COA Flashcards
1
Q
What does the abbreviation IJCAHPO stand for?
A
International Joint Commission on Allied Health Personnel in Ophthalmology
2
Q
What responsibility routinely falls to the ophthalmic medical assistant?
A
performing certain diagnostic tests
3
Q
What disease is associated with increased pressure inside the eye?
A
glaucoma
4
Q
What eye care professional routinely fills prescriptions for eyeglasses?
A
optician
5
Q
What does an orthoptist do?
A
evaluates strabismus
6
Q
What instrument does an ophthalmologist use to examine the retina and optic nerve?
A
ophthalmoscope
7
Q
What eye care professional would fit a patient with a prosthetic eye?
A
ocularist
8
Q
What is the first IJCAHPO level of certification?
A
certified ophthalmic assistant
9
Q
What is the primary function of the medial rectus muscle?
A
rotates the eye inward toward the nose
10
Q
In what order is visual information from the retina transmitted to the visual cortex?
A
bipolar cells to ganglion cells to lateral geniculate body
11
Q
Which part of the eye provides two-thirds of the eye’s focusing power?
A
cornea
12
Q
The contraction of what muscle(s) affects globe rotation (incyclotorsion and excyclotorsion)?
A
superior oblique, inferior oblique, superior rectus, inferior rectus
13
Q
What membrane lines the inner eyelid?
A
palpebral conjunctiva
14
Q
What structure separates an internal hordeolum (chalazion) from an external hordeolum (stye)?
A
tarsal plate
15
Q
The contraction of what muscle(s) results in enlargement of the pupil?
A
dilator
16
Q
What structure is responsible for secreting the aqueous humor?
A
ciliary body
17
Q
What is the process where the lens changes shape to allow an individual to focus on a near target?
A
accommodation
18
Q
What kind of vision loss is associated with injury or degeneration of the macula?
A
detailed central vision
19
Q
The crystalline lens regularly comes into contact with what fluids and tissues?
A
iris, zonules, aqueous humor, vitreous
20
Q
What cells and glands of the eye and adnexa contribute to tear production?
A
goblet cells, meibomian glands, lacrimal gland
21
Q
What is the primary function of the iris sphincter and dilator muscles?
A
to change the pupil size to control the amount of light entering the eye
22
Q
What is amblyopia?
A
poor vision in an eye secondary to visual deprivation in the first decade of life
23
Q
What is diplopia?
A
double vision
24
Q
What is the defining feature of wet age-related macular degeneration (AMD) in comparison to dry AMD?
A
the presence of aberrant blood vessels leaking fluid in the central retina
25
In what condition do the orbital contents swell, pushing the eyeball forward?
exophthalmos (proptosis)
26
What differentiates pterygia from pingueculae?
Pterygia extend onto the surface of the cornea.
27
Primary open-angle glaucoma results in damage to what part of the eye?
optic nerve
28
What is the term for the inward deviation of the eye that occurs only when 1 eye is covered?
esophoria
29
An embolic retinal artery occlusion due to atherosclerosis is best classified as what type of process?
ischemic
30
What is the term for an abnormal physical change that a physician observes while examining a patient?
sign
31
What is the cause of presbyopia?
progressive hardening of the crystalline lens
32
What is a chalazion?
a lump that develops after inflammation and infection
33
What term best describes pooling of white blood cells at the bottom of the anterior chamber in the setting of an infectious or inflammatory process?
hypopyon
34
What sign or symptom most strongly suggests the presence of a retinal detachment rather than a posterior vitreous detachment?
a new, unilateral peripheral defect on confrontational visual fields
35
What term describes bilateral, elevated optic nerves due to increased intracranial pressure?
papilledema
36
What retinal infection typically occurs in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who have CD4 counts less than 50?
cytomegalovirus retinitis
37
What are the common ocular manifestations of myasthenia gravis?
ptosis, diplopia
38
What type of herpes simplex virus usually produces genital infections?
type 2
39
What is the common ocular manifestation of Sjögren syndrome?
keratoconjunctivitis sicca
40
What is a cancer that spreads to other parts of the body called?
metastatic
41
The eyes are considered part of what body system?
nervous
42
What autoimmune condition causes selective muscle weakness by interfering with proper nerve transmission in skeletal muscles?
myasthenia gravis
43
What is a waste product of metabolism in the body?
carbon dioxide
44
What is a common eye disorder associated with multiple sclerosis?
optic neuritis
45
What is the most common cause of proptosis in an adult?
thyroid eye disease
46
What is the characteristic feature of proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
proliferation of blood vessels
47
What is the correct transposition of the plus-cylinder prescription +1.00 +3.00 x 90 to its minus-cylinder form?
