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COA test > COA test > Flashcards

COA test Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of blurred vision

A

A refractive error, which is a non-pathologic deficiency in the eyes optical system

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2
Q

what is the term used for the reason for the patients visit

A

Chief complaint

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3
Q

Define “presbyopia”

A

a gradual decrease in accommodation due to a physiologic change that becomes noticeable about the age of 40 years. (Difficulty reading)

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4
Q

Recent onset of light flashes and floaters is an example of an ocular ***

A

urgency

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5
Q

mild ocular irritation, itching and burning are patient complaints that would be handled as *** situation

A

Routine

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6
Q

what systemic disease is important to note in the family medical history in African Americans

A

Sickle cell

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7
Q

what ocular disease is important to note in the family ophthalmic history of African Americans

A

Glaucoma

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8
Q

What elements are important in social history taking

A

Smoking, Alcohol and drug use

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9
Q

the important screening process used in emergencies to determine a patients ocular needs is called

A

triage

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10
Q

what information is obtained from a patient with a headache as the chief complaint

A

Family history, onset and duration, location(which area of head), severity. associated symptoms, what brings relief of headache

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11
Q

what medications are used as topical anesthetics

A

proparacaine or tetracaine

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12
Q

what is the color of bottle caps of mydriatic agents

A

Red

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13
Q

what is the color of bottle caps of prostaglandin(Glaucoma) agents

A

Teal

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14
Q

What are the names of three large groups of anti infective agents

A

antibiotic, antiviral, antifungal

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15
Q

a true allergic reaction to a drug involves what symptoms

A

itching, rash, difficulty breathing, weak or rapid pulse

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16
Q

what is a sign of sib-conjunctival hemorrhage

A

blood pooling under the conjunctive

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17
Q

within how many hours should a patient with a retinal detachment be evaluated

A

24 hrs

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18
Q

what is the most common symptom in age related macular degeneration

A

loss of central vision

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19
Q

the mannerisms of blind children, such as walking in circles or rubbing their hands are termed

A

Blindisms

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20
Q

what is the most common cause of blindness in the world

A

Cataracts

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21
Q

what diagnostic term is used when a patients chief complaints are “tired eyes and fatigue” when describing symptoms

A

asthenopia

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22
Q

what type of glaucoma presents with the following ocular signs and symptoms: fixed mid-dilated pupil, corneal edema, red eyes, blurry vision, pain

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma

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23
Q

what are the five principle areas included in the history interview

A

Chief complaint, ocular history, medical history, family ocular and medical history, allergies

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24
Q

onset and duration of symptoms is included in the patients ***

A

HPI - history of present illness

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25
Q

what is the common problem that presents with symptoms of floaters and flashing lights

A

PVD - posterior vitreous detachment

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26
Q

Sudden, painless loss of vision is an example of an ocular ***

A

emergency

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27
Q

prior use of topical ocular pharmaceutical agents is part of a patients

A

past ocular history

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28
Q

a history of strabismus surgery at age five should be included in what record

A

past ocular history

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29
Q

what is the term used to describe the absence of a natural lens

A

aphakia

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30
Q

pertinent family history of a patient should include which relatives

A

parents, grandparents and genetic siblings

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31
Q

What should you do if a patient is unable to provide you with the name(s) of the medication(s) he/she is taking

A

if unknown, have the patient call you office at a later time with the medication information or ask if you may call their physician or pharmacist for clarification

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32
Q

a patient describing an experience of getting hives after taking sulfa drugs is providing information about ***

A

an allergic reaction

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33
Q

a partially sighted patient can have a best - corrected visual acuity of *** in the better eye

A

20/60

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34
Q

Legal blindness is defined as

A

BCVA of 20/200 or worse in the better eye, OR visual field of 20 degrees or less in the better eye

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35
Q

define the abbreviation sc

A

without correction

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36
Q

while checking a patient’s visual acuity, if the patient is unable to count fingers the examiner should proceed to ***

A

hand motion detection

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37
Q

What is the term for the spasmodic, rhythmic dilating, and contracting papillary movements during pupil function testing

