Collision at sea

Question 1

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the impact of vessels slowing down when approaching areas of uncertainty?

A) Slowing down when approaching areas of uncertainty has no effect on collision risk.
B) Slowing down when approaching areas of uncertainty significantly reduces collision risk.
C) Slowing down when approaching areas of uncertainty increases collision risk.
D) Slowing down when approaching areas of uncertainty only slightly affects collision risk.

Answer 1

B) Slowing down when approaching areas of uncertainty significantly reduces collision risk.

Question 2

Which of the following factors accounted for 60% of the incidents?

A) Lack of awareness of the other vessel
B) Poor lookout
C) Insufficient assessment of the situation
D) All of the above

Answer 2

D) All of the above

Question 3

What is a common tendency among ships regarding the reporting of near misses?

a. Ships are reluctant to report near misses
b. Ships promptly report near misses
c. Near misses are reported sporadically by ships
d. Ships prioritize reporting near misses

Answer 3

a. Ships are reluctant to report near misses

Question 4

What factor contributes significantly to collisions according to the given statement?

a. Improper lookouts
b. Mechanical failures
c. Weather conditions
d. Human error

Answer 4

a. Improper lookouts

Question 5

During what type of encounters do a significant portion of collisions occur?

a. Overtaking encounters
b. Meeting encounters
c. Crossing encounters
d. Sailing encounters

Answer 5

b. Meeting encounters

Question 6

What are the most common factors contributing to close encounters according to the provided options?

Answer 6

What are the most common factors contributing to close encounters according to the provided options?

a. Fast ships (ferries and containers)
b. Vessel navigating buoy to buoy (zig-zagging)
c. Lane changing
d. Overtaking where course alteration is imminent
e. Overtaking to starboard when she already has a commitment to a crossing vessel
f. Lack of consideration in a tightly packed group
g. Failure to appreciate the avoidance action
h. To apply rules of conduct in zero visibility
i. Fishing vessel impeding the straits (yachts, pleasure cruisers included)

Question 7

Which of the following factors most commonly contribute to close encounters?

a. Fast ships (ferries and containers)
b. Vessel navigating buoy to buoy (zig-zagging)
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

Answer 7

c. Both a and b

Question 8

What factors commonly contribute to close encounters?

a. Lane changing

b. Overtaking where course alteration is imminent

c. Overtaking to starboard when she already has a commitment to a crossing vessel

d. Lack of consideration in a tightly packed group

e. Failure to appreciate the avoidance action

Select all correct options.

Question 9

What is collision avoidance primarily based on?

a. Principles of physics

b. Rules of conduct

c. Principles of navigation

d. Rules of the road

Answer 9

d. Rules of the road

Question 10

What approach is recommended for collision avoidance?

a. Reactive action

b. Delayed action

c. Early, positive action

d. Passive observation

Answer 10

c. Early, positive action

Question 11

How should a safe passing distance be established according to best practices?

a. By relying solely on standing orders

b. Through intuition and good seamanship

c. By assessing the situation and using experience

d. By setting it as a working objective, incorporating standing orders, good seamanship, experience, and assessment

Answer 11

d. By setting it as a working objective, incorporating standing orders, good seamanship, experience, and assessment

Question 12

What does taking early action demonstrate in terms of seamanship?

a. It ensures compliance with regulations

b. It allows for better maneuvering

c. It indicates to the other vessel that you are establishing a safe passing distance

d. It minimizes risk of collision

Answer 12

c. It indicates to the other vessel that you are establishing a safe passing distance

Question 13

Which of the following statements accurately describes the accuracy of a visual compass repeater and radar bearing discrimination?

a. A visual compass repeater typically provides an accuracy of +½ degrees, while radar bearing discrimination must be +1 degree or better, and may be less accurate. With azimuth correction, the accuracy can be as much as 2.5 degrees.

b. A visual compass repeater typically provides an accuracy of +1 degree, while radar bearing discrimination must be +½ degrees or better, and may be less accurate.

c. A visual compass repeater typically provides an accuracy of +1 degree, while radar bearing discrimination must also be +1 degree or better, and may be less accurate.

d. A visual compass repeater typically provides an accuracy of +½ degrees, while radar bearing discrimination must also be +½ degrees or better, and may be less accurate.

Answer 13

a. A visual compass repeater typically provides an accuracy of +½ degrees, while radar bearing discrimination must be +1 degree or better, and may be less accurate. With azimuth correction, the accuracy can be as much as 2.5 degrees.

Question 14

What is the recommended procedure for confirming sightings using both visual and radar methods?

a. Compare the visual sighting with the radar reading to ensure consistency.

b. Rely solely on the radar reading for confirmation.

c. Rely solely on the visual sighting for confirmation.

d. Disregard the radar reading if it contradicts the visual sighting.

Answer 14

a. Compare the visual sighting with the radar reading to ensure consistency.

Question 15

Why is it considered dangerous to rely solely on relative bearings for assessing the risk of collision?

a. Relative bearings may not accurately reflect the actual position of other vessels.

b. Relative bearings provide insufficient information about the distance between vessels.

c. Relative bearings can be affected by changes in course and speed, leading to inaccurate assessments.

d. All of the above.

