Cog Psy Final Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

What is long-term memory (LTM)?

A

The “archive” of information about past events and knowledge learned, ranging from moments ago to distant memories.

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2
Q

How does LTM interact with short-term/working memory (STM/WM)?

A

Information flows from LTM to STM/WM for active use (retrieval) and from STM/WM to LTM for storage (encoding).

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3
Q

What is the serial position curve?

A

A distinction between STM and LTM, showing better recall for words at the beginning (primacy effect) and end (recency effect) of a list.

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4
Q

What causes the primacy effect?

A

Items at the beginning of a list are rehearsed more frequently, making them more likely to enter LTM.

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5
Q

What causes the recency effect?

A

Items at the end of a list are still in STM, making them easier to recall.

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6
Q

What is coding in memory?

A

The form in which stimuli or experiences are represented in the mind, such as visual, auditory, or semantic coding.

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7
Q

What is visual coding?

A

A mental representation in the form of a visual image (e.g., visualizing a painting you saw).

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8
Q

What is auditory coding?

A

A mental representation in the form of a sound (e.g., replaying a song in your mind).

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9
Q

What is semantic coding?

A

A mental representation in terms of meaning (e.g., recalling the plot of a novel).

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10
Q

What did Wickens et al. (1976) find about semantic coding in STM?

A

Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information interferes with new learning, and switching categories reduces this interference.

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11
Q

What did Sachs (1967) find about semantic coding in LTM?

A

Participants remembered the meaning of sentences better than the exact wording, showing that LTM coding emphasizes meaning.

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12
Q

What does evidence from HM suggest about STM and LTM?

A

HM had intact STM but impaired LTM, showing separate mechanisms for STM and LTM.

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13
Q

What does evidence from KF suggest about STM and LTM?

A

KF had impaired STM but functional LTM, suggesting that STM and LTM rely on different brain mechanisms.

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14
Q

What did Ranganath & D’Esposito (2001) find about the hippocampus?

A

The hippocampus, traditionally associated with LTM, also plays a role in STM, as shown by its activation during short delays.

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15
Q

What is episodic memory?

A

Memory for specific personal experiences, involving mental time travel and “self-knowing.”

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16
Q

What is semantic memory?

A

Memory for general knowledge, facts, and concepts that does not involve mental time travel.

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17
Q

What did Tulving (1985) propose about episodic and semantic memory?

A

Tulving proposed that episodic and semantic memory are distinct types of explicit memory.

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18
Q

What evidence separates episodic and semantic memory?

A

Patient KC had no episodic memory but intact semantic memory, while patient LP had impaired semantic memory but intact episodic memory (double dissociation).

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19
Q

What is autobiographical memory?

A

Memory for specific experiences that includes both episodic (events) and semantic (facts) components.

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20
Q

How does semantic memory influence autobiographical memory?

A

Semantic knowledge shapes how events are experienced, which in turn influences the episodic memories formed.

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21
Q

What did Westmacott & Moscovitch (2003) find about autobiographical memory?

A

Recall was better for famous names with personal significance, showing how episodic experiences enhance semantic memory.

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22
Q

What happens to episodic and semantic memory over time?

A

Episodic details fade, leaving only semantic knowledge (semanticization of remote memories).

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23
Q

What is the remember/know procedure?

A

A method to differentiate episodic (recollection) and semantic (familiarity) memory.

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24
Q

What is procedural memory?

A

Memory for actions and skills, performed without conscious awareness (e.g., riding a bike).

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25
Q

Can people with impaired LTM form new procedural memories?

A

Yes, people like HM can learn new skills despite an inability to form new LTMs.

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26
Q

What is priming?

A

A phenomenon where exposure to a stimulus influences the response to a later stimulus, often without conscious awareness.

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27
Q

What is repetition priming?

A

When a test stimulus is the same or similar to a priming stimulus, leading to improved performance.

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28
Q

What did Perfect & Askew (1994) find about priming?

A

Participants rated previously seen ads as more appealing, even when they did not explicitly remember seeing them (propaganda effect).

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29
Q

How does classical conditioning relate to implicit memory?

A

It involves associating a neutral stimulus with a reflexive response, often without conscious awareness of the original pairing.

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30
Q

What distinguishes episodic and semantic memory?

A

Episodic involves personal experiences and mental time travel, while semantic involves general knowledge and facts.

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31
Q

How are STM and LTM separate but connected?

A

Evidence from brain-damaged patients shows they rely on separate mechanisms but interact during memory processes.

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32
Q

What are the types of implicit memory?

A

Implicit memory includes procedural memory, priming, and classical conditioning.

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33
Q

What is encoding?

A

The process of acquiring information and transforming it into long-term memory (LTM).

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34
Q

What is retrieval?

A

The process of transferring information from LTM back into working memory (consciousness).

