Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Amanda-Cognitive Communication Disorders > Cognitive Communication Disorders (Final Exam Review) > Flashcards

Cognitive Communication Disorders (Final Exam Review) Flashcards

1
Q

The 2 main types of cells in the nervous system are the ___ and the ___

A

Glial cells (support cell function, Neurons (communication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do Sensory Neurons do?

A

(Receptors) Transmit sensory information to Nervous System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name 3 types of sensory neurons (receptors):

A

Chemoreceptors (chemicals), Thermoreceptors (temperature), Mechanoreceptors (force/pressure), Photoreceptors (light during vision), Baroreceptors (changes in blood pressure), Proprioceptors (position)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

connections between sensory and motor neurons are called ____________

A

Interneurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do Motor neurons (effectors) do?

A

Receive excitation from other cells and send impulses (signal transmission)
• E.g. instructs muscles to contract or glands to
secrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
At the cellular level, information is transmitted in the
nervous system (NS) by the conversion of what kinds of energy (E)?
A

electrical energy
–> chemical energy —-> (back into) electrical
energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Electrical energy moves within the neuron from the ___ to the ___.

A

(cell) body to the axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chemical cellular communication happens at the____ _____

A

synaptic cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neurotransmitter function?

A

Chemical messenger; transmits message from Nerve Cell (across synapse) —-> target cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Change in electrical value is known as _____ _____

A

Action Potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The divisions of the nervous system are the ___ nervous system and the ___ nervous system

A

Central (CNS), Peripheral (PNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What two structures make up the CNS? ___ and ____

A

brain, spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The PNS is divided into the Autonomic & Somatic NS. It consists of ___ and ____ that are outside the CNS.

A

Nerves and ganglia (cell bodies) outside the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The divisions of the PNS are the ___ and the ____

A

Autonomic NS, somatic NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The outer coverings of the brain include the ___ , ___ , and the ___ .

A

Dura Mater, (outer coverings), Arachnoid Mater/ Membrane, Pia Mater (inner, near brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Between the arachnoid & pia mater is the ____ ____ which contains blood vessels and CSF

A

subarachnoid
space [which contains blood vessels and cerebrospinal fluid
(CSF)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of CSF?

A

Cleans & protects the brain & spinal cord by circulating throughout the ventricles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Major ventricles in brain___, ___, ____

A

2 lateral ventricles, 3rd ventricle, 4th ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Neurology is the branch of medicine that deals with the _____, ______, and____ of the ____ _____ (..)

A

the anatomy,
physiology (function), and disorders of the nervous
system (N.S.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why do SLPs need to be well versed in Neurology?

A

To be effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dendrites are the ___ ___ of cell bodies.

A

Receptor Branches (of cell bodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ganglia are….

A

Clusters of cell bodies in the PNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Nuclei are…

A

Clusters of cell bodies in the CNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do Axons do?

A

Transmit electrical impulses (action potential) AWAY from cell body/ nucleus to terminal buttons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Axons are covered in a ___ ____

A

Myelin sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A tract is a bundle of _____ in the _____ ________ ________ (_ _ _)

A

Axons in the central nervous system (CNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A NERVE is a bundle of _____ in the _____ ________ ________(_ _ _)

A

A bundle of axons in the PNS-peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The Nodes of Ranvier are gaps in _____ along the ___

A

gaps in MYELINATION along the AXON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What contains synaptic vesicles (stores the neurotransmitter for release at the synapse)? The ___ ____.

A

Terminal button (aka Axon Terminal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Main components/ structures in the brain include the ____ (__), the ____, the ___, and the ___

A

Cerebrum (lobes), Cerebellum, Subcortical Structures, Brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The cerebrum consists of ___ matter

A

gray matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Gray matter is grey because it consists of ………

A

Somas, densely packed cell bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

3 Regions with gray matter include _____, _____, and ____ _____

A

Cerebrum, Thalamus, Spinal Cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

White matter appears white because …..

A

the majority of axons are wrapped in myelin, giving a whitish appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name the 5 lobes of the brain

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, insula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When a function is controlled by 1 hemisphere (1 side), it is said to be _______(ed).

A

lateralized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Speech and language are thought to be controlled by the ____ hemisphere
in about __% of people

A

left, 95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When certain brain regions serve distinct functions it’s referred to as “_____”.