+4.00 –3.00 x 180
48
This figure shows the focal point of light rays in an eye that is which of the following?
myopic
49
This figure illustrates what property?
light-divergent property of a concave lens
50
What is the change in power called between the upper and lower segments of a bifocal lens?
add
51
What is the best technique for determining the total refractive power requirement of the eye?
Perform retinoscopy after administering cycloplegic eye drops, which block accommodation.
52
What is a toric cornea characteristic of?
astigmatism
53
What does a lens contain if the lensometer mires cannot be centered?
prism
54
The distance portion of an eyeglass lens is –2.00 D and the bifocal add is +3.00. What is the power of the lens through the bifocal segment?
+1.00 D
55
What type of substance permits the passage of light without significant disruption?
transparent
56
What type of lens best corrects hyperopia combined with astigmatism?
spherocylindrical
57
What is the first step in performing manual lensometry or keratometry?
Focus the eyepiece.
58
What is the power in diopters of a convex lens with a focal length of 0.50 m?
2.00 D
59
What antimicrobial drug is often compounded to increase potency?
vancomycin
60
What disease should be brought to the ophthalmologist's attention in a patient using oral corticosteroids?
diabetes mellitus
61
The use of β-adrenergic blockers should be avoided in patients with what medical condition?
asthma
62
What is the primary function of topical corticosteroids?
to reduce swelling and scarring of the lids and anterior segment (anti-inflammatory and antiallergic agents)
63
What drug is most helpful when performing both a fundus examination and an objective refraction on a pediatric patient?
a cycloplegic
64
What type of injection is classified as a form of systemic drug delivery?
subcutaneous
65
What drug administration route provides the fastest drug delivery into the eye?
intracameral injection
66
How do miotics reduce intraocular pressure?
by contracting the ciliary body muscle and opening the outflow channels for aqueous humor
67
What is a common side effect of cycloplegics?
blurred vision
68
What 2 types of eyedrops could stimulate an attack of angle-closure glaucoma in patients with narrow anterior chamber angles?
mydriatics, cycloplegics
69
What ophthalmic dye is used primarily to diagnose herpes simplex keratitis?
fluorescein
70
What should the ophthalmic medical assistant do when instilling eyedrops?
Administer the medication directly into the conjunctival sac.
71
What is an adverse effect of topical prostaglandins?
eyelash growth
72
What class of medications, when taken by mouth, can cause tingling in the hands or feet, a metallic taste, and kidney stones?
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
73
What is the primary purpose of standard precautions?
to reduce the opportunity for harmful microbes to flourish
74
What organism is a common contaminant in cosmetics, swimming pools, and hot tubs?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
75
What is the best definition of sterilization?
the destruction of all microorganisms
76
If the ophthalmic medical assistant accidentally touches the sterile functional surface of a disposable instrument, what should be done with the instrument?
discard, no matter its cost
77
How should ophthalmic medical assistants deal with open cuts on their hands?
wear gloves to protect both patients and themselves
78
Who is most at risk for developing an ocular infection from the protozoan Acanthamoeba?
those who use homemade salt solutions to clean their contact lenses
79
What microbe is most likely to cause recurrent fever blisters?
herpes simplex virus
80
In an infection caused by MRSA, what is Staphylococcus aureus resistant to?
methicillin
81
What is the best option for disinfecting a tonometer tip?
a germicide
82
What bacterium is the most likely cause of blepharitis?
Staphylococcus aureus
83
Which procedure must be performed before pupillary dilation?
swinging-light test
84
What is the prism and alternate cover test used for?
to measure deviation in a misaligned eye
85
What step is a necessary part of the Schirmer test?
Remove the testing strip after 5 minutes.
86
How does the pinhole occluder determine whether a refractive error is the cause of below-normal visual acuity?
transmission of parallel rays
87
In a normal consensual reaction, when a light is directed into the pupil of 1 eye, what will the pupil of the other eye do?
constrict
88
How often should healthy, asymptomatic individuals between the ages of 40 and 64 have a comprehensive medical eye examination?
every 2 to 4 years
89
What part of the comprehensive medical eye examination evaluates visual system operation?
pupillary examination
90
A reading of 3 on the Goldmann tonometer dial indicates what intraocular pressure?
