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Pathology 1 > Colloquium 1 > Flashcards

Colloquium 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Metaplasia:
a) in epithelial cells
b) in mesenchymal cells
c) reversible
d) irreversible
e) is precancerous

A

a) in epithelial cells
b) in mesenchymal cells
c) reversible

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2
Q

The basic pathological process is a greatly increased permeability of alveolar capillaries caused by damage to
the alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium:
a) brochopneumonia
b) interstitial pneumonia
c) ARDS
d) pulmonary edema e)nodular pneumonia

A

c) ARDS

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3
Q

The most common source of pulmonary thromboembolism:
a) from the deep veins of the lower extremities
b) other incorrect answers

A

a) from the deep veins of the lower extremities

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4
Q

Steatonecrosis of the pancreas:
a) acute pancreatitis
b) bleeding may be present
c) due to the action of proteolytic enzymes (lipases)
d) most often due to infarction of the artery that feeds the pancreas
d) due to ischemia

A

a) acute pancreatitis
b) bleeding may be present
c) due to the action of proteolytic enzymes (lipases)

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5
Q

Liver congestion:
a) L heart failure
b) D heart failure
c) hepatocytes are normal
d) nutmeg structure
e) hepatocytes necrotic, atrophied

A

b) D heart failure
d) nutmeg structure
e) hepatocytes necrotic, atrophied

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6
Q

Tuberculous granuloma:
a) caseous necrosis
b) epithelial cells
c) lymphocytes
d) asteroid bodies

A

a) caseous necrosis
b) epithelial cells
c) lymphocytes

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7
Q

Liver cirrhosis - the most common causes:
a) alcoholism
b) viral hepatitis

A

a) alcoholism
b) viral hepatitis

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8
Q

Ulcerative colitis:
a) submucosa and mucosa
b) from the rectum upwards, continuously c) may be precancerous
d) is a systemic disease
d) from the rectum to the mouth

A

a) submucosa and mucosa
b) from the rectum upwards, continuously c) may be precancerous

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9
Q

Bottom of peptic ulcer:
a) fibrin exudate
b) granulation tissue and binder
c) peptic necrosis

A

a) fibrin exudate

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10
Q

What is characteristic of regeneration
a) proliferation of parenchymal cells
b) complete restoration
c) organization
d) binder proliferation
e) scar

A

a) proliferation of parenchymal cells
b) complete restoration

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11
Q

For squamous cell metaplasia, it is typical
A) it can be causally related to papilloma viruses
B) can lead to precancerous and cancerous changes
C) mature epithelial cells replace immature ones
D) only epithelial cell metaplasia is possible

A

A) it can be causally related to papilloma viruses
B) can lead to precancerous and cancerous changes

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12
Q

Prostate hyperplasia
A) It is a precancerous change
B) Epithelial, muscular, connective tissue is multiplied
C) The periurethral part is enlarged
D) enlarged peripheral part
E) causes micturition disorders

A

C) The periurethral part is enlarged
E) causes micturition disorders

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13
Q

Choose the correct statements
A) Hemosiderin pigment most often accumulates in the parenchyma
(periport. Hepatoc., Kupf. Cel.)
B) Hemochromatosis can be primary or secondary (=> 1o hereditary, autos. Rec. Prescription. For transf.)
C) hemosiderin may accumulate in the pancreas
D) lipofuscin is a hemoglobin pigment
E) hemosiderin belongs to the bile pigments

A

A) Hemosiderin pigment most often accumulates in the parenchyma
(periport. Hepatoc., Kupf. Cel.)
B) Hemochromatosis can be primary or secondary (=> 1o hereditary, autos. Rec. Prescription. For transf.)
C) hemosiderin may accumulate in the pancreas

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14
Q

Cell adaptation reactions do NOT include fat transformation
atrophy
hypertrophy
hyperplasia
metaplasia

