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COA > COA > Flashcards

COA Flashcards

1
Q

1

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Ophthamology

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2
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ophthalmologist

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3
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Optometrist

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4
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Optician

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5
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Orthoptist

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6
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6

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Ocularist

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7
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7

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ophthalmic pho-

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8
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8

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ophthalmic med-

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9
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9

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JCAHPO 3 levels

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10
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10

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subspecialist

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11
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11

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Cornea

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12
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12

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Iris

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13
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13

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pupil

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14
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14

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crystalline lens

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15
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15

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vitreous

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16
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16

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Retina

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17
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17

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Optic Nerve

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18
Q

18

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Axial length

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19
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19

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central cornea

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20
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20

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pachymetry

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21
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21

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refracting power

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22
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22

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Adnexa

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23
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23

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Orbit

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24
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24

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Blowout fracture

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25
Q

25

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extraocular mus-

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26
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26

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medial rectus

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27
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27

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lateral rectus

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28
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28

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superior oblique

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29
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29

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inferior oblique

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30
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30

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superior rectus

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31
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31

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inferior rectus

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32
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32

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binocular vision

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33
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33

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fusion

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34
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34

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strabismus -

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35
Q

35

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palpebral fissure

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36
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36

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medial canthus

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37
Q

37

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lateral canthus

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38
Q

38

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cilia

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39
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39

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anterior

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40
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40

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trichiasis

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41
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41

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External horde-

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42
Q

42

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meibomian

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43
Q

43

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posterior

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44
Q

44

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chalazion

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45
Q

45

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blepharitis

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46
Q

46

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tarsus

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47
Q

47

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orbicularis oculi

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48
Q

48

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levator palpe-

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49
Q

49

A

ptosis - when

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50
Q

50

A

ectropion - a con-

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51
Q

51

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entropion - when

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52
Q

52

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conjunctiva

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53
Q

53

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conjunctivitis

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54
Q

55

A

lacrimal appara-

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55
Q

56

A

tear film

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56
Q

57

A

Dry eye tests

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57
Q

58

A

anterior segment

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58
Q

59

A

posterior seg-

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59
Q

60

A

Does the cornea

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60
Q

61

A

5 layers of the

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61
Q

62

A

corneal abrasion

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62
Q

63

A

corneal ulcer

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63
Q

64

A

sclera

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64
Q

65

A

limbus

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65
Q

66

A

anterior chamber

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66
Q

67

A

anterior cham-

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67
Q

68

A

uvea

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68
Q

69

A

sphincter muscle

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69
Q

70

A

posterior cham-

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70
Q

71

A

ciliary body

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71
Q

72

A

choroid

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72
Q

73

A

presbyopia

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73
Q

74

A

cataract

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74
Q

75

A

floaters

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75
Q

76

A

photorecepters

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76
Q

77

A

optic disc/head

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77
Q

78

A

macula

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78
Q

79

A

fovea

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79
Q

80

A

light to the brain

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80
Q

81

A

cup to disc ratio

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81
Q

82

A

visual pathway

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82
Q

83

A

optic chiasm

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83
Q

84

A

4 main parts of

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84
Q

85

A

disease

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85
Q

86

A

etiology

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86
Q

87

A

cells

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87
Q

88

A

infection

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88
Q

89

A

inflammation

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89
Q

90

A

acute inflamma-

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90
Q

91

A

ischemia

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91
Q

92

A

occluded

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92
Q

93

A

hypoxia

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93
Q

94

A

metabolism

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94
Q

95

A

hormones vs en-

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95
Q

96

A

congenital

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96
Q

97

A

degenerative

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97
Q

98

A

neoplasm

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98
Q

99

A

signs

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99
Q
  1. proptosis (ex-
A

increase in volume of the orbital contents pushing the

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100
Q

ophthalmos)

A

eyeball forward

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101
Q
  1. Graves disease
A

when the thyroid is anterior in the throat and causes the

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102
Q
  1. unilateral propto-
A

only one eye bulging

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103
Q
  1. hemorrhage
A

accumulation of blood from a broken vessel

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104
Q
  1. edema
A

swelling from large amounts of fluid

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105
Q
  1. orbital cellulitis
A

diffuse infection of tissues in the orbit

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106
Q
  1. blowout fracture
A

trauma to the eye or orbit with blunt object breaking the

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107
Q
  1. diplopia
A

double vision. Prism helps correct this.