30 mm Hg
91
Corneal topography is useful for what measurement?
refractive error
92
When conducting the Amsler grid test, it is important to instruct the patient to perform what step?
Hold the card 12 to 14 inches away.
93
An afferent pupillary defect may be detected in patients with what condition?
optic nerve damage
94
Intraocular pressure is measured by flattening a small area of the central cornea using what procedure?
applanation tonometry
95
Near visual acuity measurements can be recorded in units from what system?
Jaeger
96
What is gonioscopy used to view?
structures of the anterior chamber angle
97
What does the number 100 represent when reading the Snellen acuity recording 20/100?
distance in feet at which a normal eye can see a particular line on the chart
98
What instrument can be used to evaluate a patient's risk of developing glaucoma?
pachymeter
99
What is the term for horizontal latent strabismus with the eye deviating outward?
exophoria
100
What term refers to observing the movements of both eyes together?
versions
101
What must a patient have in order to develop stereopsis?
binocular vision
102
What horizontal eye movement turns the eye inward (medially)?
adduction
103
The third cranial nerve controls which muscle?
medial rectus
104
When strabismus is detected, how is the amount of deviation quantified?
prism and alternate cover test
105
Proper execution of the Titmus stereopsis test requires the patient to wear what type of spectacles?
light-polarizing spectacles
106
The sixth cranial nerve supplies which extraocular muscle?
lateral rectus
107
The trochlear nerve powers which extraocular muscle?
superior oblique
108
B-scan ultrasonography can be used for what purpose?
to characterize intraocular structures and abnormalities, such as tumors
109
When undergoing A-scan ultrasonography prior to cataract surgery, the patient looks to the side and the axial length measured is 0.30 mm shorter than the patient's apical cornea-to-retina distance. How does this affect the intraocular lens (IOL) calculation?
The IOL calculation will be 1.00 D more than the patient needs.
110
What does pachymetry measure?
thickness of the cornea
111
The ocular media includes what transparent structures?
cornea, lens, vitreous
112
Fluorescein angiography is most valuable for evaluating what condition?
abnormalities in ocular blood vessels
113
What does corneal topography measure?
curvature of the cornea
114
What test is used to count endothelial cells of the cornea?
specular microscopy/photography
115
What device measures the effect of media opacity on visual acuity and does not require a clearer zone within the media for assessment?
interferometer
116
Compression of the cornea during A-scan ultrasonography may result in what kind of measurement error and intraocular lens outcome?
shorter than actual axial length measurement, with a resulting myopic postoperative refractive error
117
What does optical coherence tomography measure?
ocular anatomy
118
What can A-scan ultrasonography be used for?
measuring the axial length of the globe
119
What is an acuity chart printed in faint gray rather than in sharp black on white useful for measuring?
contrast sensitivity
120
Why should a fluorescein or indocyanine angiogram only be performed when a physician and emergency equipment are available?
risk of anaphylaxis
121
What statement applies to commonly used applanation tonometers?
An abnormally thick cornea produces an artificially high intraocular pressure reading.
122
B-scan ultrasonography is useful for evaluating what condition?
media opacities
123
What is the most common complication of fluorescein angiography?
nausea
124
How does an interferometer measure visual acuity potential?
projects lines onto the macula
125
What is an advantage of Goldmann kinetic perimetry?
It covers the entire visual field.
126
What field of vision is affected by a defect in the inferior temporal retina?
superior nasal
127
Where does the physiologic blind spot appear on visual field charts?
in the temporal visual field
128
Why should the size of a patient's pupil be recorded at the time of perimetry?
A pupil measuring 2 mm or less results in contraction of the visual field.
129
In this visual field report of both eyes, the result depicted is most often due to what condition?
lesion or tumor near the optic chiasm
130
What is the term for a contour obtained with a single target of a particular size and brightness on a visual field chart in kinetic perimetry?
isopter
131
In this visual field chart of the right eye, the shaded area on the left shows decreased visual sensitivity. What is this shaded area known as?
generalized depression
132
Which test is an example of static perimetry?
automated threshold perimetry
133
The technique of placing a target of a given size in the visual field and gradually increasing its brightness until the patient sees it is the basis for what test?
threshold perimetry
134
What is an advantage of automated threshold perimetry?
It is more sensitive than kinetic perimetry in detecting shallow defects.
135
What condition causes a visual field defect that respects the horizontal meridian?
glaucoma
136
What condition can help ensure an accurate perimetry result?
having an appropriate add or near correction in place
137
How should patients be instructed to care for their eyeglass lenses?