A

fat transformation

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15
Q

Choose the correct statement:
A) phlegmonous inflammation is most common in the subcutaneous tissue and muscles
B) purulent ascending pyelonephritis is a destructive tubulointerstitial inflammation
C) g.a. pyelonephritis is always bilateral
D) hemolytic streptococcus releases elastase, which breaks down tissue
E) g. a. pyelonephritis is caused by gram
+ bacteria

A

A) phlegmonous inflammation is most common in the subcutaneous tissue and muscles
B) purulent ascending pyelonephritis is a destructive tubulointerstitial inflammation

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16
Q

Tubercles are characteristic of:
Koch’s bacillus
rheumatoid fever
rheumatoid arthritis
Crohn’s disease
sarcoidosis

A

Koch’s bacillus

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17
Q

Sarcoid granulomas are most common in
a. lymph nodes of the pulmonary hilus
b. Skin
c. Eye
d. Spleen

A

a. lymph nodes of the pulmonary hilus

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18
Q

Select the WRONG claims about HP gastritis
A) most common in children
B) proliferative inflammation (=> alterative, necrotic, ulcerative)
C) can lead to mucosal metaplasia
D) always leads to the development of ulcers

A

A) most common in children
B) proliferative inflammation (=> alterative, necrotic, ulcerative)

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19
Q

Fibrin pericarditis
A copious exudate can be organized
B in the mild form, fibrin can be resorbed
C the heart is smooth, shining
D can be caused by a myocardial infarction
E most common is primary, viral pericarditis

A

A copious exudate can be organized
B in the mild form, fibrin can be resorbed
D can be caused by a myocardial infarction

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20
Q

Chronic catarrhal bronchitis
A) it is characterized by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the glands
B) increased mucin excretion
C) purulent exudate
D) is caused by pollen allergy
E) increased mucus secretion

A

A it is characterized by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the glands
B increased mucin excretion
E increased mucus secretion

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21
Q

Alveolar pneumonia includes:
a) interstitial pneumonia
b) lobar pneumonia
c) nodular pneumonia
d) bronchopneumonia
d) ARDS

A

b) lobar pneumonia
d) bronchopneumonia

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22
Q

The passage through dilated blood vessels in inflammation is:
a) diapedesis
b) transudation
c) exudation
d) bleeding
e) effusion

A

a) diapedesis
b) transudation
c) exudation

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23
Q

Dispersed purulent inflammation is also called:
a) abscess
b) abscess
c) phlegmon
h) gangrene
e) necrosis

A

c) phlegmon

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24
Q

White (anemic) infarction is characteristic of:
a) heart
b) lungs
c) kidney
d) gastrointestinal tract
d) liver

A

a) heart
c) kidney

25
Q

The origin of tromboembolism in the lungs is usually:
a) superficial veins of the lower extremity
b) deep veins of the lower extremity
c) superficial veins of the upper extremity

A

b) deep veins of the lower extremity

26
Q

Characteristics of prostate hyperplasia:
a) causes micturition disorder in young men
b) the periurethral
glands are multiplied
c) peripheral glands are multiplied
d) caused by hormonal imbalance with estrogen predominance
d) glands multiply, surrounding connective tissue and muscle

A

b) the periurethral
glands are multiplied
d) glands multiply, surrounding connective tissue and muscle

27
Q

What accumulates in the alveoli with pulmonary edema:
a) transudate
b) exudate
c) inflammatory infiltrate
d) water
e) blood

A

a) transudate
b) exudate

28
Q

changes in the cell in ischemic failure are as follows
a) apoptosis
b) cell swelling
c) acidosis
d) cessation of ATP formation
e) deposition of calcium in the mitochondria

A

a) apoptosis
d) cessation of ATP formation
e) deposition of calcium in the mitochondria

29
Q

The characteristics of a foreign granuloma are:
a) the foreign substance may be an endogenous or exogenous substance
b) foreign granuloma is formed due to mechanical and chemical irritation
c) there is always an abundant purulent exudate in the central part of the foreign granuloma
d) Langhans giants are also often found in foreign granuloma
e) occurs due to a secondary bacterial infection.