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35
Q

What is maintenance rehearsal?

A

Repetition of stimuli to maintain information in memory without transferring it to LTM.

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36
Q

What is elaborative rehearsal?

A

Using meanings and connections to transfer information into LTM.

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37
Q

Who proposed the Levels of Processing theory?

A

Craik and Lockhart (1972).

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38
Q

What is shallow processing?

A

Focus on physical features with little attention to meaning, leading to poor memory.

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39
Q

What is deep processing?

A

Close attention to meaning and elaborative rehearsal, leading to better memory.

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40
Q

Give an example of shallow processing.

A

Determining if a word is in capital letters (e.g., “TABLE”).

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41
Q

Give an example of deep processing.

A

Determining if a word fits into a sentence (e.g., “He met a FRIEND in the street”).

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42
Q

How does visual imagery improve memory?

A

Forming mental images to connect concepts (Bower & Winzenz, 1970).

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43
Q

What is the self-reference effect?

A

Memory improves when information is related to oneself (Leshikar et al., 2015).

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44
Q

What is the generation effect?

A

Actively generating information improves memory compared to passively receiving it (Slameka & Graf, 1978).

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45
Q

How does organizing information improve memory?

A

Organizing information into meaningful categories creates retrieval cues (Bower et al., 1969).

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46
Q

What is retrieval practice?

A

Testing strengthens memory by engaging retrieval processes (Karpicke & Roediger, 2008).

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47
Q

What is the spacing effect?

A

Memory is better for multiple short study sessions compared to one long session.

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48
Q

Why is handwritten note-taking better than typing?

A

Handwriting promotes deeper processing and generative learning, while typing often leads to shallow encoding (Mueller & Oppenheimer, 2014).

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49
Q

What is the “illusion of learning”?

A

The false belief that familiarity with material equates to understanding.

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50
Q

What are retrieval cues?

A

Words, locations, or stimuli that help access information stored in memory.

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51
Q

What is the difference between free recall and cued recall?

A

Free recall involves recalling information without cues, while cued recall provides retrieval aids like category names.

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52
Q

What is the encoding specificity principle?

A

Memory retrieval is improved when the context at retrieval matches the context during encoding.

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53
Q

What is state-dependent learning?

A

Memory is better when a person’s internal state during encoding matches their state during retrieval (Eich & Metcalfe, 1989).

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54
Q

What is transfer-appropriate processing?

A

Memory improves when the type of processing at encoding matches the processing required at retrieval (Morris et al., 1977).

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55
Q

What is consolidation?

A

The process of transforming new memories from a fragile state to a more permanent state.

56
Q

What are the two types of consolidation?

A
  1. Synaptic consolidation: Rapid, occurs at synapses. 2. Systems consolidation: Gradual, involves reorganization of neural circuits.
57
Q

What did Müller and Pilzecker (1900) demonstrate about consolidation?

A

A delay between learning two lists improves memory for the first list due to consolidation.

58
Q

What is long-term potentiation (LTP)?

A

Enhanced firing of neurons after repeated stimulation, strengthening synaptic connections.

59
Q

What is the standard model of consolidation?

A

Hippocampus activity fades over time as cortical connections strengthen.

60
Q

What is the multiple trace model of consolidation?

A

The hippocampus remains active during retrieval of both recent and remote memories.

61
Q

How does sleep enhance memory consolidation?

A

Sleep reduces environmental interference and actively strengthens and prioritizes memories.

62
Q

What did Gais et al. (2006) find about sleep and memory?

A

Students who slept after studying forgot less material compared to those who stayed awake.

63
Q

What is reconsolidation?

A

The process of updating memories when they are reactivated and made fragile.

64
Q

What did Hupbach et al. (2007) demonstrate about reconsolidation?

A

Reactivating List A while learning List B led to interference, with List B items being incorporated into List A.

65
Q

What is language?

A

A system of communication using sounds or symbols to express feelings, thoughts, ideas, and experiences.

66
Q

What makes human language creative?

A

The hierarchical and rule-based nature of language allows for combining existing elements in novel ways to create unique sentences.

67
Q

What evidence supports the universality of language?

A

Language is universal across cultures, develops similarly, and includes shared features like nouns, verbs, negatives, and questions.

68
Q

What did Paul Broca discover about language?

A

Broca identified the Broca’s area in the frontal lobe, which is responsible for language production.

69
Q

What did Carl Wernicke discover about language?

A

Wernicke identified the Wernicke’s area in the temporal lobe, which is crucial for language comprehension.

70
Q

What did B.F. Skinner propose about language acquisition?

A

Skinner argued that language is learned through reinforcement, where correct language use is rewarded, and incorrect use is punished.

71
Q

What did Noam Chomsky argue about language?

