Coagulation (exam 4) Flashcards

1
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

Normal hemostasis is a balance between clot generation, thrombus formation, and regulatory mechanisms that inhibit uncontrolled thrombogenesis.

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2
Q

What are the goals of hemostasis?

A
  • Limit blood loss from vascular injury
  • Maintain intravascular blood flow
  • Promote revascularization after thrombosis
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3
Q

What are the two stages of hemostasis?

A
  • Primary Hemostasis
  • Secondary Hemostasis
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4
Q

What occurs during Primary Hemostasis?

A

Immediate platelet deposition at the endovascular injury site leading to the initial platelet plug formation.

*Only adequate for minor injury

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5
Q

What occurs during Secondary Hemostasis?

A

Clotting factors are activated, leading to a stabilized clot formed and secured with crosslinked fibrin.

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6
Q

What role do vascular endothelial cells play in hemostasis?

A

They have antiplatelet, anticoagulant, and fibrolytic effects to inhibit clot formation.

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7
Q

What is the lifespan of platelets?

A

8-12 days.

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8
Q

What are the two types of storage granules in platelets?

A
  • Alpha granules
  • Dense bodies
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9
Q

What is the function of alpha granules?

A

Contain fibrinogen, factors V & VIII, vWF, and platelet-derived growth factor.

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10
Q

What is the function of dense bodies?

A

Contain ADP, ATP, calcium, serotonin, histamine, and epinephrine.

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11
Q

What is the Extrinsic Pathway in hemostasis?

A

The initiation phase of plasma-mediated hemostasis that begins with endothelial injury, exposing tissue factor (TF) to plasma.

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12
Q

What does the TF/VIIa complex do?

A

Activates factor X, converting it to Xa.

**IXa and calcium convert factor X to Xa

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13
Q

What is the role of factor Xa?

A

Begins the final common pathway in coagulation.

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14
Q

What initiates the Intrinsic Pathway?

A

Activation of factor XIIa upon contact with negatively charged surfaces.

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15
Q

What is the role of thrombin in hemostasis?

A

Converts fibrinogen (I) to fibrin (Ia) and is key in regulating hemostasis.

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16
Q

What is the Prothrombinase Complex?

A

Formed by Xa and Va, it converts prothrombin (II) into thrombin (IIa).

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17
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

The enzymatic breakdown of clots, primarily by plasmin.

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18
Q

What is the function of Tissue Factor Pathway Inhibitor (TFPI)?

A

Inhibits the TF/VIIa complex and factor Xa.

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19
Q

What is the significance of the Protein C system?

A

Inhibits factors II, Va, and VIIIa.

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20
Q

What are the common bleeding disorders?

A
  • Von Willebrand’s Disease
  • Hemophilia
  • Drug-induced bleeding
  • Liver disease
  • Chronic renal disease
  • Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
  • Trauma-induced coagulopathy
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21
Q

What is Von Willebrand’s Disease?

A

The most common inherited bleeding disorder affecting 1% of the population due to a deficiency in vWF. It causes platelet adhesion/aggregation

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22
Q

What is the hallmark of Hemophilia A?

A

Factor 8 (VIII) deficiency.

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23
Q

What is a common cause of intraoperative bleeding?

A

Anticoagulant medications.

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24
Q

What laboratory findings are common in liver disease related to hemostasis?

A

Prolonged PT and possible prolonged PTT.

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25
Q

What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

A

A pathological hemostatic response causing excessive activation of the extrinsic pathway, leading to multi-organ dysfunction.

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26
Q

What is Trauma-Induced Coagulopathy (TIC)?

A

Acute coagulopathy seen in trauma patients, thought to be related to activated protein C decreasing thrombin generation.

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27
Q

What is Thrombophilia?

A

Inherited or acquired predisposition for thrombotic events.

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28
Q

What is the significance of the Factor V Leiden mutation?

A

Leads to activated protein C resistance and is present in 5% of the Caucasian population.

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29
Q

What is the main consequence of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

A

Platelet count reduction and activation of remaining platelets resulting in potential thrombosis.

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30
Q

What laboratory test assesses the integrity of the extrinsic and common pathways? It also measures the # of seconds until a clot forms

A

Prothrombin Time (PT).

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31
Q

What does Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) measure?

A

The effects of heparin

The integrity of the intrinsic and common pathways. Measures seconds until clot formation after mixing plasma with phospholipid, calcium, and an intrinsic pathway activator

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32
Q

What does the Anti-factor Xa activity assay evaluate?