A

“Specialization” (e.g. Frontal lobe is specialized for

executive function)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The main lobe involved with cognition? ___ lobe

A

frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

3 main structures/ areas of the frontal lobe: 1. _______ _____, 2. ____ _____ ____3. _____ ____ ____

A
  1. Prefrontal cortex, 2. Supplementary Motor Area, 3. Primary Motor Cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Frontal Lobe Main Functions (9 of them)

A

(1) control for movement, (2) planning, (3) initiation,
(4) judgement, (5) reasoning, (6) concentration, (7) disinhibition of behaviors, (8) adaption to change, (9) emotional response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Primary Motor Cortex (Frontal Lobe) contains ____ neurons that send signals to execute movement.

A

motor neurons that send signals to execute movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

____ neurons are arranged in a somatotopic fashion

A

Motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Broca’s area is included in the ___ ____ (___ side of the Frontal Lobe)

A

Premotor Cortex (left, frontal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Function of Premotor cortex?

A

Plans movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

_____ (Efferent/ Afferent) nerves travel from the CNS to the body.

A

Efferent (exit the CNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

_____ (Efferent/ Afferent) nerves travel from the body to the CNS.

A

Afferent (arrive in the CNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

If the central point is the brain, then sensory neurons are ____ (afferent/efferent) because they send information to the brain, while motor neurons are ____ (afferent/efferent)because they carry information from the brain to organs, like muscles or glands.

A

For example, if the central point in question is the brain, sensory neurons are afferent because they send information to the brain (arrive in brain), while motor neurons are efferent because they carry information from the brain (exiting brain) to effector organs like muscles or glands. It is crucial to keep in mind exactly which structure is the current focus of the discussion since the terms “afferent” and “efferent” are relative to the direction of information transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Although there may be involvement across multiple lobes of the brain for cognition, the main lobe is believed to be the ___ ____.

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which cortex of the frontal lobe is typically associated with executive function? The ___ cortex

A

prefrontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If you were to experience agnosia, or inability to recognize objects, this would likely be due to damage of the __ lobe of the brain.

A

parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Visual processing is believed to be involved with the __ lobe of the brain

A

occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Balance is typically associated with this part of the brain: the__.

A

cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The brain’s subcortical structures include the: thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, hippocampus, ___ ____ , and the ____.

A

substantia nigra; midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The subcortical structure believed to form and store memories associated with emotional events is the ___

A

amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The 3 parts of the brainstem from superior to inferior are the __, __, __.

A

midbrain, pons, medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The portion of the midbrain that produces the neurotransmitter dopamine is the ___

A

Substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which type of tracts in the CNS provide intrahemispheric connection? The ___ tracts

A

Association (tracts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The 2 arterial systems in the brain are the____ arteries, which provide posterior blood circulation, and the ___ arteries which provide anterior circulation

A

Vertebral (posterior); Carotid (anterior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What areas (lobes) of the brain are most likely impacted when there is attention impairment?

A

Frontal lobe, parietal, temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What area within the frontal lobe believed to be most involved with executive function?

A

prefrontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which brain area is believed to be important for the storage of new memories?

A

Temporal lobe or Hippocampus (if destroyed, incapable of creating new memories)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The memory retrieval process is believed to be mediated by the __ lobe and subcortical structures

A

Frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

CAPACITY LIMITATION is the principle that says ___is a limited-capacity resource, whereas SELECTION asserts that __ involves the selection of relevant stimuli while others are ignored/ filtered

A

attention; attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cognition is an umbrella term for all higher mental processes, including: ___, ___, ____, ___

A

attention, memory, executive function, language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Neuropsychologists are similar to SLPs in terms of assessing and treating cognition. However, they differ from SLPs in that they treat _____disturbances and ______ functioning

A

mood; emotional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The two general types of treatment are ___ and ___

A

rehabilitative; compensatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

According to Sohlberg and Mateer (1987, 2001, 2010), the two broad types of attention are __ and __

A

Sustained Attention; Executive control of attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A screen is used to identify presence of impairment and is usually pass/ fail (T/F)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The 4 types of attention UNDER EXECUTIVE CONTROL are

A

Suppression, Selective, Alternating,

Working memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Listening to a spoken passage in the presence of background noise requires intact attention of what kind?