A

hippus

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38
Q

Name the black felt perimeter, used for testing the central 30 degrees of peripheral vision

A

tangent screen

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39
Q

In the 20/20 notation, what does the numerator stand for

A

distance from patients eye to the chart

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40
Q

what is a distometer used for

A

caliper for measuring the distance between the back surface of an eyeglass lens and the front of the cornea (vertex distance)

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41
Q

what is anisometropia

A

unequal refractive errors in the two eyes, usually at least one or two diopters different

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42
Q

If you cannot center the intersection of the thick and thin lines in the lensmeter, the lens has ***

A

ground in prism

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43
Q

each black ring seen in the eyepiece reticle of the lensmeter measures how much prism

A

1 D each ring

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44
Q

what is the bausch & lomb trade name for the ophthalmometer

A

keratometer

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45
Q

What do you do to transpose a spherocylinder lens from plus to minus cylinder form. or from minus to plus cylinder

A

Algebraically add the sphere and cylinder powers, retain the cylinder power but change the cylinder sign, and change the cylinder axis by 90 degree - less than 90 = add, greater than 90 = subtract

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46
Q

Transpose: +2.00 -2.50 x 90

A

-0.50 +2.50 x 180

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47
Q

which color vision test consists of pseudo isochromatic plates that determine red-green color anomalies and deficiencies

A

ishihara

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48
Q

what is the name of the instrument used to measure proptosis or exophthalmos in millimeters

A

Exophthalmometer

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49
Q

name two ocular disorders in which the exophthalmometer may be used for obtaining measurements

A

Graves’ (or thyroid eye) disease, and ocular tumor

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50
Q

which refractive error is produced in an unaccommodating eye, when parallel rays focus behind retina

A

Hyperopia

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51
Q

which refractive error is produced when parallel rays focus in front of retina

A

Myopia

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52
Q

In which type of mirror does the tip of an object touching the glass, appear to touch its image?

A

front surface mirror

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53
Q

which test is performed in a patient describing metamorphopsia, straight lines appearing wavy, at near?

A

Amsler grid

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54
Q

how many degrees of central vision are measured by an amsler grid?

A

20 degrees - 10 degrees from fixation in every direction

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55
Q

which test measures the amount of tear production?

A

basic secretion, and Schirmer I and II

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56
Q

how long are the schirmer strips left in place during a tear test?

A

Five minutes

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57
Q

what is the name of the test used for detecting a relative afferent pupillary defect

A

swinging flashlight test

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58
Q

which muscle of the iris constricts in bright light

A

sphincter

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59
Q

how is anterior chamber depth estimated using a slit lamp

A

A high thin beam is placed at the limbus at an angle approximately 60 degrees and the distance between the posterior limit of the corneal beam and the anterior limit of the iris beam, is compared with the thickness of the optical section of the cornea

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60
Q

which two ocular structures can touch if the anterior chamber is flat

A

Iris and cornea

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61
Q

which instrument measures the radius of curvature, or base curve, of a spectacle lens surface in diopters?

A

Geneva lens clock or measures

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62
Q

Which color defects may be distinguished by the Ishihara test

A

Rod and green

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63
Q

what is the spherical equivalent of -2.00 +3.00 x 90

A

-0.50 sphere

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64
Q

Transpose the following into minus cylinder: +3.00 +1.00 x 180

A

+4.00 -1.00 x 90

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65
Q

what is the first step in performing lensometry or keratometry

A

focusing the eyepiece

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66
Q

A-scan biometry measures the distance between

A

internal ocular surface

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67
Q

the chief use of A-Scan biometry is to calculate the desired power an an ***

A

intraocular lens implant

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68
Q

WHat is the name of the instrument used to measure extensions of the anterior surface of the cornea beyond the lateral orbital rim

A

exophthalmometer

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69
Q

when the amsler grid is held at the proper distance, and viewed with the distance and near corrections in place, each square subtends an angle of *** degree(s)

A

one

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70
Q

What is the pupil dilation termed

A

mydriasis

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71
Q

what is the term used when there is a difference in pupil size

A

anisocoria

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72
Q

when determining anterior chamber depth using a flashlight test, a shadow on the nasal iris indicates ***

A

Abnormally shallow anterior chamber (narrow angle)

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73
Q

Ophthalmologist often estimate anterior chamber depth by measuring the angle between a) ** and b) **

A

a) anterior surface of the iris b) posterior surface of the cornea

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74
Q

the purpose of testing decreased visual acuity with the use of a pinhole serves to differentiate loss of vision between which two possible causes?