A

Functional assessment of heparin’s anticoagulant effect.

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33
Q

What is the standard component of coagulation labs?

A

Platelet Count.

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34
Q

What is the aPTT used to assess?

A

Integrity of intrinsic and common pathways

More sensitive to deficiencies in factor 8 & 9 (VIII, IX) than others

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35
Q

What does the anti-factor Xa activity assay measure?

A

Functional assessment of heparin’s anticoagulant effect

Plasma combined with Xa and an artificial substrate that releases a colorimetric signal after factor Xa is cleaved

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36
Q

What is the normal platelet count?

A

> 100,000 plts/microliter

Standard component of coagulation testing

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37
Q

What does Activated Clotting Time (ACT) assess?

A

Responsiveness to heparin. It is a variation of whole blood clotting time

Normal = 107 +/- 13 seconds

38
Q

What does viscoelastic coagulation tests measure?

A

TEG (thromboelastogram) and ROTEM (rotational thromboelasometry)

All aspects of clot formation from early fibrin generation to clot retraction & fibrinolysis

Coagulation diagrams generated

39
Q

What is the main mechanism of action of cyclooxygenase inhibitors?

A

Block Cox 1 from forming TxA₂

Important in platelet aggregation

40
Q

How long do anti-platelet effects of Aspirin last after discontinuation?

A

7-10 days

ASA: anti-plt effects

41
Q

What do P2Y12 receptor antagonists prevent?

A

GIIb/IIIa expression

Examples include Clopidogrel and Ticlopidine

42
Q

What is the most common vitamin K antagonist?

A

Warfarin

DOC for valvular Afib & valve-replacements

43
Q

What is the relative half-life of unfractionated heparin versus LMWH (short or long)?

A

Unfractionated heparin = short half-life
LMWH = longer half life

Unfractionated is fully reversible with Protamine
LMWH only partially reversible

44
Q

What is a characteristic of Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs)?

A

More predictable pharmacokinetics/dynamics

Fewer drug interactions

45
Q

What is the primary use of thrombolytics?

A

To dissolve blood clots

May be given IV or directly into the site of blockage

46
Q

What are the two categories of thrombolytics?

A

Fibrin-Specific and Non-Fibrin-Specific

Fibrin-Specific examples include Altepase (tPA), Reteplase, Tenecteplase
Non-fibrin specific: streptokinase

47
Q

What do antifibrinolytics do?

A

Inhibit plasminogen from binding to fibrin

Examples include Epsilon-amino-caproic acid (EACA) & Tranexamic Acid (TXA)

48
Q

What is the primary role of procoagulants?

A

Mitigate blood loss

Includes Antifibrinolytics & Factor Replacements

49
Q

When should Warfarin be discontinued before surgery for low-risk patients?

A

5 days prior to surgery

Restart 12-24 hours postoperatively

50
Q

What is the recommendation for stopping heparins before surgery?

A

UFH 4-6 hours prior, LWMH 24 hours prior

Resume after surgery based on type

51
Q

What is the recommended delay for elective surgery after placement of bare-metal stents?

A

6 weeks

For drug-eluting stents, delay 6 months

52
Q

What is the first DOAC approved for CVA prevention?

A

Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

Direct Thrombin Inhibitor

53
Q

What is the antidote for Dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab

Notably, most Direct Thrombin Inhibitors do not have a reversal agent

54
Q

What is a characteristic of Direct Xa inhibitors?

A

Dosed daily without lab monitoring

Examples include Rivaroxaban (Xarelto), Apixaban (Eliquis)

55
Q

Anti-clotting mechanisms of endothelial cells:

_____ charged to repel platelets

Produce platelet inhibitors such as _____ and _____

Excrete adenosine diphosphatase, which degrades into _____ _____, a platelet activator

Increases _____ __, an anticoagulant

Produce _______, which inhibits factor Xa and tissue factor VIIa complex

Synthesize _____ _____ _____

A

Negatively
Prostacyclin and nitric oxide
Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
Protein C
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

56
Q

How many new platelets are formed daily?

A

120-150 billion

57
Q

Upon exposure to the extracellular matrix, platelets undergo what 3 phases?

A
  1. adhesion
  2. activation
  3. aggregation
58
Q

Current understanding is that the intrinsic pathway is an _____ _____ to propagate thrombin generation initiated by the extrinsic pathway

A

Amplification system

59
Q

Which factor activates the final common pathway?