Answer 15

d. All of the above.

Question 16

Which of the following statements accurately describes the measurement of distance at sea?

a. The most accurate way to measure distance at sea is by radar.

b. Visual estimation is the most accurate method for measuring distance at sea.

c. GPS technology provides the most accurate distance measurements at sea.

d. Depth sounders offer the most accurate distance measurements at sea.

Answer 16

a. The most accurate way to measure distance at sea is by radar.

Question 17

Which of the following options correctly represents the performance standards of radars?

a. 30 meters or 1%

b. 1 nautical mile or 1%

c. 100 meters or 10%

d. 0.5 nautical miles or 5%

Answer 17

a. 30 meters or 1%

Question 18

What does the “blossoming effect” serve as a useful guide for in assessing the approach of a vessel?

a. The vessel’s speed

b. The vessel’s direction

c. The vessel’s distance from an object or target

d. The vessel’s maneuverability

Answer 18

c. The vessel’s distance from an object or target

Question 19

What are the visibility requirements for station lights and sidelights?

a. Station lights must be visible for four miles, while sidelights must be visible for two miles.

b. Station lights must be visible for two miles, while sidelights must be visible for four miles.

c. Both station lights and sidelights must be visible for four miles.

d. Both station lights and sidelights must be visible for two miles.

Answer 19

a. Station lights must be visible for four miles, while sidelights must be visible for two miles.

Question 20

What is the recommended method for assessing distance when in close proximity to another vessel?

a. Horizontal cues

b. Auditory cues

c. Vertical cues

d. Motion cues

Answer 20

c. Vertical cues

Question 21

Which of the following statements accurately describes the blind areas of a container ship?

a. Container ship’s blind areas are approximately 500 meters, which is about 3 times the length of the ship.

b. Container ship’s blind areas are approximately 500 meters, which is about 3 times the width of the ship.

c. Container ship’s blind areas are approximately 500 meters, which is about 3 times the height of the ship.

d. Container ship’s blind areas are approximately 500 meters, which is about 3 times the draft of the ship.

Answer 21

b. Container ship’s blind areas are approximately 500 meters, which is about 3 times the width of the ship.

Question 22

What is a characteristic of vessel speeds?

a. Predictable

b. Deceptive

c. Consistent

d. Constant

Answer 22

b. Deceptive

Question 23

What is the recommended action to avoid collision when the other vessel is 10 and 5 miles away, and during overtaking when the other vessel is 3 to 1 miles away?

a. Take early action to avoid collision when the other vessel is 10 and 5 miles away, and during overtaking when the other vessel is 3 to 1 miles away.

b. Take early action to avoid collision when the other vessel is 3 to 1 miles away, and during overtaking when the other vessel is 10 and 5 miles away.

c. Take early action to avoid collision when the other vessel is 5 to 10 miles away, and during overtaking when the other vessel is 1 to 3 miles away.

d. Take early action to avoid collision when the other vessel is 1 to 3 miles away, and during overtaking when the other vessel is 5 to 10 miles away.

Answer 23

Take early action to avoid collision when the other vessel is 10 and 5 miles away, and during overtaking when the other vessel is 3 to 1 miles away.

Question 24

In a close-quarter situation on conventional ships, what does the term “forward distance” refer to when the rudder is set at 20 degrees?

a. The distance the ship will travel in reverse

b. The distance the ship will travel sideways

c. The distance the ship will travel forward

d. The distance the ship will travel while turning

Answer 24

c. The distance the ship will travel forward

Question 25

What relationship exists between the speeds of the giveaway vessel and the stand-on vessel in terms of the alteration required to avoid collision?

a. The slower the speed of the giveaway vessel compared to the stand-on vessel, the smaller the alteration required.

b. The slower the speed of the giveaway vessel compared to the stand-on vessel, the larger the alteration required.

c. The faster the speed of the giveaway vessel compared to the stand-on vessel, the smaller the alteration required.

d. The faster the speed of the giveaway vessel compared to the stand-on vessel, the larger the alteration required.

Answer 25

b. The slower the speed of the giveaway vessel compared to the stand-on vessel, the larger the alteration required.

Question 26

What effect does slow speed have on the limiting line of approach and the risk of collision?

a. Slow speed narrows the limiting line of approach, reducing the risk of collision.

b. Slow speed widens the limiting line of approach, increasing the risk of collision.

c. Slow speed has no effect on the limiting line of approach or the risk of collision.

d. Slow speed decreases the number of encounters where there is a risk of collision.

Answer 26

b. Slow speed widens the limiting line of approach, increasing the risk of collision.

Question 27

What type of alteration in course is typically required when another vessel approaches from broad on the starboard beam?

a. Large alteration to port

b. Small alteration to starboard

c. Large alteration to starboard

d. Small alteration to port

Answer 27

c. Large alteration to starboard

Question 28

What type of alteration is typically required when other vessels are approaching fine to starboard, considering the fast rate of closing?

a. Small alteration to starboard

b. Large alteration to port

c. Small alteration to port

d. Large alteration to starboard

Answer 28

d. Large alteration to starboard

Question 29

What is the measurement of sea room required for a ship with a block coefficient of 0.8 or more to turn 90 degrees from the course with 10 degrees of rudder?

a. Seven ship lengths

b. Five ship lengths

c. Three ship lengths

d. Ten ship lengths

Answer 29

a. Seven ship lengths

Question 30

What does the International Maritime Organization (IMO) specify regarding the ability of ships to turn around with full rudder?

a. All ships must be able to turn around with full rudder with a maximum transfer of 4.5 ship lengths.

b. All ships must be able to turn around with full rudder with a maximum transfer of 2 ship lengths.

c. All ships must be able to turn around with full rudder with a maximum transfer of 7 ship lengths.

d. All ships must be able to turn around with full rudder with a maximum transfer of 10 ship lengths.