A

refraction error or eye disease

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75
Q

why is it important to observe the patient during visual acuity testing

A

to ensure proper occulsion

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76
Q

Name at least ONE example of a glare testing device

A

TVA,BAT(brightness acuity test) or Eye Con

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77
Q

At what distance are adult near visual acuity charts designed to be read at?

A

12-16 inches from eye

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78
Q

What is indicated if both the thin and wide lines are in focus at the same time while performing lensometry?

A

the lens is spherical

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79
Q

normal visual acuity in a two month old infant may be estimated by?

A

Fixate (follow at 3 months)

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80
Q

what is the name of the visual acuity test, for infants and non-verbal children, that uses gratings of vertical black and white stripes

A

Teller visual acuity

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81
Q

which ocular condition is commonly associated with sjogren syndrome?

A

Dry eyes (dry mouth is another finding in Sjogren syndrome)

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82
Q

which systemic disease can cause temporary fluctuations in refraction errors?

A

Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

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83
Q

what bacterium commonly causes contamination of fluorescein solution

A

pseudomonas acruginosa

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84
Q

name the virus that causes a dendritic pattern of keratitis

A

Herpes simplex

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85
Q

what is the ideal position for a patient who feels faint?

A

head lower than the heart

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86
Q

what is the ratio of chest compressions to artificial ventilations in one person adult CPR

A

30:2

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87
Q

where do you check pulse on an adult CPR patient

A

neck (carotid pulse)

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88
Q

the heart consists of how many chambers

A

Four

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89
Q

increased thirst, excessive urine production, and increased hunger and weight loss are characteristics of which endocrine disease?

A

Diabetic insipidus

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90
Q

which drug, that is included in a crash cart is used to increase the heart rate?

A

epinephrine

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91
Q

which parts of the eye can be affected by hypertension

A

vessels supplying retina, choroid and optic nerve

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92
Q

hemorrhage confined to the anterior chamber is termed

A

Hyphema

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93
Q

which corneal condition can result from proptosis?

A

Dry eye

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94
Q

name three infectious agents

A

bacteria, fungus, virus

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95
Q

what term is used when light rays focus on retina without requiring correction?

A

Emmetropia

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96
Q

How many pigments for vision are present in a normal human retina

A

Four (red, green, and blue in the cones and rhodopsin the the rods)

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97
Q

which hormone is insufficient in a patient with DM?

A

insulin

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98
Q

what is the term used to designate a range of procedures used to prevent spread of infectious microbes to and from patients and office personnel?

A

Aseptic technique

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99
Q

what finding can occur 6-8 hours after a metallic foreign body enters the cornea

A

Rust ring

100
Q

what is the term for destruction of all microorganisms on instruments and materials?

A

sterilization

101
Q

why are alkali burns more serious than acid burns on the cornea

A

Alkali burns penetrate deeper

102
Q

a metal chamber equipped to use steam under high pressure to destroy microorganisms is termed?

A

Autoclave

103
Q

variability in the functions of levator and extraocular muscle is characteristic in which systemic disease?

A

Myasthenia gravis

104
Q

blockage of the central retinal artery by an embolus, which stops blood flow and causes acute loss of vision and a cherry red spot in the retina, is termed?

A

CRAO (central retinal artery occlusion)

105
Q

what is the name of the mucous membrane covering the anterior sclera?