A

Selective

72
Q

(aka divided) ability to shift focus between tasks or stimuli is called __________attention

A

Alternating attention

73
Q

ability to control impulsive responding is ________ ____ _________

A

Suppression of Attention (define)

74
Q

ability to hold and manipulate information is called ________ _________

A

Working Memory

75
Q

Selective Attention

A

selectively process information while inhibiting responses to nontarget information

76
Q

Mental flexibility

A

(EF) ability to change a course of action based on shifting demands of a situation

77
Q

Planning

A

Involves setting objectives and determining a course of action to achieve those objectives

78
Q

being able to discern the good and harmful aspects of a situation is known as ________

A

Judgment

79
Q

ability to select appropriate responses and suppress unwanted actions is called_______

A

Inhibition

80
Q

Attention is always defined in relation to a __

A

Stimulus, external stimulus, internal stimulus

81
Q

As an SLP, your evaluation should include these 4 parts:

A

Case history, Background, Physical examination, Assessment

82
Q

Katie has an appointment at 3:00 pm. It’s now 2:30 and she knows she should leave but she can’t seem to get going. THis is an example of a deficit in which executive function component?

A

Initiation

83
Q

____, ___, and ___ are the various stages of information processing described by the Stages Model of human memory

A

encoding, storage, retrieval

84
Q

Delayed recall is associated with which stage of human memory?

A

Retrieval

85
Q

The early processing of material to be learned is associated with which stage of human memory

A

Encoding

86
Q

Etiology:

A

cause, set of causes, or manner of causation of a disease or condition

87
Q

Pathophysiology

A

functional changes associated with or resulting from disease or injury

88
Q

What type of disease is Encephalitis?

A

Acute Onset

89
Q

Covid-19 is an example of what type of disease?

A

Example of a disease of immunocompromise

90
Q

Lupus is an example of what type of disease?

A

Example of a relapsing/ remitting disease

91
Q

Example of a progressive disease

A

Parkinson’s Disease (PD), ALS

92
Q

Cerebrovascular accidents associated with cognitive-linguistic deficits are most often the result of the loss of blood flow in the ___ ___ ___ ___.

A

Left Middle Cerebral Artery (LMCA)

93
Q

The 2 types of stroke are: __ and ___

A

Ischemic; Hemorrhagic

94
Q

Ischemic strokes account for nearly what percentage of all strokes?

A

90%

95
Q

The two types of TBIs are ___ brain injury and __ brain injury

A

penetrating (open) brain injury; closed brain injury

96
Q

Inflammation in the brain can cause neuronal communication to quicken (T/F)

A

False, inflammation can cause neuronal communication to slow.

97
Q

What is an example of a Demyelinating disease?

A

MS-multiple sclerosis (NOT: FTD, ALS, MSA, AD)

98
Q

Neuronal communication is __ in demyelinating disease

A

slowed, slower, or declined

99
Q

How much of dementia is the result of Alzheimer’s disease (AD) ? (2/3, 1/4, 1/3, or 1/2)

A

2/3

100
Q

What is the hallmark cognitive symptom of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Memory Impairment

101
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by a loss of ___ producing nerve cells in the part of the brain called the___ ___

A

dopamine; substantia nigra

102
Q

What is the hallmark cognitive symptom in frontotemporal dementia (FTD)?

A

Executive function impairment

103
Q

Which of the below types of dementia is typically associated with attention impairment, appearing early in the disease progression?

A

Lewy body dementia (LBD)

104
Q

use of decontextualized tasks to train attention in a specific context is ____ ______

A

Direct training

105
Q

training cognitive skills in the context of everyday activities is ________ ____ ______ ______

A

Training in specific skills

106
Q

Compensatory strategies

A

intended to minimize impairment while waiting for function to return or if function does not return

107
Q

There is insufficient evidence that direct training on its own is effective and therefore should be combined with other approaches (T/F)

A

True

108
Q

Which type of cognitive impairment is the most common deficit observed in patients with acquired cognitive communication disorders?

A

Executive Dysfunction

109
Q

The 3 treatment types under the rehabilitative approach for memory include __, ___, and _____ _____

A

Rehearsal, Retrieval (cues), Awareness Training (Metamemory)

110
Q

List one treatment example type for rehearsal

A 
Rehearsing numbers
Inference rehearsal
Spatial, spatial rehearsal
Inference
Rehearsing instructions
Spaced retrieval
111
Q

An “alphabet search” is an example of a ______ ____ for the treatment for memory

A

Retrieval cue, retrieval, retrieval technique

112
Q

Which type of cognitive impairment is the most enduring following TBI?

