingly exposed after chole as a result of increased enterohepatic cycling. Evidence supporting this assoc is conflicting, and any assoc that may exist is minimal

RF for development of cancer in patients with UC include disease of long duration (incidence increase 1-2% per year after 10 years) and total colonic involvement. An incr risk for cancer has also been seen in patient’s with Crohn’s disease of both small and large intestines, particularly in bypassed segments. Most colon cancer cases occur sporadically without a genetic or inflammatory predisposition.

33
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which statement is correct concerning intestinal polyposis syndromes?

A. Hamartomas are found in patients with both juvenile polyps and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
B. Familial polyposis syndrome often includes extraintestinal manifestations
C. Turcot syndrome often includes small bowel polyps
D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, Gardener syndrome, and Turcot syndrome are inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern
E. Familial polyposis and Turcot syndrome are benign conditions without malignant potential

A

A

Hamartomas are lesions in which N tissue is found in abN structural configuration. Peutz Jeughers syndrome is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait. Polyps are hamartomas and are found primarily in the jejunum and ileum, with involvement of the colon and rectum in 1/2 and the stomach in 1/4 of patients. Polyps may cause obstruction, intussusception, or bleeding. Now generally accepted that there is an incr incidence of GI cancers assoc with Peutz Jeghers and polypectomy is advised particularly if the patient has colicky pain or anemia. Colonic lesions are usually treated by polypectomy and colectomy is not generally needed. In addition to intestinal polyps, syndrome is characterized by melanin spots on the oral mucosa, lips, palms of hands and soles of feet. Juvenile polyps are solitary 70% of the time and in 60% of cases they are located within 10 cm of the anal vergo. Occasionally, a patient is found to have a syndrome of juvenile polyposis characterized by anemia, anergy, hypoprotenemia, and failure to thrive. Some clinicians have found a strong assoc between GI malignancy and juvenile polyposis.

Cronkhite-Canada syndrome, the polyps, which are harmartomas, are dispersed throughout the GI tract. This entity is characterized by hyperpigmentation of the skin, alopecia, and atrophy of the fingernails and toenails.

FAP by itself lacks extraintestinal manifestations. Turcot and Gardner syndroms are variants of familial polyposis assoc with certain noncolonic manifestations. Turcot syndrome has the additional characteristic of CNS tumors. Small bowel polyposis is seen in all of the syndromes listed with the exception of Turcot syndrome. In addition to polyps, Gardner sydrome is typified by the presence of osteomas, exostoses and desmoid tumors. Polypoid lesions observed with chronic UC are inflammatory pseudopolyps and the malignant potential of UC is not related to the presence of these lesions.

Cronkite-Canada syndrome is not inherited and does not have malignant potential. FAP, Turcot and Gardner syndrome may represent difference expressions of the same disease. Patients with FAP, Turcot or Gardner muse undergo surveillance upper endoscopy at 3 to 5 yera intervals. Duodenal polyps in 33 % and gastric polyps in 28% and although most gastric polyps were fundic gland type, all duodenal polyps were adenomas. Following CRC, the most common cause of death in these patients was cancer of the periampullary region.

An autosomal dominant gene has been proposed for Peutz-Jeughrs syndrome, familial polyposis and Gardner syndrome, whereas it is believed that Turcot syndrome is causes by an autosomal recessive gene or an autosomal dominant gene with incomplete penetrance and generations may be skipped

34
Q

RUSH–COLON

With regard to the adenomatous polyposis coli syndromes, which of the following statements is true?

A. Screening of family members at risk should being at the age of 25 and consists of annual colonoscopy
B. 25% of the offspring of an afflicted individuals will have the disease
C. Risk for the development of colon cancer is ~50%
D. Abdominal colectomy and ileoproctostomy eliminate the risk for carcinoma
E. Periampullary tumors are an important cause of death

A

E

Polyposis syndrome occur in approx 1 in every 12,000 births. Dx in 300 new patients each year in US. Transmitted as an autosomal dominany trait and therefore, 50% of offspring of an afflicted individual have the disease. About 30-40% of patients do not have famhx of polyposis, and these cases represent spontaneous mutations at the polyposis locus

Polyps not present at birth but usually 1st appear at puberty and gradually increase in number so that by age 21, colon and rectum are carpeted by 1000s of polyps. If polyps are left untx, risk for development of cancer is 100%, with death from colon cancer occurring at an avg age of 41.5 yrs. Subtotal colectomy with ileoproctostomy has been advocated by some clinicians. If this procedure is performed, close surveillance of rectal remnant is mandatory and is accomplished with proctoscopy q6 months. Incidence from rectal cancer after ileorectostomy varies widely among studies (5-15%). Less likely to die of rectal cancer than of periampullary tumor or desmoids.

At the time of initial dx, extensive carpeting of the rectum with >20 polyps should dissuade one form recommending ileoproctostomy. Presence of colon cancer should also dissaude one from preserving the rectum. Mucosal proctectomy with ileo anal anast removed all neoplastic mucosa while avoiding the need for a permanent ileostomy.

FAP screening of asymp family members at risk should begin at puberty and should include annual proctosigmoidoscopy. Upper GI endoscopy should be done to verify involvement of the stomach and duodenum every 1-3 yrs beginning at age 20-25. If polyps ar efound bx is recommended to verify the presence of adnomatous tissue. Alternatively, a family may choose genetic screening for members at risk. If genetic testing is neg, that individual may avoid annual flex sig

35
Q

RUSH–COLON

The following statements are true about HNPCC syndrom (Lynch syndrome) except:

A. It is inherited as autosomal dominant trait
B. Most cancers in patients with HNPCC involve the R colon
C. Most patients are younger than 50 years old
D. In up to 40% of patients who undergo segmental (rather than total) colectomy, metachronous CRC develop within 10 yrs
E. There is high frequency of endometrial, ovarian, breast and gastric cancers.