Clean lenses with mild dish soap and dry with a 100% cotton cloth.
138
Under what circumstance does a change in vertex distance result in the most noticeable change in effective power of the lens?
refractive prescriptions greater than or equal to –5.00 or +5.00 D
139
If the patient's interpupillary distance (PD) is measured incorrectly, and the distance between the optical center of each lens does not correspond to the PD, what complaint might the patient have when wearing the new lenses?
double vision due to prismatic effect
140
As a starting point, most opticians recommend fitting the top of a bifocal segment level with what anatomical landmark?
lower eyelid margin
141
What should monocular patients be encouraged to do?
use safety lenses full-time even if they do not have a refractive error
142
A presbyopic auto mechanic is struggling to use his D segment trifocal glasses because he cannot see well at arm's length over his head. What multifocal lens configuration may help improve his function at work?
double-D segment occupational lenses
143
What is an advantage of progressive addition lenses?
Lenses can be personalized for the patient's prescription and frame style.
144
What is the procedure for measuring monocular interpupillary distance?
Measure each pupil to the bridge of the nose separately and then add the results.
145
At a 10-inch (25-cm) reading distance, how much magnification will a +10.00 D lens provide?
2.5×
146
What items are considered low vision optical devices?
glasses, handheld magnifiers, telescopes
147
What bifocal add power is customarily the maximum effective power for near vision in a normally sighted person who is older than 60 years or has hyperopia?
+3.00 D
148
When should a patient be referred to a low vision specialist?
when low vision doesn't improve from refraction or medical or surgical treatment
149
Legal blindness can be defined as best-corrected visual acuity of 20/200 or less in the better-seeing eye or as what degree of visual field loss?
visual field reduced to 20° or less in the better-seeing eye
150
What can reduce glare and improve reading ability for those with low vision?
wearing a hat with a brim
151
For a patient requiring very high magnification and contrast, what nonoptical visual aid would be most helpful?
closed-circuit television
152
What is the most common cause of low vision and blindness in developing countries?
cataract
153
What does a prescription for contact lenses include?
power of the contact lens and diameter and base curve measurements
154
What is the primary purpose of disinfecting contact lenses?
to prevent the growth of bacteria, viruses, and fungi
155
An allergic reaction related to contact lens wear is most often due to what substance?
preservative or disinfectant chemicals in a lens solution
156
What is a significant advantage of soft lenses over rigid gas-permeable lenses?
They are generally easier to adapt to and initially more comfortable.
157
Contact lenses are most likely to be contraindicated for what kind of patient?
one with an occupation involving exposure to fumes
158
What is the only acceptable rinsing solution for contact lenses?
sterile saline solution
159
Generally, when inserting a soft contact lens on a patient, where should the ophthalmic medical assistant first place the lens?
on the sclera below the cornea or on the cornea directly
160
Cosmetic restorative lenses are most appropriate for what purpose?
to use as a prosthetic for disfigured eyes
161
What is typical of a corneal abrasion caused by foreign material lodged between the cornea and the contact lens?
It can result in a corneal infection.
162
What signs and symptoms indicate an allergic reaction to contact lens solutions?
irritation, redness, fogging, and decreased tolerated wearing time
163
What type of soft contact lens is best for patients with dry eye syndrome?
daily silicone hydrogel
164
What is a complication of poor lens fit or inadequate oxygenation of the cornea?
corneal vascularization
165
What refractive correction is best suited for treatment of keratoconus or corneal scars?
rigid gas-permeable contact lenses
166
You hear the sound of a patient falling in one of the examination rooms. Upon entering, you encounter an elderly woman prone on the floor, complaining of pain in her right shoulder and neck area. She is alert and oriented. What should you do first?
Notify the physician or another staff member.
167
What situation should be treated as an emergency requiring immediate action?
sudden, painless, severe loss of vision
168
What type of chemical eye injury is typically the most dangerous?
alkali burn
169
A patient telephones the ophthalmologist's office reporting an alkali burn in the eye. What should the ophthalmic assistant instruct the patient to do?
Irrigate the eye with water for 20 minutes, and then proceed to the office or emergency facility.
170
A construction worker arrives at the office in severe pain immediately after being struck in the eye with metal ejected from a power tool. There is dark-red, dried blood crusted around the eyelid, and the patient cannot open his eye to test the vision. How should the technician proceed?
Place a protective shield over the affected eye and do not attempt to open it.
171
What is the primary purpose of triage?
to classify the patient's chief complaint according to its severity and urgency
172
In encounters with irate or hostile patients, what is the best approach for an ophthalmic medical assistant to take?