A

Executive Function

113
Q

Selection of therapy approach in patients with TBI depends on [ ] Patient’s level of awareness, [ ] Time since Injury, [ ] Support available to patient [ ] cause or [ ] location of injury

A

Patient’s level of awareness, Time since Injury, Support available to patient (NOT: cause or location of injury)

114
Q

Presence/ absence of impairment can be made using results of a single cognitive communication measure (T/F)

A

False

115
Q

Select all protocols below intended to treat executive function impairment [ ] TATE, [ ] TEACH-M, [ ] Spaced Retrieval, [ ] PIE [ ] memory book or [ ] APT

A

TATE, TEACH-M, Spaced Retrieval, PIE (NOT: memory book or APT)

116
Q

Time manaagement pressure is a common complaint among patients with dementia (T/F))

A

False

117
Q

Environmental supports used to compensate for executive function deficits include: modification of ___ demands, organization of ___ _____, cueing, prompting and manipulation of ____ factors

A

Task (demands), (organization of )Physical Space, Prompting, (cueing), and (manipulation of ) Physiologic (factors)

118
Q

Although there may be involvement across multiple lobes of the brain for cognition, the main lobe is believed to be the ___

A

Frontal Lobe

119
Q

The two components of attention according to Sohlberg and Mateer are __ attention and ___ of attention

A

Sustained (attention) and Executive control (of attention)

120
Q

Compensatory strategies for Memory:

A

memory notebook, calendar or smartphone, written aids, pill organizers, alarms

121
Q

Unilateral neglect is a visual deficit (T/F)

A

False

122
Q

Left unilateral neglect is more common than right: (T/F)

A

True

123
Q

Unilateral visuospatial neglect can be view centered, ___ centered, or both.

A

object

124
Q

Although there is a paucity of treatment efficacy for disorders associated with right hemisphere damage, the exception is ___ ___ ____

A

Unilateral Visuospatial Neglect (UVN)

125
Q

RHD-CCD can affect both cognition and communication, including ____ ______, ____, ___, ____, and _____

A

executive function, awareness, prosody, comprehension, production, and pragmatics

126
Q

RHD most frequently impacts which of the following types of attention?

A

Sustained, Selective, Alternating

127
Q

Define anosognosia in your own words

A

Anosognosia is the lack of awareness of one’s own deficits. A patient may have left-sided neglect, where they do not see things on the left side of a page or the left side of their body. Anosognosia can include a lack of awareness of this left-sided neglect.

128
Q

Name one type of treatment for affective aprosodia:

A

Motoric-imitative treatment

Cognitive affective treatment

129
Q

Indicate whether the Motoric-imitative & cognitive affective treatment are intended for expressive affective aprosodia or receptive affective aprosodia

A

Expressive aprosodia-both motoric-imitative treatment & cognitive affective treatment (p.178-180)

130
Q

__ is a treatment for neglect that can be categorized as “bottom-up” (p. 174)

A 
Adding characters to words (e.g. provide meaningless symbols (e.g. xxx) before words
Left side anchors
External sensory simulation
Border around stimuli
Prism adaptation
131
Q

Bottom-up treatments are designed to _________________

A

increase attention to left-sided stimuli through manipulation of attentional systems or the stimuli themselves (p. 174)

132
Q

Treatments that Improve individuals’ performance via cognitive strategies. (p. 174)

A

Top-down attentional treatments for UN

133
Q

______ (multiple answers) is a treatment for neglect that can be categorized as “top-down”

A

Lighthouse strategy
Visuospatial motor treatments
Limb activation training
Visual scanning

134
Q

Which category of treatments for neglect (UVN) currently has better evidentiary support in the literature?

A

Top-down

135
Q

Mild cognitive impairment is a preclinical condition suggesting risk for developing dementia (T/F)

A

True

136
Q

Which type of dementia has an onset typically occurring before 65 years of age?

A

Frontotemporal Dementia

137
Q

Which type of dementia has accompanying sleep disturbances and hallucinations?

A

Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB) (p.244)

138
Q

The 2nd most common cause of dementia is

A

Vascular Dementia

139
Q

Name one screen for cognitive impairment

A 
Montreal cognitive assessment
Cognitive linguistic quick test plus
Cognitive linguistic quick test 
Mini mental state examination
Saint louis university mental status exam
Clock drawing test
140
Q

Name one measure to assess dementia across cognitive domains

A

Arizona Battery for Cognitive Communication Disorders, 2nd edition
Cognitive Linguistic Quick Test
Dementia Rating Scale
Repeatable Battery for the Assessment of Neuropsychological Status

141
Q

Treatment for cognitive-communication disorders for dementia includes behavioral and __ treatment