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108
Q
  1. exodeviation
A

outward deviation of the eye

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109
Q
  1. esodeviation
A

inward deviation of the eye

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110
Q
  1. tropia
A

visually seen

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111
Q
  1. phoria
A

only seen when covering one eye and losing the ability for

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112
Q
  1. stereopsis
A

3D visual perception (need both eyes)

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113
Q
  1. nystagmus
A

when the eyes shift involuntary in a rhythmic beating

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114
Q
  1. belpharitis
A

chronic infection with inflammation of the lid margins

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115
Q
  1. basal cell carci-
A

malignant lid tumor (most common)

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116
Q
  1. dacryocystitis
A

inflammation of the lacrimal sac

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117
Q
  1. keratoconjunc-
A

dry eye syndrome

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118
Q
  1. pinguecula vs
A

pinguecula only grows on the conjunctiva.

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119
Q

pterygium

A

pterygium grows on the cornea.

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120
Q
  1. nevi
A

freckle

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121
Q
  1. keratitis
A

inflammation of the cornea

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122
Q
  1. abrasion
A

scratch

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123
Q
  1. laceration
A

tear

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124
Q
  1. lesion
A

break in the tissue

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125
Q
  1. hypopyon
A

pus accumulating in the anterior chamber

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126
Q
  1. dendritic
A

branch shaped

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127
Q
  1. keratoconus
A

degenerative corneal disease of genetic origin. The

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128
Q
  1. scleritis
A

inflammation of the sclera

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129
Q
  1. episcleritis
A

inflammation of the layer overlying the sclera

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130
Q
  1. hyphema
A

blood in the anterior chamber

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131
Q
  1. glaucoma
A

malformation/malfunction of structures within the anterior

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132
Q
  1. visual field
A

height and breadth of space seen by the eye when it looks

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133
Q
  1. primary open an-
A

anterior chamber appears in its normal open position.

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134
Q

gle glaucoma

A

(most common)

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135
Q
  1. primary an-
A

the distance between the iris and cornea is shorter than

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136
Q

gle-closure glau-

A

normal

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137
Q
  1. secondary glau-
A

occurs secondary, or caused by, another disease

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138
Q
  1. congenital glau-
A

malformation of anterior chamber angle in infants

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139
Q
  1. endophthalmitis
A

infection of the vitreous and adjacent tissues

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140
Q
  1. retinal detach-
A

separation of the sensory layers of the retina from the

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141
Q

ment

A

underlying pigment layer

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142
Q
  1. cryopexy
A

freezing the tear

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143
Q
  1. photocoagula-
A

welding with light from a laser

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144
Q
  1. pneuma-
A

injection of gas into the eye

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145
Q
  1. scleral buckle
A

placing a block of silicone or other material on the eye to

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146
Q
  1. posterior vitrec-
A

removing the vitreous

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147
Q
  1. exudative retinal
A

results from fluid collection in the subretinal space

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148
Q

traction retinal

A

results from pulling on the retina by a fibrous growth

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149
Q

detachment

A

(ERM)

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150
Q
  1. dry AMD
A

characterized by drusen and atrophic spots (loss of tis-

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151
Q
  1. retinitis pigmen-
A

hereditary progressive retinal degeneration that affects

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152
Q

tosa

A

both eyes, usually in children.

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153
Q
  1. vascular occlu-
A

blockage of the blood vessels that serve the retina

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154
Q
  1. intracranial
A

inside the skull

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155
Q
  1. papilledema
A

swelling of the optic disc with engorged blood vessels due

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156
Q
  1. optic neuritis
A

swelling of the optic nerve

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157
Q
  1. anterior is-
A

occlusion of the blood supply to the optic nerve. causes

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158
Q

chemic optic

A

sudden vision loss. no treatment.

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159
Q
  1. myasthenia
A

chronic autoimmune condition that interferes with proper

160
Q

gravis

A

nerve transmission in the skeletal muscles, resulting in

161
Q
  1. sarcoidosis
A

causes inflammation and microscopic nodule called gran-

162
Q
  1. sjogren syn-
A

dry eyes and mouth. Results in keratoconjunctivitis sicca.

163
Q
  1. exposure ker-
A

exposes the delicate ocular surface and is associated with

164
Q

atopathy

A

drying of the conjunctiva and corneal surfacing

165
Q
  1. autoimmune dis-
A

myasthenia gravis

166
Q

orders that can

A

rheumatoid arthiritis

167
Q

affect the eye

A

sarcoidosis

168
Q
  1. metabolic disor-
A

diabetes mellitus

169
Q
  1. vascular dis-
A

cerebral vascular accident

170
Q

eases

A

giant cell arteritis

171
Q
  1. cerebral vascu-
A

stroke and cerebral hemorrhage.