Listen calmly to complaints and apologize for any misunderstanding.
173
What are symptoms of hypoglycemia?
weakness, sweatiness, dizziness
174
What is the best approach for testing visual acuity in older patients?
Adjust the lighting to avoid glare, which often is a problem in this age group.
175
Approximately 95% of all individuals older than 65 have variable degrees of what eye condition?
cataract
176
What does a visual acuity of 3/200 signify?
patient could read the 200 optotype at 3 feet from the chart
177
The ability to "fix and follow" as a measure of visual function is generally present by what age?
12 weeks
178
A patient with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus suddenly becomes shaky, dizzy, and disoriented while waiting to see the ophthalmologist. What should the assistant do first, acting in compliance with the office's emergency procedures?
Give the patient fruit juice to stabilize the blood glucose level.
179
When interacting with a visually impaired or blind patient, how should the ophthalmic medical assistant proceed?
Speak directly to the patient and provide verbal updates regarding the exam and testing.
180
When the assistant asks a literate 8-year-old patient to read the visual acuity chart, the child begins reciting the alphabet. What is the most effective way to get the test results needed?
Move the child closer to the chart.
181
What suture material is nonabsorbable?
silk
182
What minor ophthalmic procedure is typically performed at the exam room slit-lamp biomicroscope?
corneal debridement
183
What task is the ophthalmic medical assistant's responsibility when caring for a patient who is undergoing minor surgery?
prepping the patient for the minor procedure
184
A patient asks you a specific question about the outcome of surgery just before the operation. What is the best action to take?
Suggest that the patient ask the doctor directly, and bring up the question as soon as the doctor arrives.
185
What suture size is most likely to be used for upper eyelid blepharoplasty?
6-0
186
What action by the assistant would be considered a violation of the sterile operating field?
rubbing your nose through the surgical mask
187
What procedure is performed to prevent or treat angle-closure glaucoma?
laser peripheral iridotomy
187
What is the most commonly used needle point for minor ophthalmic procedures?
reverse cutting
188
What is the correct order of surgical preparation for a patient undergoing eye surgery?
Add ocular surface numbing drops, add ocular surface povidone-iodine solution, prep the periorbital and eyelid skin, and then drape the patient's face.
189
In lacrimal-system probing, what is a cannula used for?
to flush out a tear duct with an irrigating solution
190
Which instrument pictured would a surgeon use to visualize and hold a chalazion for removal?
a,--- looks like a spoon
191
What topical medication is commonly used to reduce the risk of subepithelial corneal haze after photorefractive keratectomy?
corticosteroid
192
What is the intended effect of a refractive procedure on corneal curvature for hyperopia correction?
steepen the cornea
193
What finding on corneal pachymetry is a contraindication to laser in situ keratomileusis?
thin cornea
194
Intrastromal corneal ring segments are most commonly used for what condition
early keratoconus
195
What complication is more likely to occur after photorefractive keratectomy than laser in situ keratomileusis?
subepithelial corneal haze
196
In the absence of accommodation, where does a hyperopic eye focus images?
behind the retina
197
What kind of optical aberrations cannot be detected by conventional refraction techniques?
higher order
198
What corneal refractive surgery is reversible?
intrastromal corneal ring segments
199
What kind of astigmatism cannot be corrected with astigmatic keratotomy?
irregular
200
What is a term for wavefront error measurement?
aberrometry
201
What is the standard system for reporting diagnoses?
ICD
202
While working for a group practice, you observe a provider repeatedly coding visits in a way that you believe constitutes fraud. What should you do?
Notify the compliance officer or practice manager.
203
After assisting with an office procedure for the first time, a technician takes a cell phone photo to show his friends. The patient is visible in the background. How does this pertain to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
This is a violation of HIPAA because the photo is considered protected health information.
204
A patient presents for an eye exam complaining of blurry vision 4 weeks after cataract surgery. Prior to examining the patient, the physician requests that a macula optical coherence tomography scan be obtained to determine if the patient has retinal edema. What diagnosis code should the technician enter for the order?
blurry vision (H53.8)
205
OSHA prescribes how practices protect what area?
employee health and safety
206
When is it appropriate to use an "unspecified" International Classification of Diseases (ICD) code?
when no other diagnosis code accurately describes the condition
207
Which behavior is inappropriate for a technician?
discussing clinical findings with the patient
208
Which option is not a measure of practice efficiency?
number of follow-up appointments
209
How can ophthalmic medical assistants help create an effective schedule?