A

B

HNPCC occurs in two varieties: 1) Lynch I = site specific CRC and 2) Lynch 2 = CRC assoc with other forms of cancer (e.g. endometrial, ovarian, breast, urothelial, biliary and gastric). Accounts for 5-6% of colon cancers, HNPCC is caused by mutation in mismatch repair genes that normally repair errors in DNA replication. Inherited as autosomal dominant trait and may affect multiple generations in succession.

Afflicted individuals show R sided cancer (72.3%), are likely to have multiple carcinomas (18.1%), are usually young (mean age 44.6 yrs), and often have metachronous CRC (40% risk over 10 yrs) following segmental colectomy. These individuals may have improved survival when compared to sporadic cancers.

Amsterdam criteria help identify suspected families 3-2-1-0 rule. Three successive generations affected by CRC cancer, one affected person is a first degree relative of the other two, one affected person is <50 yr and there should be no evidence of FAP. If this rule is satisfied, genetic studies or endoscopic screening program for family members should be instituted

Family members at risk should undergo biannual colonoscopy beginning at age 25 or 10 yrs younder than age of an affected family member. Women should have annual pelvic exams wth transabdomimal and transvaginal US to examine the ovaries and thickness of endometrial stripe. Serum markers for ovarian cancer should be determined. Mammogram should be obtained earlier than usually advised. Alternatively, a family amy choose to undergo genetic screening to identify members who have inherited the mutation.

If a new cancer is found in an HNPCC family, consideration should be given to subtotal colectomy b/c of the risk of metachronous tumors. If women has completed childbearing, TAH BSO may also be considered at time of colectomy.

36
Q

RUSH–COLON

Match the gene in with the applicable statement i

A. FAP
B. p53
C. hMSH2 
D. DCC
E. K-ras

a Tumor suppressor gene (adenomatous polyposis coli (APC)) located on chromosome 17
b Late occurring alteration resulting in less of cell to cell contact thereby enhancing metastasis
c. Located on chromosome 5
d. Most common mutations found in patients with HNPCC
e. Oncogene that when mutated codes for a protein that cannot regulate cell growth and differentiation

A

Ac, Ba, Cd, Db, Ee

Adenoma polyposis gene

  • Located on chromosome 5, is large and encodes for cytoplasmic protein.
  • Mutations occur in patients with both sporadic CRC and familial polyposis, are freq, are comparable in incidence with adenomas and carcinomas, and occur early in the development of cancer. Protein product of APC gene is normally involved in maintaining cellular adhesion and suppressing neoplastic growth but the mutant protein may not be capable of serving this function. APC gene acts as tumor suppresor gene
  • ~35% of patients with sporadic cancer and up to 75% of those with polyposis cancers have APC mutations that can occur at variable points within the gene. May explain the various phenotypes

p53

  • Tumor suppressor gene located on chromosome 17
  • Mutations are most common genetic abN found in various human cancers
  • Encodes for a nuclear phosphoprotein that regulates transcription and negatively influences cellular proliferation by binding at specific DNA sites
  • Ex: cells damaged by UV light of radiation are kept form replicating by the wild-type (natural) p53 protein. Mutant p53 binds to wild type p53, thereby preventing specific binding to DNA and permitting tumor growth

Mismatch repair genes

  • Correct errors of DNA replication
  • Alterations have been implicated in pathogenesis of HNPCC
  • Genetic sequences identified are 1) hMSH2 on chromosone 2 (up to 40% of genetic alteration in families with HNPCC); 2) hMLH1 on chromosome 3, which may act as a tumor suppressor gene; 3) hPMS1 on chromosome 2 and 4) hPMS2 on chromosome 7. Mutations of latter two account for only 10% of mutations in HNPCC families. Germline mutations of hMSH2 and hMLH1 genes by themselves are not enough to produce HNPCC phenotype. Somatic mutation of the remaining wild type allele is also necessary

DCC

  • Located on chromosome 18 and encodes a protein involved in cell to cell contact.
  • Deletions of this gene have been found in 73% of patients with CRC but in only 11% of those with adenomas, thus suggesting that the gene loss occurred late during tumorigenesis.
  • Cancers with loss of DCC gene are more likely to be initially seen a advanced disease (in comparison with tumors maintaining this gene), and patient survival is consquently compromised

K-ras

  • Oncogene found on chromosome 12 that encodes for a plasma membrane based protein involved in the transduction of growth and differentiation signals.
  • ~50% of patients with CRC have k ras mutations
  • Large adenomas and adenomas with small areas of invasive cancer have nearly the same incidence of k ras mutations, thus suggesting that genetic alreation in k ras gene occur early (but not as early as APC mutations) during tumorigenesis.
  • Has yet to be proved whether k-ras mutations have any prognostic significancce
37
Q

RUSH–COLON
With regard to colorectal polyps, which of the following is not considered precancerous?

A. Hyperplastic polyp
B. Tubular adenoma
C. Tubulovillous adenoma
D. Villous adenoma
E. Adnomatous polyp
A

A

38
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following statements is true regarding colorectal polyps?