A

Conjunctiva (bulbar)

106
Q

what are the three colors of receptors found in cones

A

Red. blue, and green

107
Q

what is the term for the thickest layer of the cornea

A

Stroma

108
Q

the eyes are considered to be part of which important anatomical system

A

central nervous system

109
Q

what is the visual symptom and its cause, often experienced by diabetic patients during episodes of increased blood sugar?

A

Blurred vision caused by temporary myopia or hyperopia due to changes in the refractive index (R.I.) of the crystalline lens (Myopic shift - when the R.I. increases; and hyperopic shift = when the R.I. decreases)

110
Q

episodes of sudden temporary vision loss most likely indicates a disorder of which physiological system

A

cardiovascular

111
Q

which systemic disease might cause a patient to need a snack during a complete eye exam

A

Type I (Insulin dependent DM or IDDM)

112
Q

in metric notation, 100cm are equal to ** meters or ** millimeteres

A

one; 1,000

113
Q

how many deciliters make one liter

A

Ten

114
Q

universal precautions are mandated by OSHA but were developed by the ***

A

U.S. centers for disease control

115
Q

washing hands between patients is one example of ***

A

Universal Precautions

116
Q

what instructions would be given over the phone to a patient who had splashed a chemical into the eyes

A

Immediately flush the eyes with water for 15-20 minutes and then report to the ER or ophthalmologist office

117
Q

the most common type of glaucoma is ***

A

POAG primary open angle glaucoma

118
Q

instrument lenses that contact the eye can be sterilized by ***

A

Using ethylene oxide gas, and non-heat acration that does not exceed 125 degrees F

119
Q

Aqueous drains out the eye through this net-like structure

A

Trabecular meshwork

120
Q

what type of glaucoma constitutes an ocular emergency

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma

121
Q

the condition of low blood sugar is termed

A

Hypoglucemia

122
Q

what is the single most important thing an ophthalmic assistant can do to help prevent corneal infections during A-Scan biometry

A

Clean the probe after each use with an alcohol wipe

123
Q

what is the most likely reason for a projected image to become dim, particularly on one-half of the acuity projector screen?

A

the projector bulb is failing, carbon deposit build-up is darkening the bulb

124
Q

how should removable glass slides inside the American Optical acuity projector be cleaned

A

wipe with clean,soft lint free towel or photographic lens paper

125
Q

what instrument, used to examine the retina, is easier to use with small or undilated pupils, permits a greater magnification and is mechanically easier to use?

A

direct ophthalmoscope

126
Q

what instrument, used to examine the retina, is: used to examine the complete fundus in stereopsis, uses a hand-held condensing lens, and the image appears as inverted image of the retina?

A

indirect ophthalmoscope

127
Q

Lack of calibration of the perimeter, small size of patients pupils and noise distractions can lead too *** errors in perimetry

A

artifactual

128
Q

What is the correct way to clean the surface of the lense of a lesmeter when dist has fallen on them?

A

blow it off with a clean, dry rubber bulb syringe or compressed air

129
Q

if the lensmeter controls feel tight to the operator, who should fix it?

A

a qualified service technician

130
Q

in order to maintain the retinoscope, generally you need to keep an adequate supply of *** in the examining room

A

spare bulbs and batteries

131
Q

the best way to maintain tangent screen test objects is to ***

A

wash them with mild soap and water

132
Q

what is the best way to maintain a tangent screen

A

occasionally whisk it (dust it)

133
Q

wipe the cross cylinder with a lens tissue occasionally, protect the instrument with a dust cover when not in use, and clean the retinoscopy lens with a glass cleaner and cotton-tipped swabs are good practice with regard to care of which instrument?

A

Phoropter

134
Q

scheduled maintenance of a phoropter should be performed how often?

A

Every two years

135
Q

if dust accumulates on the mirror of the slit lamp, the technician may clean it by using what cleaning methods?

A

a lent free cloth - lens brush or a blast of air

136
Q

a standard habit for all personnel who use the slut lamp should be ***

A

check electrical connections, lock the base

137
Q

what must be checked when troubleshooting why a non-portable ultrasound biometer fails to power up?