A

a) the foreign substance may be an endogenous or exogenous substance
b) foreign granuloma is formed due to mechanical and chemical irritation

30
Q

The underdevelopment of an organ due to the absence of genetic design is called:
a) hypoplasia
b) atrophy
c) agenesis
d) aplasia
e) atresia

A

c) agenesis

31
Q

Diffuse purulent inflammation is called:
a) abscess
b) empyema
c) phlegmon
d) granuloma
e) gangrene

A

c) phlegmon

32
Q

Among the diseases accompanied by an increased incidence of cancer are:
a) Barrett’s poser
b) peptic ulcer of the duodenum
c) ulcerative colitis
d) chronic atrophic gastritis
e) diverticulitis

A

a) Barrett’s poser
c) ulcerative colitis
d) chronic atrophic gastritis

33
Q

Barrett’s poser means:
a) dysplasia of the mucosa of the esophagus
b) metaplasia of the mucosa of the esophagus into the glandular mucosa as normal in the stomach or intestine
c) stenosis in the middle third of the esophagus
d) diverticular bulge in the upper third of the esophagus
e) the appearance of numerous cystic spaces in the mucosa of the esophagus

A

b) metaplasia of the mucosa of the esophagus into the glandular mucosa as normal in the stomach or intestine

34
Q

Tuberculous granuloma:
A asteroid body
B epithelioid cells
C ferruginous bodies
D lymphocytes
E fibrinoid necrosis

A

B epithelioid cells
D lymphocytes

35
Q

In chronic bronchitis, we can usually find:
a) hypertrophy of the submucosal glands
b) increased resistance to airflow through the airways
c) inflammatory infiltration with eosinophilic granulocytes
d) productive cough
e) markedly thickened basement membrane of the airway epithelium

A
36
Q

Bile pigment:
A it belongs to the tyrosine group of pigments
B is similar to hemosiderin in terms of the basic ingredient
C its pathological deposition in the liver is associated with cholestasis
and obstructive jaundice
D is caused by increased iron intake from food
E is formed from hemosiderin

A

C its pathological deposition in the liver is associated with cholestasis
and obstructive jaundice

37
Q

Adaptation processes do not include:
A hyperplasia
B metaplasia
C atrophy
D dysplasia
E hypertrophy

A

D dysplasia

38
Q

Coagulation necrosis:
A it is often caused by arterial thrombosis
B It is observed several times in the elongated spinal cord
C is due to autolysis and heterolysis
D is often accompanied by karyolysis
E It affects the kidneys several times

A

A it is often caused by arterial thrombosis
D is often accompanied by karyolysis

39
Q

HP infection is usually:
A associated with septicemia
B in relation to chronic active gastritis
C precursor of pernicious anemia
D present in more than 50 Slovenian populations
E with age less and less often

A

B in relation to chronic active gastritis

40
Q

Gall pigment:
a) consists of tyrosine
b) is similar to hemosiderin
c) is from the same group as hemosiderin
d) its deposition in liver cells is due to obstructive jaundice

A

d) its deposition in liver cells is due to obstructive jaundice

41
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis:
a) is an incurable disease
b) the cause is certain medications
c) the cause is viral and bacterial infections
d) an inflammatory cell infiltrate is found in the renal interstitium
e) The glomerulus is always affected from the beginning

A

b) the cause is certain medications
c) the cause is viral and bacterial infections
d) an inflammatory cell infiltrate is found in the renal interstitium

42
Q

Langhans giants:
a) are present in tuberculosis
b) are in sarcoidosis
c) are present in foreign granuloma
d) have cores arranged in the shape of a wreath
e) the nuclei are arranged irregularly in the middle of the cytoplas

A

a) are present in tuberculosis
b) are in sarcoidosis
d) have cores arranged in the shape of a wreath

43
Q

Hemoglobin pigments are:
a) melanin
b) anthracotic pigment
c) lipofuscin
d) bile pigment
e) ceroid

A

d) bile pigment

44
Q

Characteristics of autoimmune gastritis:
a) the most common form of chronic gastritis in our country
b) only the antral mucosa of the stomach is affected
c) serum antibodies to parietal cells are elevated
d) gastric cancer may occur as a complication