A. Tubular adenoma is the most common type of colon polyp, and mitosis occurs at the surface of the crypts
B. Hyperplastic polyps are the most common type of colon polyp, and mitosis occurs at the depths of the crypts
C. Tubular adenomas are usually pedunculated and differentiate into mature goblet cells
D. The malignant potential of colorectal polyps is related to both size and location of polyp
E. The most common location for hyperplastic polyps is the ascending colon

A

B

Polypoid colorectal lesions can be classified as neoplastic or non neoplastic.
Non neoplastic include: hyperplastic polyps, pseudopolyps, and hamartomas
Neoplastic polyps include: tubular adenomas, tubulovillous adenomas and villous adenomas

Hyperplastic polyps

  • Most common type of all polyps
  • Imbalance between cell division and cell exfoliation
  • Small, multiple, and sessile and they occur most frequently in the rectosigmoid area
  • Non neoplastic and have no malignant potential
  • Removed to differentiate them from neoplastic polyps (adenomas), which have varying malignant potential depending on their size, histologic pattern and degree of cellular atypia
  • Hyperplastic polyposis (multiple lesions scattered throughout the colon) may be assoc with a higher risk for colon cancer, especially if the polyps are large and located proximally
  • Distinction between hyperplastic polyp and adenomatous polyps (tubular, tubulovillous, or villous) is readily made based on the histologic characteristics of cellular differentiation and location of cell division
  • In N colonic mucosa and hyperplastic polyps, cell division is limted to the depths of the crypts of Lieberkuhn and differentiation into mature cells occur as cells migrate up the crypt to the surface. In adenomatous polyps, cell division occurs at all levels of the crypt, including the surface, and differentiation is incomplete

Neoplastic polyps
-Classified by histologic characteristics (tubular vs villous) and morphologic features (sessile vs pedunculated)
Tubular adenoma
–Most common type of neoplastic polyp
–~75% of group
–Asymp, pedunculated, <1 cm in size, and found most commonly in rectosigmoid area
-Likelihood neoplastic polyp contains cancer is directly related to its size and configuration
–Tubular adenoma <1 cm rarely harbor malignancy
–Tubular adenoma 1-2 cm likely to be malignant 10% of cases
–Larger lesions have 30% malignancy rate
–Sessile adenomas of all histologic types are more likely than pedunculated ones to harbor an occult cancer
Villous adenomas
–10% of neoplastic colon polyps
–Generally sessile and when compared with tubular adenomas, are larger and more likely to cause symptoms such as rectal bleeding, mucous discharge or diarrhea
–Significantly higher risk for malignancy
–~40-50% contain cancer and 1/2 of those are invasive

Haggitt’s classification of cancer-containing colorectal polyps

  • Level 0 = Carcinoma does not invade the muscularis mucosae (Carcinoma in situ or intramucosal carcinoma)
  • Level 1 = Carcinoma invades through the muscularis mucosae into the submucosa but is limited to the head of the polyp
  • Level 2 = Carcinoma invades the level of the neck of the polyp
  • Level 3 = Carcinoma invades any part of the stalk
  • Level 4 = Carcinoma invades into the submucosa of the bowel wall below the stalk of the polyp but above the muscularis propria. These lesions should be considered an invasive colorectal cancer
39
Q

RUSH–COLON

A pedunculated 1.5 cm tubular adenoma is removed endoscopically from the sigmoid colon and found to contain well differentiated adenocarcinoma extending to but not beyond the muscularis mucosae. The margin of resection is free of tumor Select the best therapeutic option

A. Observation only
B. Endoscopic fulguration of the polypectomy site
C. Operative colectomy and excision of the polypectomy site
D. Sigmoid colectomy
E. Laparoscopic segmental colectomy

A

A

This is a carcinoma in situ and is tx adequate by endoscopic polypectomy. B/C lymphatic plexus exists just below the muscularis mucosae, lymphatic dissemination is possible only when invasion beyond this structure has occurred. Muscularis mucosae of the colon wall may extend for a variable distance into the stalk of the polyp and may not even reach the head.

Pedunculated polyps consiste of 4 anatomic levels: level 1 is the head itself, level 2 is the interface between the head and the stalk, level 3 is the stalk, and level 4 is the junction between the stalk and the colonic wall

Endoscopic polypectomy should be considered adequate treatment for a polyp containing invasive cancer at level 1, 2, or 3, if the carcinoma is well differentiated and does not exhibit invaion of the veins or lypmphatics and the resection margins are free of cancer
(Ex: tubuluar adenoma with well differentiated cancer extening to level 3 as long as there was no evidence of venous or lymphatic invasion and margin of resection was free of disease)

Poorly differentiated cancer extending to level 2, however, would require formal segmental resection either laparoscopically or by open means. Similarly, polyp with cancer extending to level 4 requires segmental resection, regardless of differentiation or vascular invasion

Laparoscopic colectomy is now becoming widely accepted operation for curative colon cancer. No difference in intraop complications, reoperations, survival and tumor recurrence.

This patient does not need any further treatment other than observation and endoscopic surveillance of the polypectomy site.

40
Q

RUSH–COLON

A biopsy specimen of a villous lesion of the rectum beginning 4 cm from the anal verge and extending proximally for 5 cm exhibits cellular atypia. Transrectal U/S shows that the muscularis propria is not involve. No suspicious LNs are seen. Which of the following steps is the most appropriate for management?

A. Repeated biopsy
B. Fulguration
C. Transanal excision
D. APR
E. Intracavitary radiotherapy
A

C

Villous adenoma with the dimensions given has 30-50% chance of harboring cancer. Sigmoidoscopic bx represents a limited sample size and is not adequate proof of the lesion’s precise histologic characteristics. The finding of atypia suggests a high probability of cancer elsewhere in the adenoma

Complete full thickness trans anal excision of the lesion should be performed so that if a carcinoma is present, its depth of penetration can be assess accurately.

If there is no invasive cancer, pt is monitored by interval endoscopic exam b/c of risk of recurrence is approx 10%, even though the initial lesion was benign.