Answer 30

a. All ships must be able to turn around with full rudder with a maximum transfer of 4.5 ship lengths.

Question 31

What formula is used to calculate the safe passing distance, where POC represents the point of closest approach?

a. Safe passing distance = distance to POC × sin θ

b. Safe passing distance = distance to POC × cos θ

c. Safe passing distance = distance to POC × tan θ

d. Safe passing distance = distance to POC × cot θ

Answer 31

a. Safe passing distance = distance to POC × sin θ

Question 32

What is essential to verify for accuracy when deriving the Time to Closest Point of Approach (TCPA) calculation using the radar’s ARPA computer?

a. Wind speed and direction

b. Sea depth

c. Compass heading and speed input

d. Radar range and resolution

Answer 32

c. Compass heading and speed input

Question 33

What is the difference in the measurement used by the Navy compared to merchant ships for assessing time to travel a certain distance?

a. Navy uses “time to travel 6 ship lengths” while merchant ships use “5 ship lengths.”

b. Navy uses “time to travel 5 ship lengths” while merchant ships use “6 ship lengths.”

c. Navy uses “time to travel 4 ship lengths” while merchant ships use “7 ship lengths.”

d. Navy uses “time to travel 7 ship lengths” while merchant ships use “4 ship lengths.”

Answer 33

b. Navy uses “time to travel 5 ship lengths” while merchant ships use “6 ship lengths.”

Question 34

What formula is used to calculate the Time to Closest Point of Approach (TCPA), where SL represents ship length?

a. TCPA = 6SL/speed

b. TCPA = 5SL/speed

c. TCPA = 4SL/speed

d. TCPA = 7SL/speed

Answer 34

a. TCPA = 6SL/speed

Question 35

According to STCW 95, what are the regulations regarding hours of rest for seafarers?

a. Hours of rest shall not be less than 8 hours in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any 7-day period, and rest may only be divided into two periods.

b. Hours of rest shall not be less than 10 hours in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any 7-day period, and rest may only be divided into two periods.

c. Hours of rest shall not be less than 12 hours in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any 7-day period, and rest may only be divided into two periods.

d. Hours of rest shall not be less than 14 hours in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any 7-day period, and rest may only be divided into two periods.

Answer 35

b. Hours of rest shall not be less than 10 hours in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any 7-day period, and rest may only be divided into two periods.

Question 36

Why do pilots prefer using “course up” mode?

a. Pilots are more interested in pattern recognition, and “course up” mode helps them recognize patterns better.

b. Pilots find it easier to navigate in “course up” mode as it aligns with their training.

c. “Course up” mode provides more accurate GPS positioning, which is crucial for pilots.

d. Pilots prefer “course up” mode because it offers a wider field of view, aiding in situational awareness.

Answer 36

a. Pilots are more interested in pattern recognition, and “course up” mode helps them recognize patterns better.

Question 37

What statement accurately describes the reliability of ARPA (Automatic Radar Plotting Aid) in an unestablished display?

a. ARPA is highly reliable in an unestablished display, providing accurate tracking information.

b. ARPA is somewhat reliable in an unestablished display, but caution should be exercised when using the data.

c. ARPA is unreliable in an unestablished display and should not be relied upon for tracking information.

d. ARPA is not affected by the display status and remains reliable regardless of the display settings.

Answer 37

c. ARPA is unreliable in an unestablished display and should not be relied upon for tracking information.

Question 38

How might the range of side lights be considered a guide to distance when a stand-on vessel must maintain course and speed?

a. Side lights over 50 meters are visible up to 3 miles, indicating a greater distance to maintain course and speed.

b. Side lights between 12 and 50 meters are visible up to 2 miles, indicating a moderate distance to maintain course and speed.

c. Side lights under 12 meters are visible up to 1 mile, indicating a shorter distance to maintain course and speed.

d. All of the above.

Answer 38

D. all above

Question 39

What is the potential risk associated with standing on beyond 2 miles range if the give way vessel fails to maneuver?

a. There is no risk as long as the stand-on vessel maintains course and speed.

b. There is a slight risk, but it is manageable with proper communication between vessels.

c. It can be dangerous if the give way vessel fails to maneuver, as the distance may become too short for effective evasive action.

d. The risk depends on the size and maneuverability of the vessels involved.

Answer 39

c. It can be dangerous if the give way vessel fails to maneuver, as the distance may become too short for effective evasive action.