60
Q

_______ _______ is the key step in regulating homeostasis

A

Thrombin generation

61
Q

(4) major coagulation counter mechanisms (clot control):

_______ :endovascular TPA & urokinase convert plasminogen to plasmin

______ __ system inhibits factors II, Va & VIIIa

______ ______ ______ ______ forms complex with Xa that inhibits VIIa complex, along with Xa; thereby downregulating the extrinsic pathway

______ ______ ______: antithrombin; heparin; heparin cofactor II

A

Fibrinolysis
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
Protein C
Serine protease inhibitors (SERPINs)

62
Q

Inhibits thrombin and factors 9a-12a

A

Antithrombin (AT)

63
Q

Binds to AT, causing a conformational change that accelerates AT activity

64
Q

Inhibits thrombin alone

A

Heparin cofactor II

65
Q

Mild vWF disease is often responsive to _______

A

DDAVP: increases vWF

66
Q

With hemophilia, _____ is normally prolonged and _____, _____, _____ labs are usually normal

A

PTT (intrinsic pathway)
PT, plts, bleeding

67
Q

Which 8 drugs increase the risk of intraop bleeding?

A
  1. heparin
  2. warfarin
  3. direct oral anticoags
  4. beta-lactam abx
  5. nitroprusside
  6. NTG
  7. NO
  8. SSRIs
68
Q

The liver is the primary source of which clotting factors?

A

5, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12

*Along with protein C & S and antithrombin (clot control)

69
Q

In chronic renal patients _______ and correction of _______ are shown to shorten bleeding times

A
  1. dialysis
  2. anemia
70
Q

Treatment of platelet dysfunctio includes (3):

A
  1. cryoprecipitate (rich in vWF)
  2. DDAVP
  3. Conjugated estrogens given pre-operatively x5 days
71
Q

DIC labs:

Plts are _____

PT/PTT/thrombin time are _____

Soluble fibrin & fibrin degradation products are _____

A

Decreased
Prolonged
Increased

72
Q

Trauma induced coagulopathies occur due to _____, _____, and/or _____

A

Acidosis, hypothermia, hemodilution

73
Q

A _______ _______ causes increased PT concentration, leading to hypercoagulation

A

Prothrombin mutation

74
Q

_______ _______ is an autoimmune disorder with antibodies against the _______-_______ proteins in the coagulation system

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

Phospholipid-binding

75
Q

How long after heparin treatment can HIT occur (the first time)?

A

5-14 days

**Can occur in 1 day if pt has received a prior heparin dose

76
Q

T/F: Unfractionated heparin carries a lesser risk than LMWH

A

False: unfractionated heparin carries a GREATER risk than LMWH

77
Q

Antibodies produced in HIT are typically cleared in _____ months

78
Q

What is the normal activated clotting time (ACT)?

A

107 seconds. +/- 13 seconds

79
Q

_______ _______ _______ determines the perioperative heparin concentration

A

Heparin concentration measurement

80
Q

_______ mg of protamine will inhibit _______ mg of heparin

81
Q

How long do antiplatelet effects of NSAIDS last after discontinuation?

82
Q

P2Y12 receptor antagonists. Anti-platelet effects duration:

Clopidogrel: ______ after d/c

Ticlopidine: ______ - ______ after d/c

Ticagrelor & Cangrelor: ______ after d/c

A

7 days
14-21 days
<24 hours

83
Q

What are the vitamin k dependent factors?

A

2, 7, 9, 10, and protein C & S

84
Q

What are the (4) direct thrombin inhibitors?

A
  1. Hirudin: leeches
  2. Argatroban: synthetic; reversibly binds to thrombin
  3. Bivaliruden: shortest halflife; DOC for renal or liver impairment
  4. Dabigatran: first direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
85
Q

Surgery is contraindicated within _______ days of thrombolytic treatment

86
Q

What are the 2 classes of procoagulants?

A

Antifibrinolytics
Factor replacements

87
Q

When should aspirin be d/c’d prior to surgery? Low vs high risk patients

A

Moderate/high risk: continue ASA
Low risk: stop 7-10 days prior to surgery

88
Q

What is the recommended delay in elective surgery after drug-eluding stent placement?

89
Q

What are the (3) warfarin reversals?

A
  1. Prothrombin complex concentrates
  2. Vitamin K
  3. FFP
90
Q

What is the antidote for DOAC factor Xa inhibitors?

A

Andexanet - a derivative of factor Xa