If invasive cancer is found, need for further tx i determined on the basis of the depth of penetration. T1 cancer is adequately tx with tranasnal excision, provided that the tumor is well differentiated, lacks vascular or lymphatic invasion and margins of excision are neg. T2 cancer should be tx by radical resection. Alternatively, irradiation +/- chemo may be appropriate, but long term studies are needed to determine the efficacy.

Fulguration can be performed in elderly or poor risk patients in whom precise histologic staging is not essential. Not the standard of care for good risk patients.

If there is local recurrence after transanal excision of a benign lesion, endoscopic fulgration, argon plasma coagulation, or repeated transanal excision may be considered. APR is rarely indicated for benign polyps b/c there are so many tx options that are less radical. Intracavitary radiotherpay is reserve for superficial malignant lesions and is not the preferred tx for this case

41
Q

RUSH–COLON

With regard to screening cancer, which of the following is true?

A. Barium enema alone is the most cost effective means of screening asymptomatic patients
B. Screening in the general population should begin at 60 yrs of age
C. FOBT is an adequate screening tool for colon cancer
D. When combines with flex sig, FOBT is an acceptable screening option in average risk individuals
E. For patients with familial polyposis, colonoscopy should be performed every 6 months beginning at age 20

A

D in answer key but C is also correct according to Canadian Guidelines

Screening asymptomatic, low risk patients for CRC must be accomplished with a cost effective means that encourages patients’ compliance. Test that easily accomplishes these goals is annula exam of the stool for occult blood (FOBT). Uses peroxidase like activity of hemoglobin. Stools are collected on three separate occasions and smeared on filter paper impregnated with guiac solution. Hydrogen peroxide is added, and if Hc is present to catalyze the reaction, the colorless guaiac is oxidized to a blue colored quinone. Prolonged storage of test slides may interfere with proper performance of the test. Normal blood loss in stool is 2 mg of Hb per gram of stool. FOBT requires fecal blood loss of 10 mg of Hb per gram of stool to obtain a positive result

Mass screening programs yield positive results in 1-8% of patients. PPV of a positive test result is 10% for cancer and 30% for adenoma. Dx a higher percentage of early localized cancers than may be expected otherwise. Not a precise test. Ex: small adenomas and cancers not actively bleeding may not yield a positive result. In fact, in patients with a known cancer, sensitivity of FOBT is 50-85%. Not clear whether the mortality from CRC is reduced by FOBT alone. When annual FOBT is combined with periodic flex sig, there is evidence to suggest that cancer mortality is reduced. When use as a screening tool, barium enema is combined with sigmoidoscopy and is performed q5 yrs. Alternatively, colonoscopy may be performed q10 yrs.

Current screening practices for asymp patients endorsed by the American Cancer Society consist of the following: annual DRE with FOBT beginning at age 40 and flex sig at age 50. If the findings are normal, repeat flex sig at 3-5 yrs. If a polyp is found, remainder of colon must be examined with colonoscopy. Alternative screening tests for asymp patients include colonoscopy or the combo of flex sig and barium enema

Screening is not a term that applies to high risk conditions such as familial polyposis and HNPCC. High likelihood of finding neoplastic lesions, coupled with the increased risk to the patient if the tumors are not found, mandate tests in addition to FOBT.

Patients at risk for familial polyposis, flex sig annually beginning at puberty. If disease does not become apparent by the age of 40, patient probably does not have it.
Patients at risk for HNPCC should undergo colonoscopy beginning at age 25.
Alternatively, genetic testing can be performed. If an at risk individual test negative, that person can be spared the intense endoscopic surveillance programs and instead undergo screening used for general population

42
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following is the most common site of colon metastasis?

A. Brain
B. Lymph nodes
C. Direct organ extension
D. Peritoneal dissemination
E. Incisional implantation
A

B

Of the various mechanisms by which colon cancer may spread, lymphatic route to regional mesenteric LNs is the most common. This has surgical importance since it dictates the extent of resection necessary when operative with curative intent. Hematogenous spread from colon cancer is primarily via the portal circulation to the liver. Cells that escape this filter can reach the lungs and rarely the brain

Rectal cancers can metastasize to the spine via the Batson plexus. B/c the rectum has dual venous drainage–through the portal vein and the inferior hemorrhoidal veins into the iliac veins–malignant cells may reach the liver or lungs. Distal rectal cancers may spread to the lungs without entering the portal circulation. Direct extension to adjacent structures can occur +-/ distant mets

If colon cancer has broken through the serosal surface, implantation on the peritoneal surface, locally or widely, can result and thus accounts for metastatic deposits in the retrovesical pouch (Blumer shelf), in the peritoneum under the umbilicus (Sister May Joseph nodule), and in the ovary (Kruckenberg tumor,) Incisional implantation is rare form of tumor recurrence. Tumor implantation in surgical wounds seems to occur with equal freq whether the operation was performed lap or open and may reflect widespread intra abdo disease.

43
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following is the most important prognostic determinant of survival after tx of CRC?

A. Lymph node involvement
B. Transmural extension
C. Tumor size 
D. Histologic differentiation
E. DNA content
A

A

Of the many variable that affect the cure of patients with colon cancer, status of LNs has consistently remained the most important. Long term survival of node positive patients is ~1/2 of node neg patients. Patients with four or more positive LNs have a lower 5 yr survival rate than patients with 3 or < postive nodes

Tumor size has no bearing on metastatic potential or prognosis.

DNA content of colorectal tumors has been studied and aneuploidy seems to correlate well with histologic differentiation, transmural penetration and presence of nodal mets. DNA content has not been shoen consclusively to be an important independent prognostic indicator.