Question 40

When should early action be taken in a head-on situation?

a. Early action should be taken when the vessels are 5 miles or more apart, especially if they are closing at fast speeds.

b. Early action should be taken when the vessels are within 5 miles of each other, regardless of their speed.

c. Early action should be taken when the vessels are within visual range, regardless of their speed.

d. Early action is not necessary in a head-on situation, as the vessels are on a collision course.

Answer 40

a. Early action should be taken when the vessels are 5 miles or more apart, especially if they are closing at fast speeds.

Question 41

What aspects should be considered regarding a vessel engaged in fishing?

a. Its size, speed, and maneuverability

b. Its presence, occupation, and intention

c. Its flag state, registration, and certification

d. Its crew, equipment, and catch size

Answer 41

b. Its presence, occupation, and intention

Question 42

How far can the sound of a whistle be tentatively heard?

a. Less than 1 mile

b. Less than 2 miles

c. Less than 3 miles

d. Less than 4 miles

Answer 42

b. Less than 2 miles

Question 43

What action must be taken if not in visual contact with another vessel, but it was previously detected by radar, a whistle signal is heard, or a close quarter situation develops forward of the beam?

a. Follow Rule 10 (Traffic separation schemes)

b. Follow Rule 13 (Overtaking)

c. Follow Rule 19 (Conduct of vessels in restricted visibility) exactly

d. Follow Rule 17 (Action by stand-on vessel)

Answer 43

c. Follow Rule 19 (Conduct of vessels in restricted visibility) exactly

Question 44

What happens to Rule 19 when ships come into visual contact with each other?

a. Rule 19 remains in effect until the ships pass each other.

b. Rule 19 ceases to apply between those two vessels, and rules 11 through 18 apply instead.

c. Rule 19 is replaced by Rule 20 when ships come into visual contact.

d. Rule 19 is extended when ships come into visual contact.

Answer 44

b. Rule 19 ceases to apply between those two vessels, and rules 11 through 18 apply instead.

Question 45

At what distance are normal turns preferably made, and at what distance is escape action preferably taken?

a. Normal turns are preferably made at 6 to 8 miles, and escape action is preferably taken at less than 5 miles.

b. Normal turns are preferably made at 4 to 6 miles, and escape action is preferably taken at less than 3 miles.

c. Normal turns are preferably made at 2 to 4 miles, and escape action is preferably taken at less than 1 mile.

d. Normal turns are preferably made at 8 to 10 miles, and escape action is preferably taken at less than 7 miles.

Answer 45

b. Normal turns are preferably made at 4 to 6 miles, and escape action is preferably taken at less than 3 miles.

Question 46

What action should a vessel on the starboard side take after turning to starboard?

a. Keep the vessel to starboard when resuming course.

b. Keep the vessel to port when resuming course.

c. Maintain the vessel’s position.

d. Slow down and stop the vessel.

Answer 46

b. Keep the vessel to port when resuming course.

Question 47

What action is recommended for a vessel in restricted visibility if the compass bearing of a vessel on the port bow is gradually changing in the clockwise direction (increasing)?

a. Increase speed to pass the vessel quickly.

b. Maintain current speed and course.

c. Reduce speed or stop at any time.

d. Sound the whistle to signal intention.

Answer 47

c. Reduce speed or stop at any time.

Question 48

When might it be appropriate to increase speed in restricted visibility?

a. When the vessel to be avoided is on the starboard side.

b. When the vessel to be avoided is on the port side.

c. When the vessel to be avoided is astern or on the port quarter or near the port beam.

d. When the vessel to be avoided is ahead or on the starboard quarter.

Answer 48

c. When the vessel to be avoided is astern or on the port quarter or near the port beam.

Question 49

In which situation does Rule 19 specify action to be taken?

a. When the vessel is detected forward of the beam and the axis is between 0 and 112.5 degrees.

b. When the vessel is detected forward of the beam and the axis is between 112.5 and 292.5 degrees.

c. When the vessel is detected forward of the beam and the axis is between 292.5 and 360 degrees.

d. When the vessel is detected aft of the beam and the axis is between 0 and 112.5 degrees.

Answer 49

b. When the vessel is detected forward of the beam and the axis is between 112.5 and 292.5 degrees.

Question 50

Where do most multiple shipping encounters occur?

a. At anchorages and berths

b. In open seas and deep waters

c. Near coastlines and shorelines

d. At port approaches, at the limits of traffic separation schemes, in traffic separation schemes, crossing traffic separation schemes, in and around fishing fleets, in the vicinity of node points where track routes combine or cross each other.

Answer 50

d. At port approaches, at the limits of traffic separation schemes, in traffic separation schemes, crossing traffic separation schemes, in and around fishing fleets, in the vicinity of node points where track routes combine or cross each other.

Question 51

What practical advice do shipmasters often give to ensure adequate sea room when overtaking in a Traffic Separation Scheme (TSS)?

a. Ensure a minimum of 5 ship lengths of sea room when overtaking.

b. Overtake swiftly to minimize disruption to other vessels.

c. Maintain a steady course and speed to facilitate safe overtaking.

d. Notify the nearest VTS (Vessel Traffic Service) station before overtaking.

Answer 51

a. Ensure a minimum of 5 ship lengths of sea room when overtaking.

