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N109 > College Network > Flashcards

College Network Flashcards

1
Q

Strabismus

A

Disorder in which both eyes don’t look in the same direction all the time. (Cross-eye)

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2
Q

This physician and psychologist focused on biophysical development and is sometimes referred to as the “father of growth and development”.

A

Arnold Gesell

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3
Q

What are the 3 parts of a person based on Freud’s work?

A

Id: seeks pleasure, avoids pain
Superego: conscience
Ego: balances the needs of Id and superego

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4
Q

What was Robert Peck’s developmental focus?

A

He focused on Erik Erikson’s “integrity vs. despair” stage of life for older adults.

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5
Q

Roger Gould focused on which aspect of psychosocial development?

A

7 phases of Adult development

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6
Q

Developmental theorist Havighurst organized his development model on what?

A

Age periods and certain developmental tasks that should be accomplished during that time.

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7
Q

What are the 4 phases of Piagets cognitive development model?

A

Sensorimotor: 0-2 years
Pre-operational: 2-7 years
Concrete Operational: 7-11 years
Formal Operational: 11-15 years

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8
Q

Based on Piagets cognitive development model, what are the 3 abilities a child uses in processing information?

A

Assimilation
Accommodation
Adaptation

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9
Q

What are the 3 phases of moral development according to Kohlberg?

A

Pre conventional
Conventional
Post conventional

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10
Q

Who was the research assistant of Kohlberg who adapted his theory to be more broad and focus on women?

A

Carol Gilligan

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11
Q

Name 2 psychologists who focused on Spiritual development?

A

Fowler

Westerhoff

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12
Q

Eruption of permanent teeth is usually complete by what age?

A

15

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13
Q

At what age does menarche begin?

A

10-16

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14
Q

What is one natural solution that has been found to help the symptoms of colic?

A

Chamomile tea up to 3x per day.

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15
Q

Amblyopia

A

Decreased visual acuity in one eye.

Lazy eye w/ decreased vision due to improper development.

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16
Q

What time of year is most prevalent for RSV?

A

Late fall to early spring

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17
Q

The 3rd leading cause of death in children (infants?) is?

A

SIDS

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18
Q

What bacteria contributes to dental caries?

A

Streptococcus mutans

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19
Q

1st and 2nd leading causes of death in young adults in the USA?

A

MVA’s

Suicide

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20
Q

What time of year is most prevalent for RSV?

A

Late fall to early spring

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21
Q

The 3rd leading cause of death in children (infants?) is?

A

SIDS

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22
Q

Leading cause of death for adults 25-64.

A

Cancer

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23
Q

List the 4 categories of elderly and the associated age range.

A

Young old: 65-75
Old: 75-85
Old-old: 85-100
Elite Old: over 100

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24
Q

Spiritual development takes place in 7 sequential steps/phases and each stage develops from a combination of knowledge and values.
Which spiritual developmental psychologist proposed this?

A

Fowler

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25
Q

Spiritual development is a 4 phase process heavily dependent on the practices of one’s family.
Which spiritual development psychologist proposed this?

A

Westerhoff

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26
Q

How were the goals identified in Healthy People 2020 selected?

A

They were the areas with the best current data available and also the areas which there is the greatest likelihood of effecting change.

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27
Q

What are the 4 non-pharmacological areas of nursing focusing on comfort?

A

Physical
Psychospiritual
Social
Environmental

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28
Q

Itching of the skin, with or without a rash.

A

Pruritis

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29
Q

Relaxation techniques have proven effective in relieving lower back pain, but evidence does not support the relief of ?

A

Post-operative pain

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30
Q 
Behavior that facilitates effective communication:
Facing the person squarely
Adopting an open posture
Lean toward the client
Maintain eye contact
Stay relaxed
A

Physical attending

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31
Q

Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation is believed to help with pain control how?

A

By stimulating non nociceptive receptors in the same area.

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32
Q

When dealing with comfort measures, what 3 general types of issues must be considered during the outcomes identification phase?

A

Health promotion
Health maintenance
Health restoration

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33
Q

Noxious stimuli

A

Painful stimuli

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34
Q

What type of drug is tegretol?

A

Anticonvulsant. May help with neuropathic pain.