Microsatellite instability has also not been shown conclusively to be an independent prognotic indicator. Meta-analysis of 32 studies involving 7642 patients noted that only 15% of CRC population had MSI reflecting inactivation of mismatch repair genes. IN the remained of the colorectal population (85%), colon cancer developed from the microsatellite stable pathway and included aneuploidy, allelle losses, amplifications, and translocations. In the study, microsatellute instability was assoc with a better prognosis

44
Q

RUSH–COLON

54M underwent R hemi. Pathologic analysis showed invasion of tumor into muscularis propria, with 2 of 18 LNs positive for tumor. What is his pathologic staging?

A. Dukes A
B. Astler-Coller A
C. T2N1 (Stage IIIA)
D. T2N1 (Stage IIB)
E. T3N2 (Stage IIIA)
A

C

Dukes classification was the original standardized method for staging CRC. In subsequent yrs, however, confusion has arisen b/c of modifications. Astler and Coller modified the classification by defining an A lesion as confined to the mucosa and submucosa, B1 lesion does not penetrate beyond the muscularis propria and nodes are neg, B2 is through the wall with neg nodes, C1 and C2 parallel above but nodes are positive

TNM classification is most widely used classification of colorectal cancer presently used.
T1 invades submucosa
T2 invades muscularis propria
T3 invades through muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues
T4a penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum
T4b directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures
N0 No regional LN mets
N1 1-3 regional LNs
N1a Mets in one regional LN
N1b Mets in 2-3 regional LNs
N1c Tumor deposits in subserosa, mesentery, or non peritonelaized pericolic or perirectal tissued without regional nodal mets
N2 Mets in 4 or > regional LNs
N2a Mets in 4-6 regional LNs
N2b Mets in 7 or > regional LNs
M0 No distant mets
M1 Distant mets
M1a Mets confined to one organ or site (liver, lung, overay nonregional node)
M1b Mets in > 1 organ/site or the peritoneum

Stage 
I T1, T2 and N0
IIA T3N0
IIB T4aN0
IIC T4bN0
IIIA T1/T2N1/N1c or T1/N2a
IIIB T3/T4N1/N1c or T2/T3N2a or T1/T2N2b
IIIC T4aN2a or T3/T4aN2b or T4b/N1-N2 
IVa Any T, Any N and M1a
IVb Any T, Any N and M1b 

Stage I colon cancer pts have 5 yr survival rate of 90%. Stage II that have had appropriate surgical rescetion have a 5 yr survival about 75%. Stage III cancer tx by surgery alon has a 5 yr survival of 50%. Stage IV colon cancer carries a poor prognosis with a 5 yr survival of <5%

45
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following is the appropriate operation for a sigmoid cancer that has not metastasize distantly?

A. Segmental resection of the sigmoid
B. Resection of the entire sigmoid and distal descending colon, sparing the main L colic artery
C. Resection of the sigmoid and descending colon, including the IMA artery at its origin
D. Resection of the entire colon proximal to the lesion with ileorectostomy
E. Including routine concomitant oophorectomy at the time of colectomy.

A

B

Respective draining mesenteric LNs and the vascular supply to an area of colon determine the amt of resection necessary when operating with intent to cure.

IMA arises from the aorta 3-4 cm above the aortic bifurcation. It bifurcates after 3 cm into the L colic artery, which ascends in the mesentery and into the sigmoidal branches.

For sigmoid cancer without evidence of distal spread, resection should include, at a minimum, entire sigmoid and distal descending colon and the accompanying mesentery to include the sigmoidal and superior hemorroidal vessels but sparing the L colic artery. More extensive mesenteric resection with ligation of the IMA at its origin, is advocated by some, altough there is no conclusive evidence that it improves survival rate. If there are positive LNs at the root of the IMA, the patient may not be curable. Therefore, this is not considered the standard approach to the mesentery.

Resection of the entire intra-abdominal colon can be considered for patients with an obstructing cancer b/c resection of dilated stool laden colon may safely permit an ileorectostomy rathe than a colostomy. Other indications for total colectomy include syncrhonous cancers in separate segments of colon or cancer in high risk (younger) patients who require lifelong surveillance. Oophorectomy may be considered in post menopausal women b/c ~6% of these patinets have simultaneous drop mets to the ovaries. It has not been establised that routine ppx oophorectomy improved survival. Furthermore, only 1.4% of women with CRC subsequently require an operation for a recurrence in the ovary

46
Q

RUSH–COLON

At the time of surgery for left colon obstruction, you find a thickened segment of colon with a narrow lumen and proximal bowel impacted with stool. There are no liver mets palpated. The following are appropriate initial operative strategies for this patient except:

A. Stricturoplasty
B. Resection and primary anastomosis following intraoperative colonic irrigation
C. Initial decompressive colostomy following by resection within 7-10 days
D. Primary L colectomy, colostomy and either a Harmann pouch or mucus fistula
E. Primary subototal colectomy and ileocolic anastomosis

A

A… although C sounds crazy

Cancer is leading cause of colon obstruction and L sided tumors in particular are susceptible to obstruction. For L sided tumors producing obstruction, traditional surgical approach has been an initial decompressive transverse colostomy followed at a second stage by a resection within 7-10 days and possible a third operation for closure of colostomy.