A

Chomsky argued that language is innate and genetically programmed, highlighting the universal structure of language and critiquing Skinner’s approach.

72
Q

What are the four principal aspects of psycholinguistics?

A
  1. Comprehension, 2. Representation, 3. Speech Production, 4. Acquisition.
73
Q

What is the word frequency effect?

A

High-frequency words are recognized and processed faster than low-frequency words due to past exposure.

74
Q

What did Rayner and Duffy (1986) find about eye movements and word frequency?

A

Readers spent more time fixating on low-frequency words compared to high-frequency words while reading.

75
Q

What is speech segmentation?

A

The ability to perceive individual words in continuous speech, even when there are no pauses between spoken words.

76
Q

What is lexical ambiguity?

A

When a word has multiple meanings, such as “rose” (a flower) or “rose” (the action of standing up).

77
Q

What did Tanenhaus (1979) find about lexical priming?

A

Listeners briefly access all meanings of a word before using context to determine the correct meaning.

78
Q

What is meaning dominance?

A

The frequency with which a meaning of an ambiguous word is used.

79
Q

What is the difference between biased and balanced dominance?

A

Biased dominance occurs when one meaning is more frequent, while balanced dominance occurs when meanings are equally frequent.

80
Q

What is parsing in language processing?

A

The mental grouping of words into phrases to derive meaning from sentences.

81
Q

What is the garden path model of parsing?

A

A model that processes sentences incrementally, using heuristics like minimal attachment and late closure, which can lead to temporary ambiguity.

82
Q

How does the constraint-based approach differ from the garden path model?

A

It considers syntactic, semantic, and pragmatic constraints simultaneously, with predictions based on probabilistic weighting of constraints.

83
Q

What did Tanenhaus and Trueswell (1995) demonstrate with the visual world paradigm?

A

Eye movements during sentence comprehension show that context (e.g., visual scenes) helps resolve syntactic ambiguity in real time.

84
Q

How do readers create coherence when understanding stories?

A

Readers make inferences to connect sentences and construct situation models, which include mental simulations of the described events.

85
Q

What are the three types of inferences in reading?

A
  1. Anaphoric Inference: Linking pronouns to entities, 2. Instrument Inference: Inferring tools/methods, 3. Causal Inference: Connecting events logically.
86
Q

What is a situation model in story comprehension?

A

A mental simulation of people, objects, locations, and events described in a story, including perceptual and motor characteristics.

87
Q

What is the given-new contract in conversation?

A

A principle where speakers provide given information (shared knowledge) and new information, helping listeners integrate and understand the message.

88
Q

What is common ground in conversation?

A

Shared knowledge, beliefs, and assumptions between conversational participants, established through interaction.

89
Q

What is syntactic priming?

A

When one person’s use of a grammatical structure increases the likelihood of another person using the same structure, reducing computational effort.

90
Q

What skills are necessary for effective conversations?

A

Understanding theory of mind and interpreting nonverbal communication, such as gestures, facial expressions, and tone of voice.

91
Q

What is a problem?

A

An obstacle between a present state and a goal, where the solution is not immediately obvious.

92
Q

How does Gestalt psychology view problem solving?

A

Problem solving involves restructuring the mental representation of a problem, often leading to insight or an “Aha!” moment.

93
Q

What is functional fixedness?

A

The tendency to see objects as functioning only in their usual way, which hinders problem-solving.

94
Q

What is mental set?

A

A preconceived notion about how to approach a problem, often based on past experiences, which can inhibit finding simpler solutions.

95
Q

What did Metcalfe and Wiebe (1987) find about insight problems?

A

Insight problems are solved suddenly, while non-insight problems are solved gradually.

96
Q

What is the candle problem?

A

A task requiring participants to mount a candle on a wall without dripping wax, often hindered by seeing the box only as a container and not as a potential tool.

97
Q

What is the two-string problem?

A

A problem requiring participants to tie two strings together, often hindered by failing to see pliers as a weight.

98
Q

What did the water jug problem (Luchins, 1942) demonstrate about mental set?

A

Participants who developed a formulaic approach (B-A-2C) were less likely to use simpler solutions when they became available.

99
Q

What is the information-processing approach to problem solving?

A

Problem solving involves moving through a problem space from an initial state to a goal state, using operators to transition between states.

100
Q

What is means-end analysis?

A

A problem-solving strategy that reduces differences between the initial and goal states by creating subgoals.

101
Q

How does problem representation affect solving the mutilated checkerboard problem?

A

Problems are solved more easily when their representation highlights key elements, such as pairing in the checkerboard problem.

102
Q

What is analogical transfer?

A

Applying the solution to a source problem (e.g., the fortress story) to solve a target problem (e.g., the radiation problem).

103
Q

What are the steps in analogical problem solving?