Question 52

What is the recommended configuration for radar systems?

a. One radar on the six-mile range for immediate problems and another on the 12-mile range for early warning.

b. Both radars on the six-mile range for immediate problems.

c. Both radars on the 12-mile range for early warning.

d. One radar on the six-mile range for immediate problems and the other on the 24-mile range for early warning.

Answer 52

a. One radar on the six-mile range for immediate problems and another on the 12-mile range for early warning.

Question 53

How do targets behave on a radar display in relation to your alteration of course?

a. Targets ahead of you and in the opposite direction to your alteration will move clockwise, while targets south of you or down will remain stationary.

b. Targets ahead of you and in the opposite direction to your alteration will remain stationary, while targets south of you or down will move clockwise.

c. Targets ahead of you and in the opposite direction to your alteration will move counterclockwise, while targets south of you or down will move clockwise.

d. Targets ahead of you and in the opposite direction to your alteration will move counterclockwise, while targets south of you or down will remain stationary.

Answer 53

a. Targets ahead of you and in the opposite direction to your alteration will move clockwise, while targets south of you or down will remain stationary.

Question 54

What is the “golden rule” for navigation?

a. Assess late and alter late

b. Assess late and alter early

c. Assess early and alter late

d. Assess early and alter early

Answer 54

d. Assess early and alter early

Question 55

What strategy should be employed when approaching a fleet of fishing vessels?

a. Maintain current speed and course, expecting the fishing vessels to yield.

b. Reduce speed to match the fishing vessels and navigate through the fleet slowly.

c. Head for openings seen on radar and use relative forward vectors to guide through, adding true trails to the ARPA once a course is selected.

d. Sound the horn continuously to alert the fishing vessels of your presence.

Answer 55

c. Head for openings seen on radar and use relative forward vectors to guide through, adding true trails to the ARPA once a course is selected.

Question 56

What advantage does speed typically offer when avoiding slow or stationary targets?

a. Speed allows for better maneuverability, making it easier to navigate around slow or stationary targets.

b. Speed reduces reaction time, allowing the vessel to respond more quickly to changing situations.

c. Speed increases the vessel’s visibility, making it easier for slow or stationary targets to detect and avoid the vessel.

d. Speed decreases the likelihood of collisions with slow or stationary targets.

Answer 56

b. Speed reduces reaction time, allowing the vessel to respond more quickly to changing situations.

Question 57

What pressure pattern does a ship underway generate around its hull?

a. Increased pressure at the bow, relative drop in pressure as water accelerates down the hull, and increased pressure again at the stern in the wake area.

b. Increased pressure at the bow and stern, with low pressure in the middle section of the hull.

c. Decreased pressure at the bow, steady pressure along the hull, and increased pressure at the stern.

d. Consistent pressure along the hull, with spikes of increased pressure at regular intervals.

Answer 57

a. Increased pressure at the bow, relative drop in pressure as water accelerates down the hull, and increased pressure again at the stern in the wake area.

Question 58

Why do some ships become almost uncontrollable when turning widely at full speed?

a. Due to design flaws in the hull shape.

b. Due to excessive wind resistance.

c. Due to lack of engine power.

d. Due to insufficient control over the propeller race.

Answer 58

d. Due to insufficient control over the propeller race.

Question 59

What effect does increasing the revolutions of the propeller have when the ship is stopped or moving slowly?

a. It reduces the propeller race impacting on the rudder, resulting in less turning moment.

b. It has no effect on the propeller race and turning moment.

c. It increases the propeller race impacting on the rudder, resulting in a strong turning moment.

d. It decreases the effectiveness of the rudder, resulting in less control over the ship’s direction.

Answer 59

c. It increases the propeller race impacting on the rudder, resulting in a strong turning moment.

Question 60

Where is the pivot point located on a ship that is 285 meters long?

a. Approximately at the bow

b. Approximately at the stern

c. Approximately 1/4 from the bow

d. Approximately 1/4 from the stern

Answer 60

c. Approximately 1/4 from the bow

Question 61

What action is needed to change or eliminate the effect of the swept path when a ship is traveling?

a. Increase speed to correct the displacement.

b. Apply counter rudder and kick ahead while traveling at slow speed.

c. Decrease speed to minimize the effect.

d. Apply full rudder and reverse thrust.

Answer 61

b. Apply counter rudder and kick ahead while traveling at slow speed.

Question 62

What are two reasons for the swept path to move away from the center?

a. The pivot point moves forward when the ship is moving forward, and deflective flow from the propeller race impacts the rudder.

b. The pivot point moves backward when the ship is moving backward, and deflective flow from the propeller race impacts the hull.

c. The pivot point moves forward when the ship is moving forward, and deflective flow from the propeller race impacts the hull.

d. The pivot point remains stationary, but the deflective flow from the propeller race impacts the rudder.

Answer 62

a. The pivot point moves forward when the ship is moving forward, and deflective flow from the propeller race impacts the rudder.

Question 63

How can the standard turning circle be made tighter?

a. Increase ship speed and use moderate rudder input.

b. Slow the ship down, then use maximum power and rudder to initiate the turn.

c. Maintain current speed and use minimal rudder input.

d. Increase ship speed and use maximum rudder input.

Answer 63

b. Slow the ship down, then use maximum power and rudder to initiate the turn.

