COI Flashcards

1
Q

What is a conflict of interest?

A

A situation where a person with a duty to act in the interest of another person is subject to interference from another interest that hampers their ability to fulfill that duty.

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2
Q

What does Recital 45 Reg. 565/2017 specify about conflicts of interest?

A

It includes conflicts between the interests of the investment firm and the duty owed to a client, or differing interests of two or more clients.

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3
Q

True or False: It is sufficient for an investment firm to gain a benefit for there to be a conflict of interest.

A

False

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4
Q

What typically causes conflicts between investment firms and clients?

A

When the investment firm is involved as a counterparty to the client.

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5
Q

Give an example of a situation that can cause a conflict of interest between clients.

A

Providing corporate finance services to issuers while advising and managing portfolios for investors.

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6
Q

What are the three essential elements of a conflict of interest in MiFID II?

A
  • Duty to act in the best interest of a client
  • Another interest may influence this duty
  • The influence may harm the client
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7
Q

What are the two main types of organizational measures to prevent conflicts of interest?

A
  • Prevention
  • Monitoring and management
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8
Q

What does the preliminary stocktaking in MiFID II address regarding conflicts of interest?

A

It identifies the duty to act in a client’s best interest, potential influencing interests, and possible harm to clients.

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9
Q

What is a multi-layered defense in managing conflicts of interest?

A

A combination of organizational measures and conduct-of-business rules.

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10
Q

What does Reg. 565 specifically address in underwriting or placing services?

A

The risk that sell-side clients’ interests prevail over those of buy-side clients.

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11
Q

What is the organizational measures IF must account for in conflicts of interest policy?

A
  • Identification of conflicts
  • Measures to prevent conflicts
  • Measures to manage arising conflicts
  • Disclosure as a last resort
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12
Q

What criteria are used to identify (map) relevant conflicts of interest?

A
  • Financial gain/avoidance of loss at the expense of the client
  • Distinct interests in service outcomes
  • Incentives to favor another client
  • Being a competitor of the client
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13
Q

What is required of investment firms regarding conflicts of interest policies?

A

They must establish, implement, and maintain written policies proportional to their size and organization.

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: Inducements are ______ paid or received by any third party in relation to the provision of services to clients.

A

[fees, commissions, monetary or non-monetary benefits]

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15
Q

True or False: Inducements are prohibited under MiFID II.

A

True, except for certain exceptions.

violate duty of loyalty

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16
Q

What overarching duty do investment firms have when executing orders?

A

To obtain the best possible result for their clients.

17
Q

What factors are considered under the best execution duty?

A
  • Price
  • Costs
  • Speed
  • Likelihood of execution and settlement
  • Size and nature of the order
  • Any other relevant considerations
18
Q

What is the distinction in the best execution duty between retail and professional investors?

A

For retail investors, the total consideration is the only guiding criterion.

19
Q

What must investment firms disclose regarding their execution policy?

A

They must disclose it to clients in advance of service performance.

20
Q

What does the conflicts of interest policy entail?

A
  • Description of the general nature and sources of COI
  • Specific description of COI arising during service
  • Steps undertaken to mitigate risks
21
Q

What should the COI policy include when managing underwriting and placing?

A

Consideration of refraining from engaging in self-placement if conflicts cannot be managed.

22
Q

What is the purpose of the disclosure duties during the service?

A

To inform clients when organizational arrangements are insufficient to prevent damage to their interests.

23
Q

What is meant by ‘self-placement’ in relation to conflicts of interest?

A

Conflicts arising from the placement of financial instruments issued by the investment firm itself.

24
Q

Elements of IF COI Policy

A
  • Proportinal to size of IF
  • Identify circs that give rise to COI
  • Procedures to prevent COI
  • Anual review of COI policy
  • recordkeeping to support review
25
Q

Examples of measures to prevent COI

A
  • control info exchanges
  • supervise groups w/ COI risk separatly
  • remove link between remuneration of RB and revenue generated by conficts adjacent activities
  • limit involvment of of RP in separate IS and AS where involvment impairs COI management
26
Q

how are exceptions to the inducements regime regualted?

A

Regulation of Inducements varies by type of service

27
Q

In transactional services, what are the exceptions to the inducements ban

A
  • fees paid by clients
  • “proper fees” (admin fees)
  • fees paid by 3P under limited conditions

this is the general regime

28
Q

when can 3P pay inducements?

General regime => transactional services

A

Fee:
* enhances service to C
* does not impair duty to act in C’s best inerest
* disclosed and transfered to C

29
Q

In fiduciary services what are the exception to the inducements ban?

A

minor non-monetary benefit:
* enhaces service
* disclosed to C
* does not impair best interst
Also
* payments by/for C
* recieve/transfer to C

31
Q

How is best execution duties regulated?

A

Best Execution varies by client classification

32
Q

What is best execution for RC

A

minimize price + costs

33
Q

Best execution for PC

A

(1) maintain execution policy
(2) follow policy when executing orders

OTC FI requires C approval

34
Q

What is in the execution policy

A
  • execution venues
  • factors that impact EV choice
  • V that consistanty enable BE & warnings about OTC prod
  • describes crteria for determinations
35
Q

Best execution for Elligible Counterparties