Initial tx by decompressive colostomy alone is still appropriate, particularly for poor risk patients but resection of the obstructing pathologic entity is more commonly performed today. Therefore, for many patients with obstructing left sided tumors, the preferred operation is primary resection accompanied by a Hartmann proceudre or creation of a mucus fistula. Reanastomosis is performed at a second stage. Some advocate primary subtotal colectomy with an ileocolic anastomosis as a one stage procedure. Most R and transverse colon cancer with obstruction can be tx safely by primary resection and reanastomosis as a one stage procedure. This is now becoming an acceptable surgical option for L sided, non perforated obstructing lesions as well

In the absence of peritonitis or perforation, an alternative approach consists of resection followed by intraop colonic irrigation and then primary anastomosis. Irrigation is accomplished with several liters of saline solution administered through either a cecostomy or appendicostomy. Effluent is discharged through large caliber tubing inserted into the open end of the L colon. Leak rate of 5-7%. Recently colonic stents have been used to palliate poor surgical candidates with impending obstruction. Stents in the setting of acute obstruction allow temporary relief of the obstruction. Ultimately, a full bowel prep can be performed with an improved chance for an elective resection with primary anastomosis. Stricturoplasty has no role in managing colon obstruction when cancer has not been excluded.

47
Q

RUSH–COLON

54M evaluated by his physician for rectal bleeding. On evaluation, he also reveals a hx of constipation and rectal fullness. He underwent a colonoscopy that showed a 3 cm mass 2 cm above the dentate line. Pathologic analysis and immunohistochemical staining reveal a neuroendocrine cancer that contained a large amount of amine precursor (5-hydroxytryptophan). Which statement is correct regarding this tumor?

A. This tumor occurs at equal frequency in the colon and rectum
B. The incidence of invasive malignancy and metastases correlated with location of the tumor
C. This tumor, when found in the rectum, frequently causes flushing, diarrhea, and heat intolerance
D. This malignant tumor of the colon and rectum can be tx by enucleation
E. Invasive rectal lesions >2 cm are best tx by APR

A

E

Patient has a carcinoid tumor of the rectum. Carcinoid, a neuroendocrine tumor of the colon and rectum represents a wide and diverse group of neoplasms that range from completely benign lesions to poorly differentiated cancers with an extremely dismal prognosis. Share the capability of storing large amts of an amine precursor (5 hydroxytryptophan) and through the amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (APUD) system, these lesions produce several biologically active amines.

GI tract is most common site for carcinoid formation. IN decr order of freq, most freq locations are the appendix, ileum, rectum, stomach and colon. Colon carcinoids account for only 2.5% of all GI carcinoids, whereas rectal carcinoids account for 12-15% . Incidence of invasive malignancy and mets to regional LNs correlates well with the size of the carcinoid for both colonic and rectal lesions. Ex: when rectal carcinoids are >2 cm, only 5-10% are benign, whereas a lesion <2 cm is malignant only 5% of the time.

B/c rectal carcinoids <2 cm rarely demonstrate invasion of the muscularis or LN mets, they may be excised transanally. Rectal lesions > 2 cm or those that have penetrated into the muscularis are best tx by APR or LAR if possible. If malignant, colon carcinoids should be tx by formal segmental resection with accompanying LN bearing tissue. Up to 2/3 with neuroendocrine cancers of the colon are found to have either local spread or systemic mets at the time of dx. If disseminated disease is present, resection of primary lesion is still recommended to alleviate symptoms and avoid bleeding and obstruction. Carcinoids of the colon and rectum infrequently produce carcinoid syndrome unless systemic mets have occurred

48
Q

RUSH–COLON

In which of the following situations should LAR be performed?

A. A circumferential villous adenoma beginning at the dentate line and extending proximally 8 cm
B. Palliation of obstructing rectal cancer just above the dentate line with minimal liver mets
C. Rectal cancer that produces anal pain and tensemus
D. Anastomotic recurrence after LAR of a distal rectal cancer
E. Elderly patient with pre-existing urinary incontinence and a rectal cancer 5 cm above the dentate line

A

E

APR is frequently required for cancers of the mid and distal parts of the rectum. Includes a permanent colostomy and is accompanied by complications such as impotence and bladder dysfcn. Indicated for malignant rather than benign lesions. Large and even circumferential rectal adenomas can be removed with a variety of transanal techniques that preserve the sphincter and fecal continence. Curative resection of cancer in the mid and even distal portions of the rectum can be performed by LAR and colorectostomy or by coloanal anastomosis without the need for permanent colostomy, depending on the exact extent of the lesion, size of the patient’s pelvis, and the skill of the surgeon. Distal mural margin of 2cm and adequate mesorectal excision must be achieved.

APR is usually performed with curative intent, althought it is justified for symptomatic patients with minimal metastatic disease who are expected to survive 6 months or >, Cancer that produced anal pain and tenesmus usually involves the sphincter muscle. Recurrent cancer following low resection of a distal cancer usually mandates APR. Fecal incontinence will probably worsen following LAR and a deep pelvic anast

49
Q

RUSH–COLON

A patient undergoes EUS for staging of a recently dx rectal cancer 5 cm from the dentate line. U/S shows a tumor extending through the muscularis propria with 3 surrounding LNs, each measuring 1 cm. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

A. APR
B. LAR with TME
C. Preop chemo and radiation
D. Preop external beam radiation therapy
E. Preop chemo
A

C

Adjuvant chemo and radition have been studied in an attempt to determine their imapct on survival and recurrence rates for rectal cancer

The GI TUmor Study Group (GISTG) and National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Protocol (NSABP) R01 have shown that post op radiation therapy reduces local recurrence rate but its impact on survival rates was not significant

A randomized Swedish trial showed that short course of 25 Gy in 5 fractions administered preop reduced local failure and improved 5 year survival in comparison with surgery alone. Another Swedish study compared this preop regimen with 60Gy in 30 fractions postop and showed significantly better locoregional control with the preop treatment. NO chemo was administered

The GISTG and the North Central Cancer Treatment Group (NCCTG) investigated the combo of 5FU and methyl CCNU and post op irradiation for Dukes B and C cancer of the recutm and found a reduction in recurrent and improvement in 5 year survival rates. This combined therapy is accompanied by significant toxicity. Only ~65% of patients are able to complete tx. S/e included diarrhea, leukopenia, and enteritis. Postop regimens now generally omit methyl CCNU and tolerance is better