Question 64

What is essential to achieve a tighter standard turning circle?

a. Slowing the ship down, using plenty of power and maximum rudder to get the ship turning, but remembering that the effect is only initial and the ship will soon revert to its larger standard turning circle again.

b. Speeding up the ship, using minimal power and rudder to conserve energy, and maintaining the same turning circle throughout.

c. Keeping the ship at its current speed, using minimal power and rudder to maintain stability, and gradually increasing the turning circle as needed.

d. Increasing the ship’s speed to maximize centrifugal force, using minimal rudder to maintain control, and achieving a tighter turning circle for the duration of the maneuver.

Answer 64

a. Slowing the ship down, using plenty of power and maximum rudder to get the ship turning, but remembering that the effect is only initial and the ship will soon revert to its larger standard turning circle again.

Question 65

What effect does poor Under Keel Clearance (UKC) clearance have on a ship’s turning circle?

a. It has no effect on the ship’s turning circle.

b. It makes the ship follow its standard turning circle more accurately.

c. It results in a failure of the ship to follow its standard turning circle, making it a larger turning circle.

d. It allows the ship to execute tighter turns due to increased stability.

Answer 65

c. It results in a failure of the ship to follow its standard turning circle, making it a larger turning circle.

Question 66

What effect does poor under keel clearance (UKC) have on a ship’s turning circle?

a. It has no effect on the ship’s turning circle.

b. It may result in the ship failing to follow its standard turning circle and instead making a larger turning circle, especially if the available depth of water is less than twice the draft.

c. It may result in the ship making a tighter turning circle to avoid shallow areas.

d. It may result in the ship turning faster to compensate for the lack of depth.

Answer 66

b. It may result in the ship failing to follow its standard turning circle and instead making a larger turning circle, especially if the available depth of water is less than twice the draft.

Question 67

What does the IMO maneuvering criteria state regarding the ability of ships to turn?

a. Ships must be able to turn through 90° in four to five ships lengths.

b. Ships must be able to turn through 180° in four to five ships lengths.

c. Ships must be able to turn through 90° in one to two ships lengths.

d. Ships must be able to turn through 180° in one to two ships lengths.

Answer 67

a. Ships must be able to turn through 90° in four to five ships lengths.

Question 68

What type of ships tend to have larger turning circles compared to those with high block efficiency like tankers and bulkers?
a. Fine line ships
b. Tankers
c. Bulkers
d. High block efficiency ships

Answer 68

a. Fine line ships

Question 69

Which characteristic is associated with fine line ships in comparison to ships with high block efficiency like tankers and bulkers?
a. Smaller turning circles
b. Larger turning circles
c. Faster speeds
d. Greater maneuverability

Answer 69

b. Larger turning circles

Question 70

During the next two ship lengths after the initial two ship lengths, how much can the pivot point transfer vary from the original course line?

a. 15° to 30°
b. 15° to 45°
c. 30° to 45°
d. 30° to 75°

Answer 70

b. 15° to 45°

Question 71

During the next two ship lengths after the initial two ship lengths, how much can the drift angle vary?

a. 15° to 30°
b. 30° to 45°
c. 30° to 75°
d. 45° to 75°

Answer 71

c. 30° to 75°

Question 72

After applying 10° of starboard rudder, approximately how much lateral displacement is observed after four ship lengths?

a. About one ship length
b. About half a ship length
c. About two ship lengths
d. About four ship lengths

Answer 72

b. About half a ship length

Question 73

To avoid a small boat dead ahead at 4 ship lengths, what alteration of course is required?

a. Between 15° and 30°
b. Between 30° and 45°
c. Between 30° and 75°
d. Between 45° and 75°

Answer 73

c. Between 30° and 75°

Question 74

Up to how many ship lengths is there no lateral transfer?

a. One ship length
b. Two ship lengths
c. Three ship lengths
d. Four ship lengths

Answer 74

b. Two ship lengths

Question 75

From 2 to 4 ship lengths, where may the stern still be in relation to the original course line?

a. Ahead of the original course line
b. Behind the original course line
c. On the original course line
d. Drifting away from the original course line

Answer 75

c. On the original course line

Question 76

From 4 to 6 ship lengths, what does the forward and sideway transfer of the ship depend on?

a. Speed of the ship
b. Wind direction
c. Rudder angle
d. Water depth

Answer 76

c. Rudder angle

Question 77

How many ship lengths does a finer vessel need to turn 90° with a 10° rudder angle?

a. Seven ship lengths
b. Six ship lengths
c. More than seven ship lengths
d. Fewer than seven ship lengths

Answer 77

a. Seven ship lengths

Question 78

What effect can a large rudder angle have on a high-speed fully laden container ship?

a. It may cause the ship to heal as much as 20°.
b. It may cause the ship to capsize.
c. It may cause the ship to increase speed dramatically.
d. It may cause the ship to slow down significantly.

Answer 78

a. It may cause the ship to heal as much as 20°.

