Collin ARF Codes Flashcards

1
Q

What is a sight line?

A

A line drawn on a flat pattern layout within the bend allowance that is one bend radius from the bend tangent line. When the sight line is directly below the nose of the radius bend on the brake, the bend will start at the bend tangent line.

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2
Q

What is the main function of throatless shears in an aircraft sheet metal shop?

A

Throatless shears are used to cut mild carbon steel up to 10-gauge, and stainless steel up to 12-gauge. They can be used to cut irregular curves in the metal.

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3
Q

What kind of metal forming is done by a slip roll former?

A

Simple curves with a large radius.

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4
Q

What kind of metal forming is done by bumping?

A

Compound curves in sheet metal.

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5
Q

When forming a curved angle, what must be done to the flanges?

A

The flanges must be stretched for a convex curve and shrunk for a concave curve.

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6
Q

When hand-forming a piece of sheet metal that has a concave curve, should the forming be started in the center of the curve, or at its edges?

A

Start at the edges and work toward the center.

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7
Q

What is meant by a joggle in a piece of sheet metal?

A

A joggle is a small offset near the edge of a piece of sheet metal that allows the sheet to overlap another piece of metal.

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8
Q

For maximum strength of a formed sheet metal fitting, should the bend be made along or across the grain of the metal?

A

Across the grain.

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9
Q

What determines the minimum bend radius that can be used when forming a sheet metal structural fitting?

A

The alloy, the metal thickness, and its hardness.

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10
Q

What is meant by the neutral axis in a sheet of metal?

A

A plane within the metal that neither stretches nor shrinks when the metal is being bent.

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11
Q

What is a mold line in the development of a flat pattern for a formed metal part?

A

An extension of the flat sides beyond the radius.

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12
Q

What is the bend tangent line?

A

A line in a hat pattern layout at which the bend starts.

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13
Q

What is meant by setback?

A

The distance the jaws of a brake must be set back from the mold line to form a bend.

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14
Q

What is meant by bend allowance?

A

The actual amount of metal in a bend. It is the distance between the bend tangent lines in a flat pattern layout.

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15
Q

What is a stabilator?

A

A single-piece horizontal tail surface that acts as both the horizontal stabilizer and the elevators. A stabilator pivots about its front spar.

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16
Q

What is meant by differential aileron travel?

A

Aileron movement in which the upward-moving aileron deflects a greater distance than the one moving downward. The up aileron produces parasite drag to counteract the induced drag produced by the down aileron.

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17
Q

What is a Frise aileron?

A

An aileron with its hinge line set back from the leading edge so that when it is deflected upward, part of the leading edge projects below the wing and produces parasite drag to help overcome adverse yaw.

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18
Q

What is a ruddervator?

A

Movable control surfaces on a V-tail airplane that are controlled by both the rudder pedals and the control yoke. When the yoke is moved in or out, the ruddervators move together and act as the elevators. When the rudder pedals are depressed, the ruddervators move differentially and act as a rudder.

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19
Q

What is the function of the ailerons on an airplane?

A

Ailerons rotate the airplane about its longitudinal axis.

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20
Q

What are the three basic brake actuating systems?

A

a. An independent system not part of the aircraft main hydraulic system.
b. A booster system that uses the alternate hydraulic system intermittently.
c. A power brake system that only uses the aircraft main hydraulic system as a source of pressure.

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21
Q

How is the air charge of an accumulator checked for proper servicing?

A

Hydraulic pressure must be bled from the system and the pressure is checked on the gauge.

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22
Q

What are three ways supplemental oxygen can be carried in an aircraft?

A

As a high-pressure gas, in liquid form, and as a solid in the form of a chemical candle.

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23
Q

What is a continuous-low oxygen system?

A

An oxygen system that continuously flows a metered amount of oxygen into the mask.

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24
Q

What is a pressure-demand oxygen system?

A

An oxygen system that flows oxygen to the mask only when the wearer inhales. Above a specified altitude, the regulator meters oxygen under pressure into the mask when the wearer inhales.

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25
Q

What are the three fundamental pressure-sensing mechanisms used in aircraft instrument systems?

A

The Bourdon tube, the diaphragm or bellows, and the solid state sensing device.

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26
Q

What basic mechanism is used to measure air, fuel, and oxygen pressures?

A

The Bourdon tube.

27
Q

What mechanical means is used to measure pressure in an airspeed indicator?

A

A diaphragm.

28
Q

A failure of an airspeed indicator needle to move is likely caused by what problem?

A

A blockage in the pitot head will prevent the creation of a differential pressure.

29
Q

What does an angle of attack (AOA) indicator provide to the pilot?

A

The AOA offers a visual indication of the amount of lift the wing is producing at a given airspeed or angle of bank. The AOA delivers critical information to indicate the actual safety margin above an aerodynamic stall.