A

instrument fuses, electrical connections or the circuit breaker

138
Q

if the mires projected through an ophthalmometer appear dim when looking through the eyepiece at the corneal surface, what is most likely the cause?

A

lamp bulb needs changing

139
Q

if there is no light source when you turn on an ophthalmometer, the first step you should take is to ***

A

check that it is plugged into the outlet

140
Q

what is the best way to clean the back lenses (retinoscopy lens, red lens, and Maddox rod) of the phoropter

A

clean with glass cleaner and cotton - tipped swabs

141
Q

checking the calibration of a goldmann applanation tonometer is performed with a ***

A

balance or calibration rod

142
Q

when calibrating the non-contact tonometer it is critical that ***

A

triggering is repeated several times

143
Q

the muscle light that is suddenly too dim most likely needs ***

A

overnight charging

144
Q

maintenance for a muscle light may include

A

bulb replacement

145
Q

front surface mirrors in a projection system, should be cleaned by ***

A

a glass cleaner and cotton ball

146
Q

who should repair and maintain equipment such as a laser?

A

a qualified service technician

147
Q

what items would hinder the characteristic high reflectance of the screen used with a visual acuity projector?

A

abrasive scratches and fingerprints

148
Q

what substance should be used to clean the screen for an acuity projector?

A

a solution of mild detergent and water

149
Q

what is the best procedure for cleaning the mirror of a retinoscope?

A

blow off the dust with an empty bulb syringe that is clean and dry or with canned air

150
Q

what accessories are used to check the calibration of an ophthalomometer?

A

three test balls made of steel, also called leusometer

151
Q

if, after cleaning the joy stick pad with a cleaning solution, the slit lamp is still difficult to move, what additional product may be used on the pad?

A

3-in-1 oil or sewing machine oil

152
Q

after changing the bulb on a slit lamp that does not illuminate, what other things should be checked if the problem persists?

A

contracts on the bulb cap, remove any dirt with a small file or knife (and always check that it is plugged in)

153
Q

When reading should the light meter display when Goldmann perimeter is accurately calibrated for the stimulus?

A

1,000 apostles

154
Q

which substance is used to disinfect the ultrasound transducer?

A

Hydrogen peroxide or alcohol

155
Q

Name the best way to prolong the life of transilluminator bulbs and batteries

A

turn the instrument off when not in use

156
Q

what should be used to clean the accessible lenses of of a phoropter

A

Photographic lens cleaner and lens tissue

157
Q

Which solution should NEVER, be used on any working part of a phoropter (except the patient forehead and cheek rests)

A

Alcohol

158
Q

The goldmann applanation tonometer prism is best cleaned between patients with ***

A

Hydrogen peroxide soaks or alcohol wipes

159
Q

what is the reason to not immerse a laminated projector slide in water, in order to clean it?

A

water can enter between the two glass slides and wash off the letters or leave permanent water marks

160
Q

what size letters (optotypes) are typically used to calibrate visual acuity projectors

A

20/200

161
Q

what type of solutions should not be used on plastic prisms

A

Alcohol

162
Q

what is the next step after disinfecting a goldmann applanation tonometer top with alcohol

A

Let it air dry for 1-2months

163
Q

which type of tonometer may be cleaned with a dry pipe cleaner

A

Schiotz (indentation) tonometer

164
Q

what may causes a rim artifact in perimetry

A

Corrective lens too far from eye

165
Q

commercial cleaners may be used to clean which type of mirror

A

back surface mirror

166
Q

which dye solution is used when performing goldmann applanation tonometry?