A
  1. Noticing the relationship, 2. Mapping the correspondence, 3. Applying the mapping to generate a solution.
104
Q

What is analogical encoding?

A

A process in which two problems are compared to identify similarities, which helps abstract and apply problem-solving strategies.

105
Q

What is the analogical paradox?

A

People apply analogies effectively in real-world settings but struggle to do so in controlled laboratory tasks.

106
Q

What are the differences between well-defined and ill-defined problems?

A

Well-defined problems have clear start and goal states with known methods, while ill-defined problems lack clear definitions and solutions.

107
Q

What are knowledge-lean problems?

A

Problems that do not require specific prior knowledge, as most information is provided in the problem statement.

108
Q

What are knowledge-rich problems?

A

Problems that require extensive domain-specific knowledge, such as those often studied in expertise research.

109
Q

How do experts differ from novices in problem solving?

A

Experts have more organized, principle-based knowledge and spend more time analyzing problems before solving them.

110
Q

What did Chase and Simon (1973) find in their chess study?

A

Chess masters excelled at recalling meaningful game positions but performed no better than novices with random positions.

111
Q

How is expertise domain-specific?

A

Expertise is limited to a specific field, and experts perform like novices outside their area of specialization.

112
Q

What is reasoning?

A

Reasoning involves gathering information, analyzing it systematically, and drawing conclusions based on evidence, logic, and prior knowledge.

113
Q

What is decision-making?

A

Decision-making is the process of selecting a course of action from multiple alternatives, often based on goals, preferences, or outcomes.

114
Q

What is inductive reasoning?

A

Drawing general conclusions based on specific observations or evidence, often probabilistic rather than guaranteed.

115
Q

What factors influence the strength of an inductive argument?

A
  1. Representativeness of observations, 2. Number of observations, 3. Quality of evidence.
116
Q

What are heuristics?

A

Mental shortcuts or “rules of thumb” that allow for quick judgments but can lead to errors in reasoning.

117
Q

What is the availability heuristic?

A

Judging the probability of an event based on how easily examples come to mind, often influenced by memorable or recent experiences.

118
Q

What are illusory correlations?

A

Perceived relationships between events that are either nonexistent or much weaker than assumed, often reinforcing stereotypes.

119
Q

What is the representativeness heuristic?

A

Judging the probability of an event based on how much it resembles a typical example, often ignoring base rates or statistical principles.

120
Q

What is base rate neglect?

A

Ignoring statistical likelihoods (base rates) when making judgments based on descriptive details.

121
Q

What is the conjunction rule?

A

The probability of two events occurring together cannot be higher than the probability of either event occurring alone.

122
Q

What is the law of large numbers?

A

Larger sample sizes are more representative of a population, while smaller samples are more prone to variability and error.

123
Q

What is myside bias?

A

Interpreting evidence in a way that supports preexisting beliefs and dismissing opposing evidence.

124
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

Seeking out or favoring information that supports a hypothesis while ignoring evidence that refutes it.

125
Q

What is deductive reasoning?

A

Drawing specific conclusions from general principles or premises, where conclusions follow logically if the premises are true.

126
Q

What is a categorical syllogism?

A

A logical argument with two premises and a conclusion that describes relationships between categories using terms like “all,” “some,” or “none.”

127
Q

What is the difference between validity and truth in syllogisms?

A

A syllogism is valid if the conclusion logically follows from the premises, but it is only true if the premises themselves are factually correct.

128
Q

What is belief bias in evaluating syllogisms?

A

Judging a syllogism as valid if its conclusion is believable, even when the reasoning is invalid.

129
Q

What is the mental model approach to reasoning?

A

A method where people create mental representations of a problem, test for exceptions, and accept conclusions only if no exceptions are found.

130
Q

What is a conditional syllogism?

A

A syllogism that follows the structure: “If p, then q.” The validity of the conclusion depends on the premises being true.

131
Q

What is the Wason Four-Card problem?

A

A reasoning task where participants test the rule “If p, then q” by flipping cards to find evidence that falsifies the rule.

132
Q

What is expected utility theory?

A

A theory assuming people make rational decisions that maximize utility (desirable outcomes), often measured in monetary terms.

133
Q

What did the jelly bean experiment show about decision-making?

A

Participants irrationally chose bowls with more red beans but lower probabilities, showing they were influenced by perceptual factors rather than logic.

134
Q

How do emotions influence decision-making?

A

Emotions, such as fear (e.g., avoiding flying after 9/11) or excitement, often override rational calculations and lead to biased decisions.

135
Q

What is the framing effect?

A

The way choices are presented (e.g., gain vs. loss framing) influences decision-making, with people being risk-averse for gains and risk-seeking for losses.

136
Q

What does the ultimatum game reveal about decision-making?

A

People often reject unfair offers, showing that emotions and perceptions of fairness play a stronger role than rational utility maximization.