An encouraging trend in mgmt of rectal cancer is the use of preop combined chemo and radiation for stage T3 tumors or any tumor that has evidence of nodal mets on rectal US. This regimen acts to downstage tumors and improve resectability. Advocates of this protocol claim that sphincter preservatino is likely to be enhanced but this advantage remains to be see. It is of note that up to 20-30% of patietns have a complete response to tx. Preop combined therapy is becoming the standad for locally advanced neoplasms

In summary, 1) post op radiation therapy alone reduced locoregional recurrence rates but has not been shown to have an effect on survival, 2) post op radiation therapy combined with chemo reduces recurrence rates, improves survival and is indicated for lesions that either have penetrated into fate or exhibit LN mets, 3) preop radiation therapy alone reduces recurrence tates and may improve survival and 4) preop radiation therapy combined with chemo downstages tumors, improves resectability and induces a complete response in some pts.

50
Q

RUSH–COLON

With regard to radiation induced enterocolitis, which of the following statements is true?

A. Histologically, subintimal foam cells are pathognomonic, and additional changes include progressive vasculitis of the submucosal arteries
B. The splenic flexure is the most common site of injury
C. Rectovaginal fistulas secondary to irradiation can be treated only by fecal diversion
D. Long segments of strictured small bowel are best tx by resection
E. The prevalence of rectal cancer in patients who have previously received pelvic radiation therapy is similar to that in patients without previous exposure to radiation

A

A

Incidence of radiation induced enterocolitis is dose dependent. Substantial bowel injury is uncommon with external doses of <4000 rad. In addition to the radiation dose, other factors that may predispose to injury include advanced age, HTN, arteriosclerosis, diabetes, and adhesions that fix the bowel to a constant location.

After cessation of raidation, denuded intestinal epithelium regenerates. In the vessels, however, progressive vasculitis develops that may lead to thickening of the vessel wall and progressive diminution of the vessel lumen with occlusion or thrombosis (or both)

Rectum is most common site of injury b.c of it proximity to the most frequently targeted organs (i.e. cervis, uterus and prostate) and its fixed location within the pelvis. When rectal ulcers occur, they are located on the anterior wall about 4 to 6 cm from the dentate line. Rectal strictures usually occur at the 8-12 cm level. Hemorrhagic radiation-induced proctitis can occur as well. This disease usually arises 12-24 months after radiotherapy. Medical tx including hydrocortisone, sucralfate, fatty acid enemas, and 5 ASA can have variable results. 4% formalin per rectum is an alternative option that is generally well tolerated and safe. Argon plasma coagulator is a more invasive modality that is a popular option; however it is assoc with chronic rectal ulceraion, strictures, rectovaginal fistulas and bowel perforation.

In patients with rectovaginal fistual, every attempt should be made to rule out recurrence of cancer as the cause of the fistula. If cancer is present, fecal diversion usually palliates the symptoms. In the absence of recurrent cancer and in select patients, an attempt can be made to correct the fistula. Operative correction must interpost nonradiated tissue between the rectum and the vagina after the fistulous openings have been closed. When possible, anterior resection or coloanal pull through, with the non radiated intestine used for the proximal anastomotic limb is preferred. Aforementioned precautions ensure primary healing notwithstanding, proximal temporary fecal diversion in the form of a colostomy should be performed.

Prev pelvic irradiation does predispose to rectosigmoid cancer after a latent period of several years. For this reason, flx sig is advised on a periodic basis.

In summary, when treating radiation-induced enterocolitis, the following principles should be observed: 1) avoid an operation unless no other option exists, 2) resect short segments but bypass long segments of diseased small bowel, 3) avoid extensive adhesiolysis, and 4) safeguard against an anastomotic leak with a temporary proximal colostomy

51
Q

RUSH–COLON

Which of the following pathology warrants APR?

A. Fixed circumferential adenocarcinoma just above the dentate line
B. Ulcerating adenocarcinoma whose lower edges is 7 cm from the dentate line, with infiltration and expansion of the second hypoechoid layer on U/S imaging
C. 2 cm mobile adenocarcinoma arising in a villous adenoma 3 cm from the dentate line, with an intact second hypoechoic band seen on U/S
D. Circumferential adenocarcinoma 12 cm from the anal verge
E. A 1.5 cm carcinoid 5 cm from the dentate line

A

A

Most important determinant of which operation to perform for a rectal cancer is the location of the lesion within the rectum. Tumors 0-5 cm from the anal verge, esepcially those that involve the sphincter muscule and are producing pain, are best tx by APR. ~10-15% of tumors in this region, however, can be considered for local excision if they satisfy strict selection criteria. They should be no larger than 3-4 cm, exhibit minimal penetration of rectal wall as seen on rectal US, lack lymphovascular invasion and be well differentiated. Occasionally a coloanal anastomosis can be performed in thin patients, especially if there has been significant reduction in the size of the tumor as a result of preop radiation and chemo.

Lesions in the upper part of the rectum (10-15 cm) are amenable to anterior resection with restoration of intestinal continuity.

Lesions in the mid rectum (5-10 cm) are tx by a variety of operations, depending on the skill of the surgeon and the patient’s body habitus. Most cancers in this region can be tx by LAR or coloanal anastomosis. In the latter case, a proximal temporary colostomy is contructed to divert stool away from anastomosis. Impaired fecal continence has been noted in 10-35% of patients after coloanal anastomosis. However, construction of a colonic J pouch or performance of coloplasty may avoid freq stools and incontinence. Decision with regard to the appropriateness of sphincter preservation must be individualized and safety is a primary concern. If the patient is obese or the pelvis is narrow and a satisfactory anastomosis can’t be performed, APR or LAR with coloanal anastomosis is an option for mid rectal cancers. In addition, if sphincter impairment is present preop b/c of age or prev surgery, a low anast should be avoided.