Question 79

In open water at full speed, what is the recommended maximum rudder angle?

a. 5°
b. 10°
c. 15°
d. 20°

Answer 79

b. 10°

Question 80

For collision avoidance, what is the recommended maximum rudder angle for passenger vessels?

a. 5°
b. 10°
c. 15°
d. 2°

Answer 80

d. 2°

Question 81

How does speed affect the turning circle of a ship?

a. Speed increases the turning circle of a ship.

b. Speed decreases the turning circle of a ship.

c. Speed has no significant effect on the turning circle of a ship.

d. Speed makes the turning circle unpredictable.

Answer 81

c. Speed has no significant effect on the turning circle of a ship.

Question 82

What is a common characteristic of helmsmen regarding their ability to introduce large over swings?

a. They are adaptive and experienced.

b. They lack experience and tend to introduce large over swings.

c. They are cautious and skilled in avoiding over swings.

d. They have a tendency to underestimate the required rudder angle.

Answer 82

b. They lack experience and tend to introduce large over swings.

Question 83

What is a common characteristic of helmsmen in terms of their ability to handle large over swings?

a. Helmsmen are adaptive and experienced, often able to correct large over swings quickly.

b. Helmsmen are adaptive but generally lack experience, leading to the possibility of introducing large over swings.

c. Helmsmen are experienced but tend to panic in situations involving large over swings.

d. Helmsmen are inexperienced and require constant supervision to prevent large over swings.

Answer 83

b. Helmsmen are adaptive but generally lack experience, leading to the possibility of introducing large over swings.

Question 84

How does speed reduction relate to alterations of course and rudder angle?

a. Small alterations of course or large alterations of course with small angles of rudder have little effect on speed reduction.

b. Small alterations of course cause substantial speed reduction, while large alterations of course with small angles of rudder have little effect on speed reduction.

c. Large changes of rudder angle applied with large changes of heading cause substantial speed reduction, while small alterations of course have little effect on speed reduction.

d. Large alterations of course with small angles of rudder cause substantial speed reduction, while small alterations of course have little effect on speed reduction.

Answer 84

a. Small alterations of course or large alterations of course with small angles of rudder have little effect on speed reduction.

Question 85

What defines the fatal zone in terms of collision avoidance?

a. The area where ships are most likely to collide.

b. The zone where ships cannot deviate from the course line regardless of rudder or speed control, resulting in an inevitable collision.

c. The region where ships have the highest maneuverability.

d. The point of closest approach between two ships.

Answer 85

b. The zone where ships cannot deviate from the course line regardless of rudder or speed control, resulting in an inevitable collision.

Question 86

What defines the danger zone in terms of collision avoidance?

a. The area where ships are most likely to collide.

b. The zone where, even when the rudder is hard over, the ship will only just be clearing the course line within the time it takes ownership to travel 4 ship lengths, and the ship will be slowing down substantially during the turn, making it unable to respond quickly to an alteration of course once the turn is started.

c. The region where ships have the highest maneuverability.

d. The point of closest approach between two ships.

Answer 86

b. The zone where, even when the rudder is hard over, the ship will only just be clearing the course line within the time it takes ownership to travel 4 ship lengths, and the ship will be slowing down substantially during the turn, making it unable to respond quickly to an alteration of course once the turn is started.

Question 87

What defines the high-risk zone in terms of collision avoidance?

a. The area where ships are most likely to collide.

b. The zone where, with a hard-over rudder, it will only be possible for the ship to clear the target vessel by two ship lengths within the time it takes ownership to travel 6 ship lengths.

c. The region where ships have the highest maneuverability.

d. The point of closest approach between two ships.

Answer 87

b. The zone where, with a hard-over rudder, it will only be possible for the ship to clear the target vessel by two ship lengths within the time it takes ownership to travel 6 ship lengths.

Question 88

What defines the risk zone in terms of collision avoidance?

a. The area where ships are most likely to collide.

b. The zone where, within the time it takes ownership to travel 7.5 ship lengths, own ship can clear most targets with 10° of helm, and passing distance can be increased by applying hard-over rudder immediately.

c. The region where ships have the highest maneuverability.

d. The point of closest approach between two ships.

Answer 88

b. The zone where, within the time it takes ownership to travel 7.5 ship lengths, own ship can clear most targets with 10° of helm, and passing distance can be increased by applying hard-over rudder immediately.

Question 89

What defines the normal zone in terms of collision avoidance?

a. The area where ships are most likely to collide.

b. The zone where the Time to Closest Point of Approach (TCPA) is related to the time it takes to travel 10 ship lengths.

c. The region where ships have the highest maneuverability.

d. The point of closest approach between two ships.

Answer 89

b. The zone where the Time to Closest Point of Approach (TCPA) is related to the time it takes to travel 10 ship lengths.

Question 90

What can be considered as a rule of thumb regarding stopping distances relative to the length of a vessel?

a. The stopping distance is directly proportional to the length of the vessel.

b. The stopping distance is inversely proportional to the length of the vessel.

c. A vessel of 100 meters will be able to stop in half the distance that a vessel of 200 meters can when traveling at the same initial speed.

d. A vessel of 100 meters will be able to stop in a quarter the distance that a vessel of 200 meters can when traveling at the same initial speed.

Answer 90

d. A vessel of 100 meters will be able to stop in a quarter the distance that a vessel of 200 meters can when traveling at the same initial speed.