A

fluorescein dye

167
Q

Which device uses compressed gas to applanate the cornea and measure the intraocular pressure

A

pneumotonometer and pneumatic or “air puff” tonometer

168
Q

what is the diameter of the corneal area properly applanated by a goldmann tonometer

A

3.06mm

169
Q

how man measurements does the tonopen record to give an average IOP results

A

average four (4) measurements

170
Q

which tonometer device uses conversion tables to convert units into millimeters of mercury

A

Schiotz tonometer

171
Q

which technique assumes that the rigidity of the sclera is normal

A

indentation

172
Q

if scleral rigidity is high, the IOP will be ***

A

overestimated

173
Q

most inaccuracies in Schiotz tonometry result in ** rather than ** readings

A

falsely low;high

174
Q

measuring intraocular pressure is also called ***

A

Tonometry

175
Q

when performing *** tonometry, the aqueous fluid in the anterior chamber between the cornea and iris is displaced.

A

Indentation

176
Q

Patients with high myopia nay have *** ocular rigidity because the sclera is thinner and stretched.

A

Low

177
Q

during Schiotz, tonometry, the greater the distance the plunger indents the cornea, the ** the eye or the ** the IOP

A

Softer;lower

178
Q

What are the commonly used weights when performing Schiotz tonometry

A

5.5g, 7.5g, and 10g

179
Q

When performing schiotz tonometry, if the tonometer should slide over the surface of the cornea, this may produce a ***

A

corneal abrasion

180
Q

The higher the IOP of an eye the *** the eye

A

harder

181
Q

Applanation tonometry displaces less than *** of aqueous

A

0.5 microliters

182
Q

The goldmann applanation tonometer gives a reliable measurement of intraocular pressure to within *** mmHg

A

+0.5 mm Hg

183
Q

Disadvantage of the goldmann tonometer include:

A

lack of portability; unreliable results with corneal distortion, scarring or high astigmatism; corneal abrasion; infection

184
Q

What color filter is used when performing goldmann applanation tonometry

A

cobalt blue

185
Q

for every increment of 1 on the goldmann applanation scale, this should be multiplied by ***

A

10

186
Q

what is the normal range of IOP

A

13-20 mm Hg

187
Q

which method of tonometry is described here: measurement of the amount of IOP needed to flatten the cornea by a standard amount?

A

Applanation tonometry

188
Q

Name two possible complications of applanation tonometry

A

a) corneal abrasion b) spread of infection

189
Q

what measurement error is produced when the fluorescein rings are too narrow during applanation tonometry

A

falsely low reading

190
Q

what measurement error is introduced when a patient, holding his/her breath or wearing collar that is button to tightly, is applanted?

A

falsely high reading

191
Q

which portable tonometer measures IOP by corneal indentation?

A

Schiotz tonometer

192
Q

how long do airborne bacteria remain active in the operating room, for example if a person enters without a mask?

A

one hour

193
Q

name three examples of antiseptic solutions used to wash hands in an operating room

A

tincture of iodine, povidone iodine, phisohex

194
Q

when instilling ophthalmic drops or ointment, it is important that the tip of the container ***

A

never touches the eye, skin or eyelashes

195
Q

Name the common types of ophthalmic suture

A

chronic gut, vicryl, nylon, silk polypropylene, mersilene

196
Q

what is the first step before disinfecting or sterilizing surgical instruments

A

cleaning by mechanical abrasion

197
Q

what is the term for “the complete destruction of all microorganisms”?

A

sterilization

198
Q

Name six accepted methods of sterilization

A

dry heat, moist heat, chemical, gas, radiation, and ultraviolet light

199
Q

“the process of inactivating or eliminating pathogenic microorganisms” describes

A

Aseptic technique

200
Q

what does the acronym LASER stand for?

A

Light amplification by stimulated emission of Radiation

201
Q

protocols for pressure patching or shields require that the adhesive tape must be applied from the a) ** to the b) **

A

A) forehead b)cheek

202
Q

which method of drug delivery might be recommended for a crying child

A

ointment

203
Q

a bard parker blade, clamp and curette are instruments used for what surgical procedure?

A

Chalazion excision

204
Q

patients question pertaining to surgical procedures should be answered by ***

A

the ophthalmologist

205
Q

a patient with a lacerated globe must have a *** applied for protection

A

Fox shield or the bottom one-third of a styrofoam cup (do not use pressure patch)

206
Q

a *** applied over the eye can minimize postoperative bleeding

A

Pressure patch

207
Q

the *** ocular shield is fenestrated aluminum shield

A

Fox

208
Q

a *** patch must not be used on a patient with a lacerated globe

A

Pressure

209
Q

*** drugs are applied directly to ocular surfaces and/or surrounding tissues

A

Topical

210
Q

what is the term for a drug that dissolves completely in a solvent?

A

Solution

211
Q

a *** is a combination of liquid and drug particles, such as Pred Forte (prednisolone acetate)

A

Suspension

212
Q

eso

A

Inward

213
Q

Exo

A

Outward

214
Q

Hyper

A

Up

215
Q

Hypo

A

Down

216
Q

What is the term for an eye that is constantly turned toward the nose?

A

Esotropia

217
Q

What is the medical term that describes “unequal pupil size”

A

Anisocoria

218
Q

The iris consists of different muscles. How many muscles does this part of the eye contain?

A

2
Iris sphincter
Iris dilator

219
Q

What does OSHA stand for?

A

Occupational safety and health administration

220
Q

During the duochrome test, the patient states that the letters in the green are more clear. What should be done in the phoropter?

A

Add more plus

221
Q

A topical drug that dilates the pupil without affecting accommodation is termed ***

A

Mydriatic

222
Q

a drug that produces a temporary paralysis of the ciliary muscle is termed ***

A

Cycloplegic drug

223
Q

a cycloplegic drug may blur vision at near due to a temporary loss of ***

A

Accommodation

224
Q

in what part of the eye should ophthalmic drugs be placed

A

Cul-de-sac or lower fornix

225
Q

Drainage of topical drops from the eye and their systemic absorption can be somewhat prevented by

A

punctal occlusion by digital pressure

226
Q

ophthalmic *** temporarily stain cells and tissues in the eye to highlight defects or necrosis

A

Dyes

227
Q

*** drugs induce contraction of the iris sphincter

A

miotic

228
Q

what drug reduces inflammation without using corticosteroids

A

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug or NSAID

229
Q

drugs that constrict blood vessels in the conjunctiva are termed

A

Decongestants or vasoconstrictors

230
Q

what abbreviation is used for the recipe or directions of a drugs or lens prescription

A

Rx

231
Q

if a patient is instructed to take a medication “q.o.d” the patient will take the medication how often?

A

every other day or on alternate days

232
Q

which drug delivery method commonly produces temporary blurred vision?

A

ointment

233
Q

what is the term for an injection delivering drugs under the skin

A

Hypodermic or sub-sutaneous

234
Q

Interpupillary distance (IPD) is the distance between

A

center of the two pupils

235
Q

The distance from the bridge of the nose to the center of a pupil is a ***

A

Monocular measurement of the IPD (Interpupillary distance)

236
Q

what effect is produced when the distance between the optical centers of lenses mounted in a spectacle does not correspond to the IPD of a patient?

A

Prismatic or induced prism

237
Q

what happens to light at the optical center of a lens

A

Nothing; light passes without being refracted

238
Q

light rays are *** when they pass at an angle from one transparent medium to another of a different refractive index

A

Refracted

239
Q

a prism bends light rays toward its ***

A

base

240
Q

light rays centering two prisms placed base-to-base will be refracted so that the rays ***

A

converge

241
Q

The distance from the posterior surface of a spectacle lens to the anterior surface of the cornea is termed ***

A

vertex distance

242
Q

Bifocal spectacles will enable a patient to see clearly at *** distance

A

two; any combination of near, intermediate and far

243
Q

The trifocal portion of a +2.00 reading add will be ***

A

+1.00 D

244
Q

What is the minimum thickness of safety lenses?

A

3.0 mm

245
Q

in terms of lens thickness, the greater the refractive index, the *** the lens

A

Thinner

246
Q

a *** board may be used to immobilize an infant for an ophthalmic examination

A

papoose

247
Q

how does acetazolamide (Diamox) affect the eye?

A

It reduces the volume of aqueous production

COA test (1 decks)

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