A

Pharmacological
Surgical
medical

142
Q

Name one feature of successful interventions for persons with dementia:__

A

Task formats that reduce error likelihood during initial learning
Capitalize on relatively spared sustained attention during intervention
Provide contexts for learning by doing and for practice with generate…??
Errorless learning
Exposure to meaningful sensory stimuli
Learning by doing with multiple opportunities
Opportunities for meaningful social engagement

143
Q

Write one evidence-based behavioral treatment for cognition for persons with dementia

A

Reading Roundtable
Memory wallets
Memory books
Spaced retrieval

144
Q

Patients with dementia undergo treatment

A

Direct behavioral Treatment

145
Q

Family members undergo training

A

Indirect behavioral treatment

146
Q

Write on SMART Goal that would be beneficial for persons with dementia

A

My goal: In 12 weeks, the patient will demonstrate the use of a compensatory strategy (e.g. utilize a memory book to rehearse personal information) in 4 out of 5 opportunities during 3 consecutive therapy sessions, as measured by SLP therapy data and observations.

147
Q

TBI- what are rotational forces?

A

Rotation of the object around its center of gravity. Because of the structure of the skull and meninges, cortex suffers damage due to shearing strain during rotation
Application of rotational force causes angular acceleration of skull while brain initially remains stationary due to inertia
Then, brain surface catches on bony protuberances on inner surface of skull and is dragged along with movement of the skull
Results in ripping of the cortex with the greatest damage in the frontal and temporal regions

148
Q

Scales to measure TBI severity

A

Glasgow Coma Scale
Post-traumatic amnesia
Altered level of consciousness

149
Q

The ___ ____ ___ is a common scoring system used to describe the level of consciousness in a person following TBI
Simple, reliable, objective. Can be used to assign severity level.

A

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS): Measures eye-opening (spontaneous, none, etc.), verbal response (oriented, confused, words but not coherent, sounds but no words), motor response (6=obeys command; 5= localizing; 4 = normal flexion; 3=abnormal; 2= extension). Mild=13-15; Mod=9-12; Severe=3-8

150
Q

Period of time between injury and recovery of continuous memory: ___ _____ _____

A

Post traumatic amnesia (PTA)

151
Q

Relationship between length of PTA and the severity of TBI

A

> 5 min=very mild; 5-59 min=mild; 24 hours= mod; 1-7 days= severe >7 days= very severe

152
Q

Altered States of Consciousness: complete state of unconscious with no environmental interaction is a…..

A

coma

153
Q

Altered States of Consciousness: Some eye-opening and periods of wake or sleep is a …

A

Persistent Vegetative State

154
Q

Altered States of Consciousness: persists for more than 1 month with no functional changes is a …

A

Permanent vegetative state:

155
Q

Altered States of Consciousness: inconsistent control of voluntary movements or behaviors;

A

Minimally conscious state: (Demonstrate 1+ of the following: Limb withdrawal to stimulus
Some visual tracking to follow person or object in room; Inconsistent grabbing of objects or following of commands; Some communication via yes/ no or gesture

156
Q

Common deficits following TBI include: (more than 5)

A 
Orientation 
Attention
Memory
Executive functioning
Processing speed
Self-awareness
Language
Pragmatics
Dysphagia (trouble swallowing)
Motor speech (dysarthria)
Hearing
Vision
157
Q

WHO-ICF is the

A

World Health Organization’s Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (WHO-ICF) is a globally recognized model for assessing deficits at the impairment, activity, and functioning levels within the recovery continuum
Focus on FUNCTIONAL evaluation and treatment; look at QoL (quality of life)

158
Q

TBI: Adequate assessment at the functioning level includes the following 5 objectives:

A

Evaluate strengths and weaknesses and their effect on pre-morbid abilities
Guide the development and implementation of short- and long-term treatment goals
Guide the development of remedial and compensatory strategies
Steer discussion with patients and family members regarding challenges within the recovery process
Serve as an anchor for future changes resulting from recovery and treatment

159
Q

TBI: Types of Assessments (early assessment, ___, ____, ___, ___, ___)

A 
Early assessment
Scales and Observational checklists
Self-report and Quality of Life measures
Standardized Assessment measures
Functional Assessment measures
160
Q

Self-report and Quality of Life measures for TBI?