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35
Q

What is one of the endogenous proteins that acts on nociceptors, causing release of histamine, vasodilation, inflammation, and also stimulates the release of prostaglandin which enhances the sensitivity of nociceptors.

A

Bradykinin

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36
Q

Pain travels on A-fibers and C-fibers; which is myelinated?

A

A-fibers are larger, myelinated, deliver faster conducted impulses and are typically associated with sharp, pricking pain.

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37
Q

When pain travels along the A and C fibers, into which part of the spinal cord do they end?

A

Dorsal horn

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38
Q

Name 2 endogenous opioids.

A

Endorphins

Enkephalins

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39
Q

What are the 3 steps of the WHO “ladder of pain control”?

A
  1. Non-opioid NSAID
  2. Weak opioid
  3. Strong opioid
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40
Q

The current accepted “balanced” practice of pain control is called:

A

Multi-modal analgesia

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41
Q

PRN

A

Pro re nata (as needed)

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42
Q

PCA

A

Patient controlled analgesia

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43
Q

Duragesic

A

Fentanyl pain patch

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44
Q

Occurring within or administered into the outer layer of the spinal dura

A

Intrathecal

45
Q

Aleve

A

Naproxen

46
Q

Dysesthesia

A

Burning or cutting pain

47
Q

What type of drug is carbamazepine?

A

Anticonvulsant

48
Q

QUESST approach to pediatric pain assessment

A 
Question the child
Use a pain rating scale
Evaluate behavioral/physiological changes
Secure parents involvement
Take the cause of pain into account
Take actions, evaluate results
49
Q

What’s a good rule of thumb for starting a pain control regimen for elderly?

A

Start low, go slow.

50
Q

What are the 9 phases of the chronic illness trajectory model?

A

Pretrajectory: at risk
Trajectory phase: initial occurrence of symptoms
Stable Phase: usually officially diagnosed and well managed.
Unstable Phase: recurring symptoms, complications
Acute Phase: severe or unrelieved symptoms w/hospitalization
Crisis Phase: critical, life threatening
Comeback phase: recovery after an acute event
Downward Phase: deterioration despite interventions
Dying Phase:

51
Q

Talcott Parsons proposed 4 components of the “sick role”

Name them

A
  1. Sickness exempts one from normal social roles
  2. Sick person is not responsible for the illness
  3. Sick person has an obligation to get well
  4. Sick person has an obligation to seek and receive competent care.
52
Q

What are the 3 phases of adjusting to a chronic illness?

A

Shock, denial, disbelief
Adjustment
Reintegration and Acknowledgement

53
Q

What are the 5 stages of grief proposed by Elizabeth Kubler-Ross?

A 
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression 
Acceptance
54
Q

What are the 6 stages of grief proposed by George Engel?

A 
Shock & Disbelief
Developing Awareness
Restitution
Resolving the loss
Idealization
Outcome
55
Q

What are the 3 phases of grief proposed by Rondo?

A

Avoidance
Confrontation
Accommodation

56
Q

If on life support, how long must a brain be inactive (flat encephalogram) before pronouncing death?

A

24hrs

57
Q

As a person is nearing death, it is not uncommon for congestion to occur, causing the “death rattle”. Auctioning isn’t recommended as it can actually increase secretions. What is one drug that may be given for this?

A

Scopolamine transdermal patches or other anticholinergics.

58
Q

Approximately when does rigor mortis set in and how long does it last?

A

Sets in approx. 2-4hrs after death and ends approx. 96hrs after death.

59
Q

Gradual cooling of the body after death.

A

Algor mortis

60
Q

What are the 3 types of “awareness” regarding an impending death?

A

Closed awareness: client or family may not be informed
Mutual pretense: everyone knows but it’s not discussed
Open awareness:

61
Q

Gustatory stimuli

A

Taste

62
Q

An awareness of an object’s size, shape, and texture based on touch alone.

A

Stereognosis

63
Q

The part of the brain stem involved in arousal/alertness.

A

RAS

Reticular activating system

64
Q

The stapes attaches to which membrane connecting it to the inner ear?

A

The oval window

65
Q

The eustachean tube connects what?

A

The middle ear to the pharynx

66
Q

What fluid is in the cochlea?