Question 91

When can the propeller of a vessel with stern diesel engines driving fixed propellers be reversed after stopping?

a. Immediately after stopping.

b. Approximately 50% of the head speed.

c. Approximately 70% of the head speed.

d. Approximately 90% of the head speed.

Answer 91

c. Approximately 70% of the head speed.

Question 92

What percentage of stern thrust can ships realistically generate?

a. 70%

b. 50%

c. 30%

d. 100%

Answer 92

b. 50%

Question 93

What is the typical maximum percentage of stern thrust that steam turbines were designed for?

a. 30%

b. 50%

c. 70%

d. 90%

Answer 93

a. 30%

Question 94

What can affect the astern performance of some ships?

a. Heavily raked and skewed blades

b. Hull design

c. Engine power

d. Draft of the ship

Answer 94

a. Heavily raked and skewed blades

Question 95

At what speed are crashes stern tests usually conducted?
A) 2 knots
B) 5 knots
C) 10 knots
D) 15 knots

Answer 95

B) 5 knots

Question 96

At what speed do most ships regain steerage when going astern?
A) 2 knots
B) 4 knots
C) 6 knots
D) 8 knots

Answer 96

B) 4 knots

Question 97

At what speed do bow thrusters typically lose their effectiveness?
A) 1 knot
B) 2 knots
C) 3 knots
D) 4 knots

Answer 97

C) 3 knots

Question 98

Here’s a multiple-choice question based on your bullet point:

When anticipating slowing down to avoid a collision, what options are recommended to achieve the desired clearing distance?
A) Increase the time or reduce the speed by half
B) Increase the time or reduce the speed by a quarter
C) Increase the time by double or reduce the speed by twice as much
D) Increase the time by quadruple or reduce the speed by half

Answer 98

C) Increase the time by double or reduce the speed by twice as much

**For
heavy dead weight ships the time quadrupled

Question 99

When moving at reduced speed, what option can be used to increase speed and alter course more quickly?
A) Full throttle
B) Hard over rudder and full throttle
C) Hard over rudder and a kick astern
D) Hard over rudder and a kick ahead

Answer 99

D) Hard over rudder and a kick ahead

Question 100

Here’s a multiple-choice question based on your bullet point:

In a collision, what is the relationship between momentum and damage?
A) Momentum and damage are directly proportional
B) Momentum and damage are inversely proportional
C) Momentum and damage are proportional to the square of velocity
D) Momentum and damage are linearly related

Answer 100

C) Momentum and damage are proportional to the square of velocity

Question 101

Here’s a multiple-choice question based on your bullet point:

According to the Maritime Organization (MO), what is the minimum required visibility of the sea from the bridge?
A) 100 meters
B) 250 meters
C) 500 meters
D) 750 meters

Answer 101

C) 500 meters

Question 102

Here’s a multiple-choice question based on your bullet point:

How long does it typically take for a ship’s pivot point to move from its original course, and for the stern to clear the original track?
A) One ship length for each
B) Two ship lengths for each
C) Three ship lengths for each
D) Four ship lengths for each

Answer 102

B) Two ship lengths for each

Question 103

Here’s a multiple-choice question based on your bullet point:

What action should be taken to avoid overswing during a serpent swing under ideal conditions?
A) Keep the rudder fully turned until the maneuver is complete
B) Put the rudder amidships 10 or 20° before the ship’s ownership is parallel with the target
C) Increase the rudder angle gradually as the ship swings
D) Completely stop the rudder movement until the maneuver is complete

Answer 103

B) Put the rudder amidships 10 or 20° before the ship’s ownership is parallel with the target

Question 104

Here’s a multiple-choice question based on your bullet point:

In the bank maneuver, what is the typical distance maintained between the vessel and the bank?
A) 5 to 10 feet between the vessel and the bank
B) 15 to 20 feet between the vessel and the bank
C) 20 to 25 feet between the vessel and the bank
D) 25 to 30 feet between the vessel and the bank

Answer 104

B) 15 to 20 feet between the vessel and the bank

Question 105

Here’s a multiple-choice question based on your bullet point:

When turning a VLCC with maximum rudder, how long could it take to complete a round turn?
A) 5 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 20 minutes

Answer 105

D) 20 minutes

Question 106

Here’s a multiple-choice question based on your bullet point:

What effect does turning with maximum rudder typically have on a ship’s speed?
A) Maintains the speed at the same level
B) Increases the speed by half
C) Reduces the speed by half
D) Halts the ship completely

Answer 106

C) Reduces the speed by half

Question 107

Here’s a multiple-choice question based on your bullet point:

How can a Hazardous crossing be simplified when dealing with converging and crossing traffic?
A) By accelerating to quickly join the flow
B) By maintaining maximum speed to assert right of way
C) By reducing speed in a planned way to select openings
D) By navigating close to other vessels to streamline the crossing

Answer 107

C) By reducing speed in a planned way to select openings

Question 108

Here’s a multiple-choice question based on your bullet point:

How is the problem of picking up or dropping off a pilot often solved to segregate inbound and outbound traffic?
A) By maintaining the same distance between inbound and outbound traffic
B) By segregating traffic by a quarter mile
C) By segregating traffic by half a mile
D) By segregating traffic by one mile

Answer 108

C) By segregating traffic by half a mile