172
Q

lar accident

A

can cause CRAO or BRAO

173
Q
  1. giant cell arteri-
A

(AKA temporal arteritis) affects the circulation of medium

174
Q

tis

A

sized arteries.

175
Q
  1. infectious dis-
A

AIDS

176
Q

eases

A

Chlamydia

177
Q
  1. neoplastic dis-
A

metastatic carcinoma

178
Q

eases

A

blood dyscrasias

179
Q
  1. cerebral neo-
A

brain tumors

180
Q
  1. blood dyscrasias
A

any abnormal or pathologic condition of the blood

181
Q
  1. metastatic carci-
A

tumor producing cancer

182
Q

168

A

insulin, estrogen, testosterone, thyroid hormone

183
Q
  1. affects of dia-
A

blood vessel leakage of fluid and exudation of protein

184
Q

betes on the reti-

A

substances into the retina, very poor retinal circulation,

185
Q

na

A

retinal ischemia, retinal neovasculariztion

186
Q
  1. what eye find-
A

visual field defects and irregular pupils

187
Q
  1. optics
A

branch of physical science that deals with the properties

188
Q
  1. opaque
A

completely block light

189
Q
  1. translucent
A

interfere with the passing of light

190
Q
  1. transparent
A

permit the passage of light without significant disruption

191
Q
  1. refracted
A

bent

192
Q
  1. optical density
A

compactness

193
Q
  1. refractive index
A

speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in a specific

194
Q
  1. apex
A

top

195
Q
  1. prism
A

triangular piece of glass. Because of its shape it devi-

196
Q
  1. converge
A

come together

197
Q
  1. diverge
A

spread apart

198
Q
  1. plane
A

flat

199
Q
  1. convex lens
A

piece of glass/plastic where one or both surfaces are

200
Q
  1. concave lens
A

where one or both surfaces of a piece of plastic/glass

201
Q
  1. parallel
A

side by side and in the same direction

202
Q
  1. principal axis
A

pathway light travels through a lens

203
Q
  1. axial (principal
A

the ray that travels through a lens

204
Q
  1. paraxial rays
A

two parallel light rays that enter the lens at any point other

205
Q
  1. virtual image
A

an image that is seen with concave lenses. The light

206
Q
  1. vergence power
A

a measure of a lenses ability to converge or diverge light

207
Q

(power)

A

rays. This depends on the refractive index of the lens

208
Q
  1. steeply curved
A

steeply curved convex lenses of a given material produce

209
Q

convex lens vs

A

greater convergence than do less curved convex lenses

210
Q

lightly convex

A

of the same substance, and are therefore more powerful.

211
Q

curve

A

(same idea for concave)

212
Q
  1. focal length
A

the distance between the focal point and the lens. It’s

213
Q
  1. power of a lens is
A

the reciprocal of the focal length measured in meters and

214
Q

equal to

A

is expressed as diopters.

215
Q
  1. a concave lens
A

-1/2 or -0.5 diopters

216
Q
  1. refractive state
A

refers to the relative ability of the refractive components

217
Q
  1. emmetropia
A

where two parallel light rays are focused perfect on the

218
Q
  1. ametropia
A

where two parallel light rays aren’t focused perfect on the

219
Q
  1. myopia
A

nearsightedness. the lens and the cornea have too much

220
Q
  1. hyperopia
A

farsightedness. the cornea and lens have too little plus

221
Q
  1. spherical cornea
A

most corneas have a universal curvature.

222
Q
  1. astigmatism
A

refractive error caused by a toric cornea

223
Q
  1. toric cornea
A

a non perfect cornea curvature

224
Q
  1. regular vs irregu-
A

regular: shaped like a football

225
Q

lar astigmatism

A

irregular: a bumpy football

226
Q
  1. spherical lens
A

a lens that has the same curvature over its entire surface

227
Q
  1. multifocal lenses
A

bi-trifocals

228
Q
  1. cylinder
A

differ from spheres in that they have curvature and thus

229
Q
  1. axis
A

the meridian perpendicular to the meridian with curvature.

230
Q
  1. spherocylinders
A

a combination of sphere and cylinder.