A

Perilymph

67
Q

What is the structure that converts the movement of hairs in the cochlea into an electrical impulse sent to the brain?

A

The organ of corti

68
Q

Age related hearing loss associated with the inner ear or nerves.

A

Presbycusis

69
Q

Age related balance problems

A

Presbystasis

Presbyvertigo

70
Q

Sensation of fullness or pain in the ear due to cerumen impaction.

A

Otalgia

71
Q

Masses of the external ear or small bony protrusions usually found in the lower posterior portion of the ear canal.

A

Exostoses

72
Q

What external product has been identified as a significant contributor to acute otitis media?

A

Second hand smoke.

73
Q

Numbing of the tympanic membrane with a subsequent incision to drain purulent discharge.

A

Myringotomy

74
Q

Involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes.

A

Nystagmus

75
Q

These disease has a triad of symptoms

  1. Vertigo
  2. Tinnitus
  3. Fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss
A

Ménière’s disease

76
Q

Labyrinthitis

A

Bacterial or viral infection of the inner ear

77
Q

Cranial nerve 8

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve

78
Q

Anatomy of the eye: a ring of tissue that supports the lens

A

Ciliary body

79
Q

Anterior compartment of eye is filled with?

A

Aqueous humor

80
Q

Posterior eye is filled with the gelatinous….

A

Vitreous humor

81
Q

Focal point of retina

A

Fovea centralis

82
Q

Absence of refractive errors

A

Emmetropia

83
Q

Nearsightedness

A

Myopia

84
Q

Low vision

A

BCVA - best corrected visual acuity of 20/70-20/200

85
Q

Chronic, degenerative disorder involving pigmentation of the retina.

A

Macular degeneration

86
Q

What are the 2 types of AMD (age related macular degeneration)?

A

Dry AMD: more common, slower onset

Wet AMD: less common, more sudden

87
Q

Tiny yellow spots on the retina commonly seen with macular degeneration.

A

Drusen

88
Q

An opaque or cloudy section in the lens of the eye.

A

Cataract

89
Q

Increased intaocular pressure caused by congestion of aqueous humor.

A

Glaucoma

90
Q

The Goldman three mirror evaluation is used for suspected…

A

Retinal detachment

91
Q
  1. Infection of a sebaceous gland in the eyelid margin.

2. Inflammation of a sebaceous gland in the eyelid.

A
  1. Sty (hordeolum)

2. Chalazion

92
Q

Inflammation of the lid margin and lash follicles

A

Blepharitis

93
Q

Inflammation or infection of the cornea

A

Keratitis

94
Q

What do miotic drugs do?

A

Cause pupillary constriction and treat glaucoma

95
Q

Hearing loss caused by lengthy exposure to loud noises?

Hearing loss caused by a single exposure to a loud noise?

A

Noise induced hearing loss

Acoustic trauma

96
Q

Hearing test used to check lateralizarion of hearing and uses a tuning fork on the forehead.

A

Weber test

97
Q

Hearing test used to determine if hearing loss is conductive or sensorineural.

A

Rinne test

98
Q

What is the name of the vision chart typically seen in a doctors office with rows of progressively smaller letters?

A

Snellen’s chart

99
Q

Ptosis

A

Drooping eyelid

100
Q

What is the grid called that is used for checking for macular degeneration?

A

Amsler grid

101
Q

Tonometry evaluates ……?

A

Intraocular pressure

102
Q

What is the difference between visible poverty and invisible poverty?

A

Visible poverty refers to tangible items such as money and material resources.
Invisible poverty refers to social and cultural issues such as no education or lack of access to education.

103
Q

This manipulative/body based therapy focuses on the use of postural reflexes.

A

Alexander technique

104
Q

This therapy involves rhythmic, gentle movements.

A

Trager therapy

105
Q

This therapy involves “modulating the person’s energy field” without actually touching the patient.

A

Therapeutic touch

106
Q

This energy therapy focuses on placing hands over certain organs and energy centers.

A

Reiki

107
Q

Traditional Vietnamese ritual of rubbing a patient’s oiled skin with a coin to rid the body of disease.

A

Coining

108
Q

A group of people with some sort of common characteristic.

A

Aggregate

N109 (3 decks)

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