Coagulation PPT- Josh Flashcards

1
Q

Layers of vessel

outer to inner

A
  • Tunica Adventitia
  • Tunica media
  • Tunica Intima
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name the coag factors

  • I
  • II
  • III
  • IV
  • V
  • VII
  • VIII
  • IX
  • X
  • XI
  • XII
  • XIII
A
  1. fibrinogen
  2. Prothrombin
  3. Tissue factor
  4. Calcium
  5. Proaccelerator
  6. nothing
  7. Procovertin
  8. Antihemophiliac factor (and vWf)
  9. Christmas Factor
  10. Stuart-power factor
  11. Plasma thromboplastin
  12. Hageman factor
  13. Fibrin-stabalizing factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lab Testing:

What is normal PT/INR?

A

11-12.5 sec

0.8-1.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lab Testing:

What pathways does PT/INR measure

A

both common & Extrensic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lab Testing:

what factors does PT/INR measure

A

III, VII (extrensic)

X, V, II,I (common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lab Testing:

normal aPTT

A

30-40 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lab Testing:

what pathways does aPTT monitor

A

both common and Intrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lab Testing:

so what factors does aPTT monitor

A

XII, XI, IX, VIII (INTRENSIC)

X, V, II, I (COMMON)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lab Testing:

what are normal values for Fibrinogen?

A

200-400 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lab Testing:

what pathway does fibrinogen monitor

A

common pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lab Testing:

what factors are monitored w/ fibrinogen

A

X, V, II, I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lab Testing:

A fibrinogen level of what is associated w/spontaneous bleeding

A

< 100 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lab Testing:

what is normal fibrin split products

A

< 10 mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lab Testing:

Fibrin split products is a direct indication of what?

A

direct indication of activity of fibrinolytic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lab Testing:

what is normal Bleeding time

A

1-9 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lab Testing:

what does bleeding time evaluate

A

platelet function/quality and vascular constriction capability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lab Testing:

Bleeding time does not provide accurate _____ count

A

platelet count

18
Q

Lab Testing:

what is a wider-encompassing test of clot formation, stability, and lysis

A

Thromboelastography

(TEG)

19
Q

TEG:

name the main components of the TEG

A
  1. Coagulation
  2. fibrinolysis
  3. Clotting time
  4. clot kinetics
  5. Clot strength
  6. Lysis time
20
Q

TEG pic

21
Q

during the fluid resucitation or massive blood transfusion, that is ___ fluid volume in 24 hrs, or ___ fluid volume in 3 hours, causes coagulation factors and platelets to become significantly diluted

22
Q

what is the depletion of platelets secondary to markedly increased platelet consumption from coagulation pathway activity?

A

thrombocytopenia

23
Q

Thrombocytopenia may lead to microthrombi, resulting in purpura called what?

A

thrombocytopenic purpura

24
Q

what can occur if the entire coagulation pathway is activated

25
What is platelet levels with DIC for MILD MODERATE SEVERE
* MILD- 70,000-150,000 * MODERATE- 40,000-70,000 * SEVERE- 20,000-40,000
26
thrombocytopenia: vascular occlusion by thrombi formation is unusual w/DIC, and the typical manifestation is what?
hemorrhage
27
thrombocytopenia: HELLP follows the same pathway as DIC, but is also combined with what?
RBC hemolysis and elevated liver enzymes
28
DIC: what is the only effective treatment?
treatment of teh underlying cause
29
DIC: what is supportive therapy
Plasma and Platelet transfusions
30
What are 2 types of Autoimmune Coagulopathy
* Posttransfusion Purpura * Drug induced Autoimmune Thrombocytopenic Purpura
31
Autoimmune what causes posttranfusion purpura
Exposure to blood products or some drugs that may induce antibody formation
32
Autoimmune Coagulopathy: in DIATP the drugs can act what?
a binding agent for the antibodies to adhere to platelets
33
Autoimmune Coagulopathy: Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia What are the 2 types
* Tyoe I- nonimmune HIT- Seen on 1st day of heparim therapy (transient an dclinically insignificant * Type II- Immune mediated HIT- formation of antibodies to heparin-platelet factor 4 complex
34
Autoimmune Coagulopathy: HIT tyoe 2 occurs when
5-10 days after heparin use and can been seen if heparin therapy is restarted w/in 20 days of previous exposure
35
Autoimmune Coagulopathy: Anesthestic management
* Poss platelet transfusion * D/C precipitating drug * Hold Warfarin and oral contraceptives * Delay CV sx
36
Autoimmune Coagulopathy: if thrombotic even occurs, administer what?
direct thrombin inhibitor | (argatroban and bivalirudin)
37
Coagulopathy in SIRS: this is caused by what?
arises w/ the initiation of the imflammatory responses secondary to infection and decreased blood flow secondary to vasodilation (AKA coag cascade activated)
38
Coagulopathy in SIRS: what is management ?
* keep Hgb 7-9 * FFP for sx * Keep platelets \> 50,000 *
39
Coagulopathy: Preop interview
* ? hx of bleeding * ? hx of bleeding gims w/ dental sx * ? hx of liver insufficiency or malnutrition * Coag workup * Discuss transfusion possibility
40