A

Behavior Rating Inventory of Executive Functioning (BRIEF-A)
Quality of Life after Brain Injury (QOLIBRI)
National Institute of Health Toolbox Measures
Brain Injury Screening Questionnaire (BISQ)
Mayo-Portland Adaptability Inventory (MPAI)
Motivational Interview Techniques

161
Q

TBI: Standardized Assessment measures

A

The Brief Test of Head Injury (Helm-Estabrooks & Hotz, 1991)
Scales of Cognitive Ability for Traumatic Brain Injury (Adamovich & Henderson, 1992

162
Q

TBI: Functional Assessment measures

A

Observational reports; Social skills, fatigue, emotional lability, motivation; Discourse analysis

163
Q

TBI: Treatments

A

Sensory Stimulation= aimed at those who are in altered states of consciousness (visual-photos; Auditory-preferred music/tv, voices of family/friends, Tactile, Olfactory, gustatory, kinesthetic-raise bed)
Cognitive Therapy (attention, memory, executive functioning)
Motor Speech & Voice
Discourse & Pragmatics
AAC

164
Q

How many sustain mTBI/ Concussion?

A

42-62 million worldwide; 6-8 million in US; Most recover quickly, but some have symptoms for months or years

165
Q

mTBI Diagnosis (loss of consciousness lasts for how many minutes or hours?

A

Loss of Consciousness <30 min.; GCS score of 13-15; altered mental status, amnesia, confusion. Usually have PTA <24 hrs (post-traumatic amnesia)

166
Q

3 Categories of mTBI?

A

SRC- sports related concussion; MM-Mixed mechanism (fall; MVA); Military-related (blast, blunt force trauma

167
Q

Neurophysiology of Concussion: Diruption in the ____ balance. ____ (K) rushes out of the cells. ___ (Na) and ____ flood into the cells. Excess amounts of ____ (a neurotransmitter) are released. Too much causes toxic synapses, slowed communication between neurons, brain in hyperactive state consuming lots of E & resources quickly.

A

-Disruption in ionic balance of the neurons
- Potassium rushes out of cells
- Sodium and calcium flood into cells
- Excess amounts of glutamate (neurotransmitter) are released
- Combination of dysfunction in sodium-potassium pump & too much glutamate causes:
–Toxic synapses
–Slowed communication between neurons
–Brain Temporarily goes into a “hyperactive” state consuming lots of energy & resources quickly
–Followed by 7-10 day decrease in cerebral blood flow & hypometabolism
Causing many of the acute symptoms associated with mTBI

168
Q

Microstructural Changes (mTBI) may occur

A
  • Diffuse axonal injury
  • Edema
  • Inflammation
169
Q

There are no current, definitive biomarkers, neuroimaging procedures, or neuropsychological tests that can diagnose remote mTBI events (T/F)

A

True

170
Q

TBI: Acute and persistent symptoms fall within 3 categories

A
  1. Physical
  2. Emotional
  3. Cognitive
171
Q

You are completing a chart review on your patient who comes with cognitive complaints that have persisted 2 months following a concussion. You review imaging available which includes a CT and MRI. Both indicated normal results. Is the lack of findings on imaging important to the diagnosis?

A

No, it’s not as important because both MRI and CT scans can appear normal in people with mTBI and the patient is complaining of cognitive symptoms which should likely be addressed.

172
Q

Regarding the emotional problems caused by mTBI, would it be best for you to treat these yourself or refer? To whom might you refer?

A

No, it would be better to refer to a neuropsychologist.

173
Q

TBI: How might auditory comprehension impairments in patients with mTBI impact your evaluation or treatment?

A

Evaluation should include attempting various strategies to help determine which strategies help the patient with comprehension. For example, visuals (pictures) can be helpful as well as orthographic (written) cues either written by the clinician or by the client depending on their skills.

174
Q

Stuttering in mTBI is likely neurogenic. True/ False

A

False. Can be due to medications
Can be related to PTSD, depression, anxiety or other psychological issues
Not likely to be neurogenic (unlikely neurogenic)

175
Q

Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy (CTE); when _____ _____ _______ accumulates in the brain

A

where hyperphosphorylated tau protein accumulates in the brain
Causing progressive deterioration of neurologic function
Resulting in dementia
This tau is distinct from plaques & tangles in Azheimer’s disease
In CTE, tau accumulates throughout the brain (diffuse?);
Including hippocampus, amygdala, cortical areas

176
Q

Diagnosis of CTE..

A

Remain unsettled & based on post-mortem brain pathology studies
Symptoms attributed to the diagnosis of CTE are based on personal reports by family & friends of the deceased individual
Decreased memory & Executive Function
Aggression; depression; erratic behaviors
Changes in motor function & balance problems

Amanda-Cognitive Communication Disorders (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions