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COA > COA > Flashcards

COA Flashcards

1
Q

What does the abbreviation IJCAHPO stand for?

A

International Joint Commission on Allied Health Personnel in Ophthalmology

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2
Q

What responsibility routinely falls to the ophthalmic medical assistant?

A

performing certain diagnostic tests

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3
Q

What disease is associated with increased pressure inside the eye?

A

glaucoma

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4
Q

What eye care professional routinely fills prescriptions for eyeglasses?

A

optician

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5
Q

What does an orthoptist do?

A

evaluates strabismus

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6
Q

What instrument does an ophthalmologist use to examine the retina and optic nerve?

A

ophthalmoscope

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7
Q

What eye care professional would fit a patient with a prosthetic eye?

A

ocularist

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8
Q

What is the first IJCAHPO level of certification?

A

certified ophthalmic assistant

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9
Q

What is the primary function of the medial rectus muscle?

A

rotates the eye inward toward the nose

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10
Q

In what order is visual information from the retina transmitted to the visual cortex?

A

bipolar cells to ganglion cells to lateral geniculate body

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11
Q

Which part of the eye provides two-thirds of the eye’s focusing power?

A

cornea

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12
Q

The contraction of what muscle(s) affects globe rotation (incyclotorsion and excyclotorsion)?

A

superior oblique, inferior oblique, superior rectus, inferior rectus

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13
Q

What membrane lines the inner eyelid?

A

palpebral conjunctiva

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14
Q

What structure separates an internal hordeolum (chalazion) from an external hordeolum (stye)?

A

tarsal plate

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15
Q

The contraction of what muscle(s) results in enlargement of the pupil?

A

dilator

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16
Q

What structure is responsible for secreting the aqueous humor?

A

ciliary body

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17
Q

What is the process where the lens changes shape to allow an individual to focus on a near target?

A

accommodation

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18
Q

What kind of vision loss is associated with injury or degeneration of the macula?

A

detailed central vision

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19
Q

The crystalline lens regularly comes into contact with what fluids and tissues?

A

iris, zonules, aqueous humor, vitreous

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20
Q

What cells and glands of the eye and adnexa contribute to tear production?

A

goblet cells, meibomian glands, lacrimal gland

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21
Q

What is the primary function of the iris sphincter and dilator muscles?

A

to change the pupil size to control the amount of light entering the eye

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22
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

poor vision in an eye secondary to visual deprivation in the first decade of life

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23
Q

What is diplopia?

A

double vision

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24
Q

What is the defining feature of wet age-related macular degeneration (AMD) in comparison to dry AMD?

A

the presence of aberrant blood vessels leaking fluid in the central retina

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25
Q

In what condition do the orbital contents swell, pushing the eyeball forward?

A

exophthalmos (proptosis)

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26
Q

What differentiates pterygia from pingueculae?

A

Pterygia extend onto the surface of the cornea.

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27
Q

Primary open-angle glaucoma results in damage to what part of the eye?

A

optic nerve

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28
Q

What is the term for the inward deviation of the eye that occurs only when 1 eye is covered?

A

esophoria

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29
Q

An embolic retinal artery occlusion due to atherosclerosis is best classified as what type of process?

A

ischemic

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30
Q

What is the term for an abnormal physical change that a physician observes while examining a patient?

A

sign

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31
Q

What is the cause of presbyopia?

A

progressive hardening of the crystalline lens

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32
Q

What is a chalazion?

A

a lump that develops after inflammation and infection

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33
Q

What term best describes pooling of white blood cells at the bottom of the anterior chamber in the setting of an infectious or inflammatory process?

A

hypopyon

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34
Q

What sign or symptom most strongly suggests the presence of a retinal detachment rather than a posterior vitreous detachment?

A

a new, unilateral peripheral defect on confrontational visual fields

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35
Q

What term describes bilateral, elevated optic nerves due to increased intracranial pressure?

A

papilledema

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36
Q

What retinal infection typically occurs in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who have CD4 counts less than 50?

A

cytomegalovirus retinitis

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37
Q

What are the common ocular manifestations of myasthenia gravis?

A

ptosis, diplopia

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38
Q

What type of herpes simplex virus usually produces genital infections?

A

type 2

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39
Q

What is the common ocular manifestation of Sjögren syndrome?

A

keratoconjunctivitis sicca

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40
Q

What is a cancer that spreads to other parts of the body called?

A

metastatic

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41
Q

The eyes are considered part of what body system?

A

nervous

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42
Q

What autoimmune condition causes selective muscle weakness by interfering with proper nerve transmission in skeletal muscles?

A

myasthenia gravis

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43
Q

What is a waste product of metabolism in the body?

A

carbon dioxide

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44
Q

What is a common eye disorder associated with multiple sclerosis?

A

optic neuritis

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45
Q

What is the most common cause of proptosis in an adult?

A

thyroid eye disease

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46
Q

What is the characteristic feature of proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A

proliferation of blood vessels

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47
Q

What is the correct transposition of the plus-cylinder prescription +1.00 +3.00 x 90 to its minus-cylinder form?

A

+4.00 –3.00 x 180

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48
Q

This figure shows the focal point of light rays in an eye that is which of the following?

A

myopic

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49
Q

This figure illustrates what property?

A

light-divergent property of a concave lens

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50
Q

What is the change in power called between the upper and lower segments of a bifocal lens?

A

add

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51
Q

What is the best technique for determining the total refractive power requirement of the eye?

A

Perform retinoscopy after administering cycloplegic eye drops, which block accommodation.

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52
Q

What is a toric cornea characteristic of?

A

astigmatism

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53
Q

What does a lens contain if the lensometer mires cannot be centered?

A

prism

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54
Q

The distance portion of an eyeglass lens is –2.00 D and the bifocal add is +3.00. What is the power of the lens through the bifocal segment?

A

+1.00 D

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55
Q

What type of substance permits the passage of light without significant disruption?

A

transparent

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56
Q

What type of lens best corrects hyperopia combined with astigmatism?

A

spherocylindrical

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57
Q

What is the first step in performing manual lensometry or keratometry?

A

Focus the eyepiece.

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58
Q

What is the power in diopters of a convex lens with a focal length of 0.50 m?

A

2.00 D

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59
Q

What antimicrobial drug is often compounded to increase potency?

A

vancomycin

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60
Q

What disease should be brought to the ophthalmologist’s attention in a patient using oral corticosteroids?

A

diabetes mellitus

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61
Q

The use of β-adrenergic blockers should be avoided in patients with what medical condition?

A

asthma

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62
Q

What is the primary function of topical corticosteroids?

A

to reduce swelling and scarring of the lids and anterior segment (anti-inflammatory and antiallergic agents)

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63
Q

What drug is most helpful when performing both a fundus examination and an objective refraction on a pediatric patient?

A

a cycloplegic

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64
Q

What type of injection is classified as a form of systemic drug delivery?

A

subcutaneous

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65
Q

What drug administration route provides the fastest drug delivery into the eye?

A

intracameral injection

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66
Q

How do miotics reduce intraocular pressure?

A

by contracting the ciliary body muscle and opening the outflow channels for aqueous humor

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67
Q

What is a common side effect of cycloplegics?

A

blurred vision

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68
Q

What 2 types of eyedrops could stimulate an attack of angle-closure glaucoma in patients with narrow anterior chamber angles?

A

mydriatics, cycloplegics

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69
Q

What ophthalmic dye is used primarily to diagnose herpes simplex keratitis?

A

fluorescein

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70
Q

What should the ophthalmic medical assistant do when instilling eyedrops?

A

Administer the medication directly into the conjunctival sac.

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71
Q

What is an adverse effect of topical prostaglandins?

A

eyelash growth

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72
Q

What class of medications, when taken by mouth, can cause tingling in the hands or feet, a metallic taste, and kidney stones?

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

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73
Q

What is the primary purpose of standard precautions?

A

to reduce the opportunity for harmful microbes to flourish

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74
Q

What organism is a common contaminant in cosmetics, swimming pools, and hot tubs?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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75
Q

What is the best definition of sterilization?

A

the destruction of all microorganisms

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76
Q

If the ophthalmic medical assistant accidentally touches the sterile functional surface of a disposable instrument, what should be done with the instrument?

A

discard, no matter its cost

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77
Q

How should ophthalmic medical assistants deal with open cuts on their hands?

A

wear gloves to protect both patients and themselves

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78
Q

Who is most at risk for developing an ocular infection from the protozoan Acanthamoeba?

A

those who use homemade salt solutions to clean their contact lenses

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79
Q

What microbe is most likely to cause recurrent fever blisters?

A

herpes simplex virus

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80
Q

In an infection caused by MRSA, what is Staphylococcus aureus resistant to?

A

methicillin

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81
Q

What is the best option for disinfecting a tonometer tip?

A

a germicide

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82
Q

What bacterium is the most likely cause of blepharitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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83
Q

Which procedure must be performed before pupillary dilation?

A

swinging-light test

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84
Q

What is the prism and alternate cover test used for?

A

to measure deviation in a misaligned eye

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85
Q

What step is a necessary part of the Schirmer test?

A

Remove the testing strip after 5 minutes.

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86
Q

How does the pinhole occluder determine whether a refractive error is the cause of below-normal visual acuity?

A

transmission of parallel rays

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87
Q

In a normal consensual reaction, when a light is directed into the pupil of 1 eye, what will the pupil of the other eye do?

A

constrict

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88
Q

How often should healthy, asymptomatic individuals between the ages of 40 and 64 have a comprehensive medical eye examination?

A

every 2 to 4 years

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89
Q

What part of the comprehensive medical eye examination evaluates visual system operation?

A

pupillary examination

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90
Q

A reading of 3 on the Goldmann tonometer dial indicates what intraocular pressure?

A

30 mm Hg

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91
Q

Corneal topography is useful for what measurement?

A

refractive error

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92
Q

When conducting the Amsler grid test, it is important to instruct the patient to perform what step?

A

Hold the card 12 to 14 inches away.

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93
Q

An afferent pupillary defect may be detected in patients with what condition?

A

optic nerve damage

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94
Q

Intraocular pressure is measured by flattening a small area of the central cornea using what procedure?

A

applanation tonometry

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95
Q

Near visual acuity measurements can be recorded in units from what system?

A

Jaeger

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96
Q

What is gonioscopy used to view?

A

structures of the anterior chamber angle

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97
Q

What does the number 100 represent when reading the Snellen acuity recording 20/100?

A

distance in feet at which a normal eye can see a particular line on the chart

98
Q

What instrument can be used to evaluate a patient’s risk of developing glaucoma?

A

pachymeter

99
Q

What is the term for horizontal latent strabismus with the eye deviating outward?

A

exophoria

100
Q

What term refers to observing the movements of both eyes together?

A

versions

101
Q

What must a patient have in order to develop stereopsis?

A

binocular vision

102
Q

What horizontal eye movement turns the eye inward (medially)?

A

adduction

103
Q

The third cranial nerve controls which muscle?

A

medial rectus

104
Q

When strabismus is detected, how is the amount of deviation quantified?

A

prism and alternate cover test

105
Q

Proper execution of the Titmus stereopsis test requires the patient to wear what type of spectacles?

A

light-polarizing spectacles

106
Q

The sixth cranial nerve supplies which extraocular muscle?

A

lateral rectus

107
Q

The trochlear nerve powers which extraocular muscle?

A

superior oblique

108
Q

B-scan ultrasonography can be used for what purpose?

A

to characterize intraocular structures and abnormalities, such as tumors

109
Q

When undergoing A-scan ultrasonography prior to cataract surgery, the patient looks to the side and the axial length measured is 0.30 mm shorter than the patient’s apical cornea-to-retina distance. How does this affect the intraocular lens (IOL) calculation?

A

The IOL calculation will be 1.00 D more than the patient needs.

110
Q

What does pachymetry measure?

A

thickness of the cornea

111
Q

The ocular media includes what transparent structures?

A

cornea, lens, vitreous

112
Q

Fluorescein angiography is most valuable for evaluating what condition?

A

abnormalities in ocular blood vessels

113
Q

What does corneal topography measure?

A

curvature of the cornea

114
Q

What test is used to count endothelial cells of the cornea?

A

specular microscopy/photography

115
Q

What device measures the effect of media opacity on visual acuity and does not require a clearer zone within the media for assessment?

A

interferometer

116
Q

Compression of the cornea during A-scan ultrasonography may result in what kind of measurement error and intraocular lens outcome?

A

shorter than actual axial length measurement, with a resulting myopic postoperative refractive error

117
Q

What does optical coherence tomography measure?

A

ocular anatomy

118
Q

What can A-scan ultrasonography be used for?

A

measuring the axial length of the globe

119
Q

What is an acuity chart printed in faint gray rather than in sharp black on white useful for measuring?

A

contrast sensitivity

120
Q

Why should a fluorescein or indocyanine angiogram only be performed when a physician and emergency equipment are available?

A

risk of anaphylaxis

121
Q

What statement applies to commonly used applanation tonometers?

A

An abnormally thick cornea produces an artificially high intraocular pressure reading.

122
Q

B-scan ultrasonography is useful for evaluating what condition?

A

media opacities

123
Q

What is the most common complication of fluorescein angiography?

A

nausea

124
Q

How does an interferometer measure visual acuity potential?

A

projects lines onto the macula

125
Q

What is an advantage of Goldmann kinetic perimetry?

A

It covers the entire visual field.

126
Q

What field of vision is affected by a defect in the inferior temporal retina?

A

superior nasal

127
Q

Where does the physiologic blind spot appear on visual field charts?

A

in the temporal visual field

128
Q

Why should the size of a patient’s pupil be recorded at the time of perimetry?

A

A pupil measuring 2 mm or less results in contraction of the visual field.

129
Q

In this visual field report of both eyes, the result depicted is most often due to what condition?

A

lesion or tumor near the optic chiasm

130
Q

What is the term for a contour obtained with a single target of a particular size and brightness on a visual field chart in kinetic perimetry?

A

isopter

131
Q

In this visual field chart of the right eye, the shaded area on the left shows decreased visual sensitivity. What is this shaded area known as?

A

generalized depression

132
Q

Which test is an example of static perimetry?

A

automated threshold perimetry

133
Q

The technique of placing a target of a given size in the visual field and gradually increasing its brightness until the patient sees it is the basis for what test?

A

threshold perimetry

134
Q

What is an advantage of automated threshold perimetry?

A

It is more sensitive than kinetic perimetry in detecting shallow defects.

135
Q

What condition causes a visual field defect that respects the horizontal meridian?

A

glaucoma

136
Q

What condition can help ensure an accurate perimetry result?

A

having an appropriate add or near correction in place

137
Q

How should patients be instructed to care for their eyeglass lenses?

A

Clean lenses with mild dish soap and dry with a 100% cotton cloth.

138
Q

Under what circumstance does a change in vertex distance result in the most noticeable change in effective power of the lens?

A

refractive prescriptions greater than or equal to –5.00 or +5.00 D

139
Q

If the patient’s interpupillary distance (PD) is measured incorrectly, and the distance between the optical center of each lens does not correspond to the PD, what complaint might the patient have when wearing the new lenses?

A

double vision due to prismatic effect

140
Q

As a starting point, most opticians recommend fitting the top of a bifocal segment level with what anatomical landmark?

A

lower eyelid margin

141
Q

What should monocular patients be encouraged to do?

A

use safety lenses full-time even if they do not have a refractive error

142
Q

A presbyopic auto mechanic is struggling to use his D segment trifocal glasses because he cannot see well at arm’s length over his head. What multifocal lens configuration may help improve his function at work?

A

double-D segment occupational lenses

143
Q

What is an advantage of progressive addition lenses?

A

Lenses can be personalized for the patient’s prescription and frame style.

144
Q

What is the procedure for measuring monocular interpupillary distance?

A

Measure each pupil to the bridge of the nose separately and then add the results.

145
Q

At a 10-inch (25-cm) reading distance, how much magnification will a +10.00 D lens provide?

A

2.5×

146
Q

What items are considered low vision optical devices?

A

glasses, handheld magnifiers, telescopes

147
Q

What bifocal add power is customarily the maximum effective power for near vision in a normally sighted person who is older than 60 years or has hyperopia?

A

+3.00 D

148
Q

When should a patient be referred to a low vision specialist?

A

when low vision doesn’t improve from refraction or medical or surgical treatment

149
Q

Legal blindness can be defined as best-corrected visual acuity of 20/200 or less in the better-seeing eye or as what degree of visual field loss?

A

visual field reduced to 20° or less in the better-seeing eye

150
Q

What can reduce glare and improve reading ability for those with low vision?

A

wearing a hat with a brim

151
Q

For a patient requiring very high magnification and contrast, what nonoptical visual aid would be most helpful?

A

closed-circuit television

152
Q

What is the most common cause of low vision and blindness in developing countries?

A

cataract

153
Q

What does a prescription for contact lenses include?

A

power of the contact lens and diameter and base curve measurements

154
Q

What is the primary purpose of disinfecting contact lenses?

A

to prevent the growth of bacteria, viruses, and fungi

155
Q

An allergic reaction related to contact lens wear is most often due to what substance?

A

preservative or disinfectant chemicals in a lens solution

156
Q

What is a significant advantage of soft lenses over rigid gas-permeable lenses?

A

They are generally easier to adapt to and initially more comfortable.

157
Q

Contact lenses are most likely to be contraindicated for what kind of patient?

A

one with an occupation involving exposure to fumes

158
Q

What is the only acceptable rinsing solution for contact lenses?

A

sterile saline solution

159
Q

Generally, when inserting a soft contact lens on a patient, where should the ophthalmic medical assistant first place the lens?

A

on the sclera below the cornea or on the cornea directly

160
Q

Cosmetic restorative lenses are most appropriate for what purpose?

A

to use as a prosthetic for disfigured eyes

161
Q

What is typical of a corneal abrasion caused by foreign material lodged between the cornea and the contact lens?

A

It can result in a corneal infection.

162
Q

What signs and symptoms indicate an allergic reaction to contact lens solutions?

A

irritation, redness, fogging, and decreased tolerated wearing time

163
Q

What type of soft contact lens is best for patients with dry eye syndrome?

A

daily silicone hydrogel

164
Q

What is a complication of poor lens fit or inadequate oxygenation of the cornea?

A

corneal vascularization

165
Q

What refractive correction is best suited for treatment of keratoconus or corneal scars?

A

rigid gas-permeable contact lenses

166
Q

You hear the sound of a patient falling in one of the examination rooms. Upon entering, you encounter an elderly woman prone on the floor, complaining of pain in her right shoulder and neck area. She is alert and oriented. What should you do first?

A

Notify the physician or another staff member.

167
Q

What situation should be treated as an emergency requiring immediate action?

A

sudden, painless, severe loss of vision

168
Q

What type of chemical eye injury is typically the most dangerous?

A

alkali burn

169
Q

A patient telephones the ophthalmologist’s office reporting an alkali burn in the eye. What should the ophthalmic assistant instruct the patient to do?

A

Irrigate the eye with water for 20 minutes, and then proceed to the office or emergency facility.

170
Q

A construction worker arrives at the office in severe pain immediately after being struck in the eye with metal ejected from a power tool. There is dark-red, dried blood crusted around the eyelid, and the patient cannot open his eye to test the vision. How should the technician proceed?

A

Place a protective shield over the affected eye and do not attempt to open it.

171
Q

What is the primary purpose of triage?

A

to classify the patient’s chief complaint according to its severity and urgency

172
Q

In encounters with irate or hostile patients, what is the best approach for an ophthalmic medical assistant to take?

A

Listen calmly to complaints and apologize for any misunderstanding.

173
Q

What are symptoms of hypoglycemia?

A

weakness, sweatiness, dizziness

174
Q

What is the best approach for testing visual acuity in older patients?

A

Adjust the lighting to avoid glare, which often is a problem in this age group.

175
Q

Approximately 95% of all individuals older than 65 have variable degrees of what eye condition?

A

cataract

176
Q

What does a visual acuity of 3/200 signify?

A

patient could read the 200 optotype at 3 feet from the chart

177
Q

The ability to “fix and follow” as a measure of visual function is generally present by what age?

A

12 weeks

178
Q

A patient with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus suddenly becomes shaky, dizzy, and disoriented while waiting to see the ophthalmologist. What should the assistant do first, acting in compliance with the office’s emergency procedures?

A

Give the patient fruit juice to stabilize the blood glucose level.

179
Q

When interacting with a visually impaired or blind patient, how should the ophthalmic medical assistant proceed?

A

Speak directly to the patient and provide verbal updates regarding the exam and testing.

180
Q

When the assistant asks a literate 8-year-old patient to read the visual acuity chart, the child begins reciting the alphabet. What is the most effective way to get the test results needed?

A

Move the child closer to the chart.

181
Q

What suture material is nonabsorbable?

A

silk

182
Q

What minor ophthalmic procedure is typically performed at the exam room slit-lamp biomicroscope?

A

corneal debridement

183
Q

What task is the ophthalmic medical assistant’s responsibility when caring for a patient who is undergoing minor surgery?

A

prepping the patient for the minor procedure

184
Q

A patient asks you a specific question about the outcome of surgery just before the operation. What is the best action to take?

A

Suggest that the patient ask the doctor directly, and bring up the question as soon as the doctor arrives.

185
Q

What suture size is most likely to be used for upper eyelid blepharoplasty?

A

6-0

186
Q

What action by the assistant would be considered a violation of the sterile operating field?

A

rubbing your nose through the surgical mask

187
Q

What procedure is performed to prevent or treat angle-closure glaucoma?

A

laser peripheral iridotomy

187
Q

What is the most commonly used needle point for minor ophthalmic procedures?

A

reverse cutting

188
Q

What is the correct order of surgical preparation for a patient undergoing eye surgery?

A

Add ocular surface numbing drops, add ocular surface povidone-iodine solution, prep the periorbital and eyelid skin, and then drape the patient’s face.

189
Q

In lacrimal-system probing, what is a cannula used for?

A

to flush out a tear duct with an irrigating solution

190
Q

Which instrument pictured would a surgeon use to visualize and hold a chalazion for removal?

A

a,— looks like a spoon

191
Q

What topical medication is commonly used to reduce the risk of subepithelial corneal haze after photorefractive keratectomy?

A

corticosteroid

192
Q

What is the intended effect of a refractive procedure on corneal curvature for hyperopia correction?

A

steepen the cornea

193
Q

What finding on corneal pachymetry is a contraindication to laser in situ keratomileusis?

A

thin cornea

194
Q

Intrastromal corneal ring segments are most commonly used for what condition

A

early keratoconus

195
Q

What complication is more likely to occur after photorefractive keratectomy than laser in situ keratomileusis?

A

subepithelial corneal haze

196
Q

In the absence of accommodation, where does a hyperopic eye focus images?

A

behind the retina

197
Q

What kind of optical aberrations cannot be detected by conventional refraction techniques?

A

higher order

198
Q

What corneal refractive surgery is reversible?

A

intrastromal corneal ring segments

199
Q

What kind of astigmatism cannot be corrected with astigmatic keratotomy?

A

irregular

200
Q

What is a term for wavefront error measurement?

A

aberrometry

201
Q

What is the standard system for reporting diagnoses?

A

ICD

202
Q

While working for a group practice, you observe a provider repeatedly coding visits in a way that you believe constitutes fraud. What should you do?

A

Notify the compliance officer or practice manager.

203
Q

After assisting with an office procedure for the first time, a technician takes a cell phone photo to show his friends. The patient is visible in the background. How does this pertain to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?

A

This is a violation of HIPAA because the photo is considered protected health information.

204
Q

A patient presents for an eye exam complaining of blurry vision 4 weeks after cataract surgery. Prior to examining the patient, the physician requests that a macula optical coherence tomography scan be obtained to determine if the patient has retinal edema. What diagnosis code should the technician enter for the order?

A

blurry vision (H53.8)

205
Q

OSHA prescribes how practices protect what area?

A

employee health and safety

206
Q

When is it appropriate to use an “unspecified” International Classification of Diseases (ICD) code?

A

when no other diagnosis code accurately describes the condition

207
Q

Which behavior is inappropriate for a technician?

A

discussing clinical findings with the patient

208
Q

Which option is not a measure of practice efficiency?

A

number of follow-up appointments

209
Q

How can ophthalmic medical assistants help create an effective schedule?

A

Develop schedule templates appropriate for each provider.

210
Q

What is an example of a quality measure under the Merit-Based Incentive Payment System?

A

documentation of current medications in the medical record

211
Q

What level of certification requires only a written test?

A

certified ophthalmic assistant

212
Q

A daughter who usually accompanies her mother to all exams is unable to attend a follow-up glaucoma visit. She calls and asks the ophthalmic medical assistant for an update on her mother’s condition. What should the assistant do?

A

Share information if signed permission to communicate is available in the medical record.

213
Q

What action could be grounds for IJCAHPO to deny an ophthalmic medical assistant recertification?

A

misrepresenting IJCAHPO certification or certification status

214
Q

What must telehealth providers do at the beginning of a patient’s virtual visit?

A

Confirm the patient’s identity and obtain consent to proceed with a telehealth visit.

215
Q

A patient with advanced dementia presents for a preoperative exam for cataract surgery. His ride is not his medical power of attorney agent, and you note that the patient doesn’t seem to know why he is in the clinic. How should the informed consent for surgery be obtained?

A

Advise the surgeon of your impression and let the surgeon contact and obtain consent from a family member or legal representative designated by the medical power of attorney.

216
Q

Two patients who have similar eye problems have been discussing their eye conditions in the waiting room. During her visit, one of the patients asks the ophthalmic medical assistant for her new friend’s phone number so they can continue their discussion. What should the assistant do?

A

Explain that personal information cannot be shared without specific written permission.

217
Q

The ophthalmic medical assistant has just completed a visual field examination on a glaucoma suspect patient and believes the test result is normal. The patient asks whether he has glaucoma. How should the assistant respond?

A

Tell him that the doctor must interpret the results and will be with him soon to review and explain everything.

218
Q

After the ophthalmic medical assistant performs the initial interview and testing for a new patient, the patient says, “Thank you, doctor.” What should the assistant do?

A

Correct the mistake.

219
Q

An ophthalmic medical assistant’s friend is hit in the eye with a tree branch. The friend calls him afterward with eye pain. The assistant has access to a bottle of proparacaine at work and tells the friend he will meet her after work. What should the assistant do?

A

Help the friend seek immediate assistance from the eye clinic or emergency room.

220
Q

An ophthalmologist’s office may disclose information about a patient’s condition only to which individual seeking the information?

A

the person to whom the patient has given written permission

221
Q

What statement is correct according to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, often referred to as HIPAA regulations?

A

Only the patient can give permission to share his/her protected health information with others, and the permission must be in writing, with few exceptions.

222
Q

The ophthalmic medical assistant is about to perform an optical coherence tomography exam, and the patient asks why the test is being done. What is the best response?

A

Explain why the test was ordered and what to expect during the test.

223
Q

While bringing a patient to the exam room, you notice that he has a much younger woman accompanying him. What is the most appropriate way to determine their relationship?

A

Turn to the patient and ask, “Who did you bring with you today?”

224
Q

What are social determinants of health?

A

environmental conditions that affect health outcomes

225
Q

What does the term community health refer to?

A

the health status of a defined group of people

226
Q

What percentage of blind and visually impaired individuals live in low- and middle-income countries with reduced access to eye care?

A

90%

227
Q

In the United States, what is the leading cause of blindness in non-Hispanic White, Black, and Hispanic individuals, respectively?

A

age-related macular degeneration, cataract, age-related macular degeneration

228
Q

According to the World Health Organization’s ICD-11 classification of visual impairment, what is the minimum definition of blindness (category 4) in terms of presenting distance visual acuity?

A

worse than 3/60, 1/20 (0.05), 20/400

229
Q

Globally, what source of vision impairment carries the highest number of preventable or yet-to-be-addressed cases?

A

unaddressed refractive error

230
Q

What solution should be used to disinfect lenses that contact the eye?

A

1:10 dilution of bleach and water

231
Q

Care of the phoropter should include what step?

A

authorized maintenance every 2 years

232
Q

What instrument is used to examine the entire retina in stereopsis?

A

indirect ophthalmoscope

233
Q

What should the ophthalmic medical assistant do when assisting in a laser work area?

A

Wear approved protective eye goggles.

234
Q

The potential acuity meter is helpful for determining potential visual acuity in patients with what condition?

A

cataract

235
Q

What precaution should be taken when caring for instrument light bulbs?

A

Handle new light bulbs with lens tissue paper to avoid contact with finger oils.

236
Q

What components are part of the lensmeter unit?

A

focusing eyepiece, lens holder, light source, adjustment knobs

237
Q

What should be done in front of the patient prior to starting the examination?

A

washing or sanitizing the hands

238
Q

What is the most accurate instrument for measuring intraocular pressure?

A

Goldmann applanation tonometer

239
Q

The use of what lens requires contact with the eye?

A

Goldmann 3-mirror

COA (1 decks)

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