For low rectal carcinoids larger than 2 cm, transabdominal surgery with lymphadenectomy should be performed. APR would probably be indicated for the patient described in choice E if penetration in to the muscularis propria were noted but LAR with coloanal anastomosis could be considered as well

52
Q

RUSH–COLON

58M is found to have bx proven sigmoid colon cancer during colonoscopy. Staging abdo CT does not reveal any evidence of mets. In consultation about lap vs open colectomy, you inform the patient that:

A. Open colectomy has lower disease free survival
B. Lap colectomy has a higher recurrence rate
C. Lap colectomy has a higher complication rate
D. There is no difference in parenteral narcotic used between post op lap and open colectomy
E. There is no difference in reoperation rates between lap and open colectomy

A

E

The COST study group conducted an RCT involving 872 patients between 1994 and 2001 to compare laparoscopic and open colectomy for curative resection for cancer. This trial concluded that there is no difference in disease free survival, recurrence rates, complication rates, and reoperation rates between the lap and open groups when laparoscopy was performed by skilled and experienced surgeons. The lap group was found to have a shorter hospital stay and shorter use of parenteral narcotics. Patients with intraop evidence of locally advanced disease should undergo conversion to open to ensure proper tumor management. Thus, laparoscopy is an acceptable option for colon cancer without evidence of distal mets or locally advanced disease

53
Q

SCHWARTZ’s–COLON

Which of the following is a branch of the IMA?

A. Middle colic
B. Ileocolic
C. Sigmoidal
D. R colic

A

C

SMA–> ileocolic (absent in 20%), R colic, middle colic
IMA–> L colic, sigmoidal branches, superrectal

Marginal artery of Drummond results in communication of terminal branches of each artery and only compete in 15-20%

54
Q

SCHWARTZ’s–COLON

Bacteria make up what percentage of dry wt of feces?

A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%

A

B

Anaerobes are predominant class of microorganism, and Bacteroids species are the most common. E. coli are the most numerous aerobe

55
Q

SCHWARTZ’s–COLON

Which of the following is assoc with colorectal carcinoma?

A. Activation of K-ras gene
B. Activation of APC
C. Activation of DCC (deleted in colorectal carcinoma)
D. Activation of p53

A

A

Activation of oncogenes (K-ras) and/or inactivation of tumor suppressor genes (APC, DCC, and p53). Colorectal adenocarcinoma is thought to develop from adenomatous polyps by accumulation of these mutations

56
Q

SCHWARTZ’s–COLON

Deletion in tumor suppressor phosphatase and tensin homolog (PTEN) is associated with all of the following except

A. FAP
B. Peutz-Jeghrs
C. Juvenile Polyposis
D. Cowden syndrome

A

A

Deletion of PTEN appears to be involved in a number of harmatomatous polyp syndromes. Identified in Peutz Jeghrs, Cowden and PTEN-harmatoma syndrome in addition to MEN IIB

57
Q

SCHWARTZ’s–COLON

Which of the following is important in maintaining the integrity of the colonic mucosa?

A. Short chain fatty acids
B. Alanine
C. Medium chain fatty acids
D. Glutamine

A

A

SCFA (acetate, butyrate, and propionate) are produced by bacterial fermentation of dietary carbohydrates. Important source of energy for colonic mucosa and metabolism by colonocytes provides energy for processessuch as active transport of sodium. Lack of a dietary source for production of SCFA or diversion of fecal stream by an ileostomy or colostomy may result in mucosal atrophy and diversion colitis.

58
Q

SCHWARTZ’s–COLON

Parasympathetic innervations to the transverse colon are from:

A. T6-12
B. L1-L3
C. S2-S4
D. Vagus nerve

A

D

Colon is innervated by sympathetic (inhibitory) and parasympathetic (stimulartory) nerves, which parallel the course of the arteries.

Sympathetic nerves arise from T6-T12 and L1-L3.

Parasympathetic innervation to R and transverse colon is from vagus nerve; PSNS nerves to L colon arise from sacral nerves S2-S4 to form the nervi erigentes

59
Q

SCHWARTZ’s–COLON

Origin of the middle rectal artery is the:
A. IMA
B. Iliac
C. Internal pudendal
D. Inferior epigastric
A

B

Superior rectal arises from IMA. Middle rectal arises from iliac. Inferior rectal arises from internal pudendal, which is a branch of the internal iliac.

60
Q

SCHWARTZ’s–COLON

CRCs which develop from defects in the RER (replication error repair) pathway when compared to tumors which develop from the LOH (loss of heterozygosity) pathway

A. Occur more commonly in the L colon
B. Have a worse prognosis
C. Possess diploid DNA
D. Express microsatellite instability

A

RER pathway is assoc with microsatellite instabilit (MSI). Microsatellites are regions of the genome in which short base pair segments are repeated several times. These areas are particularly prone to RER. Consequently, a mutation in a mismatch repair gene produces variable lengths of these repetitive sequences, a finding that has been described as microsatellite instability. ~15% of CRC are assoc with MSI

Tumors assoc with MSI have different biologic characteristics than do tumors that result from LOH pathway. Tumors with MSI are more likely to be R sided, possess diploid DNA and are assoc with a better prognosis than tumors that arise from LOH pathway that are microsatellite stable. Tumors arising from LOH tend to occur in the more distal colon, often have chromosomal aneuploidy and are assoc with poorer prognosis.