Develop schedule templates appropriate for each provider.
210
What is an example of a quality measure under the Merit-Based Incentive Payment System?
documentation of current medications in the medical record
211
What level of certification requires only a written test?
certified ophthalmic assistant
212
A daughter who usually accompanies her mother to all exams is unable to attend a follow-up glaucoma visit. She calls and asks the ophthalmic medical assistant for an update on her mother's condition. What should the assistant do?
Share information if signed permission to communicate is available in the medical record.
213
What action could be grounds for IJCAHPO to deny an ophthalmic medical assistant recertification?
misrepresenting IJCAHPO certification or certification status
214
What must telehealth providers do at the beginning of a patient's virtual visit?
Confirm the patient's identity and obtain consent to proceed with a telehealth visit.
215
A patient with advanced dementia presents for a preoperative exam for cataract surgery. His ride is not his medical power of attorney agent, and you note that the patient doesn't seem to know why he is in the clinic. How should the informed consent for surgery be obtained?
Advise the surgeon of your impression and let the surgeon contact and obtain consent from a family member or legal representative designated by the medical power of attorney.
216
Two patients who have similar eye problems have been discussing their eye conditions in the waiting room. During her visit, one of the patients asks the ophthalmic medical assistant for her new friend's phone number so they can continue their discussion. What should the assistant do?
Explain that personal information cannot be shared without specific written permission.
217
The ophthalmic medical assistant has just completed a visual field examination on a glaucoma suspect patient and believes the test result is normal. The patient asks whether he has glaucoma. How should the assistant respond?
Tell him that the doctor must interpret the results and will be with him soon to review and explain everything.
218
After the ophthalmic medical assistant performs the initial interview and testing for a new patient, the patient says, "Thank you, doctor." What should the assistant do?
Correct the mistake.
219
An ophthalmic medical assistant's friend is hit in the eye with a tree branch. The friend calls him afterward with eye pain. The assistant has access to a bottle of proparacaine at work and tells the friend he will meet her after work. What should the assistant do?
Help the friend seek immediate assistance from the eye clinic or emergency room.
220
An ophthalmologist's office may disclose information about a patient's condition only to which individual seeking the information?
the person to whom the patient has given written permission
221
What statement is correct according to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, often referred to as HIPAA regulations?
Only the patient can give permission to share his/her protected health information with others, and the permission must be in writing, with few exceptions.
222
The ophthalmic medical assistant is about to perform an optical coherence tomography exam, and the patient asks why the test is being done. What is the best response?
Explain why the test was ordered and what to expect during the test.
223
While bringing a patient to the exam room, you notice that he has a much younger woman accompanying him. What is the most appropriate way to determine their relationship?
Turn to the patient and ask, "Who did you bring with you today?"
224
What are social determinants of health?
environmental conditions that affect health outcomes
225
What does the term community health refer to?
the health status of a defined group of people
226
What percentage of blind and visually impaired individuals live in low- and middle-income countries with reduced access to eye care?
90%
227
In the United States, what is the leading cause of blindness in non-Hispanic White, Black, and Hispanic individuals, respectively?
age-related macular degeneration, cataract, age-related macular degeneration
228
According to the World Health Organization's ICD-11 classification of visual impairment, what is the minimum definition of blindness (category 4) in terms of presenting distance visual acuity?
worse than 3/60, 1/20 (0.05), 20/400
229
Globally, what source of vision impairment carries the highest number of preventable or yet-to-be-addressed cases?
unaddressed refractive error
230
What solution should be used to disinfect lenses that contact the eye?
1:10 dilution of bleach and water
231
Care of the phoropter should include what step?
authorized maintenance every 2 years
232
What instrument is used to examine the entire retina in stereopsis?
indirect ophthalmoscope
233
What should the ophthalmic medical assistant do when assisting in a laser work area?
Wear approved protective eye goggles.
234
The potential acuity meter is helpful for determining potential visual acuity in patients with what condition?
cataract
235
What precaution should be taken when caring for instrument light bulbs?
Handle new light bulbs with lens tissue paper to avoid contact with finger oils.
236
What components are part of the lensmeter unit?
focusing eyepiece, lens holder, light source, adjustment knobs
237
What should be done in front of the patient prior to starting the examination?
washing or sanitizing the hands
238
What is the most accurate instrument for measuring intraocular pressure?
Goldmann applanation tonometer
239
The use of what lens requires contact with the eye?
Goldmann 3-mirror