30
Q

What is the purpose of a stick shaker used on some aircraft?

A

It provides an artificial stall warning to the pilot.

31
Q

Why is it important for a stall warning system to be adjusted correctly?

A

A stall warning system is adjusted to allow sufficient margin and warning prior to an actual stall.

32
Q

What type of system is used to indicate the position of the wing flaps?

A

Usually a resistance-type remote-indicating system such as the DC Selsyn system.

33
Q

What information is shown by the wing flap position indicator?

A

The number of degrees the flaps are lowered.

34
Q

Which frequency band is used for long-range communications from an aircraft?

A

The high frequency band (2 to 25 megahertz).

35
Q

What are the two methods of modulating carrier waves for transmitting information?

A

Amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM).

36
Q

What is meant by a transceiver?

A

It is a piece of radio communications equipment in which all of the circuits for the receiver and the transmitter are combined in one housing.

37
Q

Is a certificated airframe mechanic allowed to adjust a communications transmitter?

A

No, this requires a license issued by the Federal Communications Commission.

38
Q

What kind of conductor is used to connect a VHF or UHF antenna to the receiver or transmitter?

A

Coaxial cable.

39
Q

What is a coaxial cable?

A

A type of two-conductor electrical cable in which the center conductor is encased in insulation and is surrounded by a braided shield that serves as the outer conductor.

40
Q

How can you determine the proper coaxial cable and connectors to use in an aircraft radio installation?

A

Refer to the radio installation instructions for the correct part number for the cable and connectors.

41
Q

What precautions should be taken when installing coaxial cable between a radio transmitter and its antenna?

A

The routing should be as direct as possible, there should be no sharp bends in the coax, and it should be kept away from heat that could soften the insulation.

42
Q

What is a BNE connector?

A

A coaxial cable connector that is connected by inserting the guide pins on the male connector into slots in the female connector and twisting the connector one quarter turn.

43
Q

What kind of antenna is used for VHF communications?

A

A vertically polarized whip antenna.

44
Q

Which frequency band is used for most aircraft communications?

A

The VHF band, between 108 and 300 megahertz.

45
Q

On what two frequencies does the emergency locator transmitter operate?

A

121.5 and 243.0 megahertz.

46
Q

Where is the ELT transmitter normally located on an aircraft?

A

In the tail of the aircraft or as far aft as possible, so it will be least likely to be damaged in a crash.

47
Q

How often should ELT batteries be replaced or recharged?

A

When the transmitter has been in use for more than one cumulative hour, when the battery expiration date has been reached, or when 50% of their useful life or charge has expired.

48
Q

How can you know when an ELT battery must be replaced or recharged?

A

By the date marked on the outside of the transmitter.

49
Q

How often must ELTs be inspected for proper installation, battery corrosion, operation of the controls and sensor, and the presence of the radiated signal?

A

Every 12 calendar months.

50
Q

What causes an ELT to actuate?

A

An inertia switch that detects an impact parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft as would occur in a crash.

51
Q

How is an ELT tested to determine that it is working?

A

Actuate the test switch and listen on 121.5 or 243.0 MHz. Make the test during the first five minutes of the hour and do not allow the ELT to operate for more than 3 sweeps. If the ELT is operated outside of this time frame, you should contact the control tower before conducting the test.

52
Q

What are the two types of inverters found in aircraft?

A

Rotary inverters and static inverters.

53
Q

What is the purpose of an inverter?

A

To convert DC electricity to AC electricity.

54
Q

How does a rotary inverter create AC voltage?

A

By using a DC motor to spin an AC generator.

55
Q

What is an SPOT switch?

A

A single-pole, double-throw switch.

56
Q

If no specific instructions are available, which way should the operating handle of an electrical switch move to turn a component on?

A

Forward or upward.

57
Q

What color insulator on a preinsulated solderless connector indicates that the connector is proper for a 10-gauge wire?

A

Yellow.

58
Q

How many splices are allowed in a single wire run?

A

One.

59
Q

How can you tell, on a preflight inspection, that the pilot heater is operating?

A

It is warm.

60
Q

Where can you find the correct part number for the electrically heated pilot head used on an aircraft?

A

In the illustrated parts manual for the aircraft.

61
Q

If the pilot head includes ports for the static air system, what must be done after the head is replaced?

A

A static system leak test must be performed and the results recorded in the aircraft maintenance records.

62
Q

How can you test if the pilot heat is working?

A

Simply turn the pilot heat system on and observe an increased current indication.

63
Q

What might be likely causes for a propeller electrothermal deicer system failure?

A

A tripped circuit breaker or broken wire to the electrical heating elements.

64
Q

How can a pilot determine if an electrothermal propeller deicer is working?

A

The pilot should observe an increased ammeter reading when the system is energized.