A

c) serum antibodies to parietal cells are elevated
d) gastric cancer may occur as a complication

45
Q

Hemoglobin pigments are:
a) melanin (tyrosine pigment)
b) anthracotic pigment (exogenous pigment)
c) lipofuscin - lipopigment
d) bile pigment = BILIRUBIN, hematoidin
e) ceroid - lipopigment

A

d) bile pigment = BILIRUBIN, hematoidin

46
Q

Koag. necrosis:
a) consequence of arterial thrombosis
b) it is observed in the elongated spinal cord
c) consequence of auto- and heterolysis
d) it is often accompanied by karyolysis
e) repeatedly affects the kidneys

A

d) it is often accompanied by karyolysis

47
Q

The vital reaction is:
a) granulocyte infiltration
b) chemotaxis
c) cell hyperplasia

A

a) granulocyte infiltration

48
Q

Cytopathological examinations establish
A) relationship between healthy and diseased tissue
B) relationships between cells in the tissue
C) shape and size of cells
D) extracellular matrix
D) vascular properties

A

C) shape and size of cells
D) extracellular matrix

49
Q

Metastatic calcification is a consequence of:
a) fatty necrosis (dystrophic calcification)
b) bone fractures
c) hypercalcaemia
d) malignant neoplasia (neoplasia in bone or bone metastases)
e) miliary tuberculosis (dystrophic calcification)

A

d) malignant neoplasia (neoplasia in bone or bone metastases)

50
Q

Which intermediate filaments can be detected in the tissue:
A vimentin
B desmin
C neurofilament (including cytokeratins and glial fibrillar acidic
proteins)
D myosin

A

A vimentin
B desmin
C neurofilament (including cytokeratins and glial fibrillar acidic
proteins)

51
Q

It’s cariorex
a) decomposition of the cytoplasm
b) cell membrane breakdown
c) decomposition of the core

A

c) decomposition of the core

52
Q

Which of the following terms does not make sense for the others:
a) hypertrophy
b) hyperplasia
c) fatty infiltration
d) metaplasia
e) dysplasia

A

c) fatty infiltration

53
Q

In which organ does involution not occur? (organ reduction, eg uterus
after pregnancy)
a) liver
b) thymus
c) ovary
d) uterus

A

a) liver
c) ovary

54
Q

Inflammation mediators:
a) C2
b) C3a (anaphylatoxin)
c) C5a (anaphylatoxin)
d) C1q
e) C5b-9 (MAC)

A

a) C2

55
Q

Mediators of inflammation of cellular origin:
a) quinine (liver) plasma mediator of inflammation
b) ROS
c) prostaglandins
d) complement fractions (liver) plasma mediator of inflammation

A

b) ROS

56
Q

Passive hyperemia:
a) is a common occurrence in the liver and spleen
b) occurs due to sympathetic neurogenic stimulation due to obstructed
venous outflow
c) the systemic disease process is always systemic or localized
d) occurs in the lungs during left ventricular decompensation
e) is associated with local edema

A

a) is a common occurrence in the liver and spleen
c) the systemic disease process is always systemic or localized
d) occurs in the lungs during left ventricular decompensation
e) is associated with local edema

57
Q

Associated with the development of thrombosis are:
a) activation of the coagulation mechanism
b) endothelial damage
c) formation of platelet aggregates
d) thrombocytopenia
e) blood stasis

A

a) activation of the coagulation mechanism
b) endothelial damage
e) blood stasis

58
Q

White (anemic) infarction is characteristic of: ISCHEMIC
a) heart
b) lungs
c) kidney + spleen
d) gastrointestinal tract
d) liver

A

a) heart

59
Q

The most common source of systemic thromboembolism
a) deep leg veins (pulmonary thromboembolism)
b) saphenous vein - superficial leg vein
c) auricles (intracardiac mural thrombi)
d) veins of the prostatic plexus
e) inferior vena cava

A

c) auricles (intracardiac mural thrombi)

Pathology 1 (2 decks)

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