231
Q
  1. lensometry
A

the technique of measuring the properties of spherocylin-

232
Q
  1. cycloplegic re-
A

refracting with dilated(cycloplegic) eyes. Used in patients

233
Q

fraction

A

under 20 years old.

234
Q
  1. manifest refrac-
A

refracting without dilating (cycloplegic) drops.

235
Q
  1. retinoscopy
A

initial step in refractometry. requires no participation or

236
Q
  1. retinoscope
A

has a light source and a viewing component.

237
Q
  1. phoropter
A

name of the tool you use to refract patients.

238
Q
  1. subjective re-
A

subject= requires the patients response

239
Q

fractometry vs

A

object= retinoscopy. doesn’t require patients cooperation

240
Q
  1. cross cylinder
A

jacobs cross (when refracting)

241
Q
  1. balancing
A

looks for a an uneven correction or undercorrection for the

242
Q

(binocular

A

patients refraction. (3click blur)

243
Q
  1. plano
A

no sphere power

244
Q
  1. spherical
A

no cylinder power/axis

245
Q
  1. transposition
A

conversion from one form of expression to the other. (+/-

246
Q
  1. lensometer
A

lensmeter/vertometer - what you use to read glasses

247
Q
  1. keratometry
A

measurement of a patients corneal curvature. done by a

248
Q
  1. The refractive
A

prism diopters

249
Q
  1. a 0.5 prism devi-
A

2

250
Q
  1. name the kind of
A

myopia: concave or minus sphere

251
Q

ophthalmic lens

A

hyperopia: convex, or plus sphere

252
Q

used to correct

A

astigmatism: spherocylinder, or cylinder

253
Q
  1. define refraction
A

process of measuring a person’s refractive error and de-

254
Q

as the term is

A

termining the optical correction required to provide clear

255
Q

used in eye care

A

vision

256
Q
  1. name the 2 main
A

refractometry and clinical judgment

257
Q
  1. name the 3 sep-
A

retinoscopy (objective refractometry), refinement (subjec-

258
Q

arate steps of re-

A

tive refractometry, binocular balancing

259
Q
  1. patients may re-
A
  1. topical systems: whereby drugs are applied directly to
260
Q

ceive ophthalmic

A

the surface of the eye or surrounding skin

261
Q

drugs by 3 princi-

A

2 .injections: whereby drugs are injected with a hypoder-

262
Q

pal methods:

A

mic needle into or around the eye or into another part of

263
Q
  1. implantable in-
A

controlled release of drugs into the eye. (ozurdex)

264
Q

231

A

hydrophobic (resists water)

265
Q
  1. drug solution
A

completely dissolved in an inert liquid called the vehicle

266
Q
  1. anti-infectant lid
A

tan

267
Q
  1. anti-inflammato-
A

pink (sometimes white)

268
Q
  1. mydriatics and
A

red

269
Q
  1. nonsteroidal
A

gray

270
Q
  1. miotics lid color
A

dark green

271
Q
  1. beta-blockers lid
A

yellow

272
Q
  1. beta-blocker
A

dark blue

273
Q
  1. adrenergic ago-
A

purple

274
Q
  1. suspension
A

a liquid vehicle in which particles of the drug are “sus-

275
Q
  1. ointment/gel
A

the drug is dissolved or suspended in an oily or greasy

276
Q

systemic drug

A

intravenous, intramuscular, and subcutaneous injections.

277
Q

delivery

A

The active drug travels through the body’s circulatory

278
Q
  1. vascular en-
A

VEGF - chemical substance that stimulates growth of new

279
Q

dothelial growth

A

blood vessels.

280
Q
  1. improving drop
A

1.take drops with other routine tasks such as brushing

281
Q

compliance

A

teeth

282
Q
  1. mydriatics
A

the act of dilating the pupil.

283
Q
  1. dapiprazole
A

dilating reversing drop. Not in USA anymore. Causes

284
Q
  1. cycloplegia
A

ability of a drug to temporarily paralyze the ciliary/sphinc-

285
Q
  1. uses of cyclople-
A
  1. performing a refraction that requires an absence of
286
Q

gia drugs

A

accommodation

287
Q
  1. fluorescein, rose
A

dyes

288
Q
  1. anesthetics
A

numb the surface of the eye

289
Q
  1. miotics
A

cause the iris sphincter muscle to contract, producing

290
Q
  1. beta-adrenergic
A

these drugs decrease fluid production in the eye. they can

291
Q

blockers

A

slow the heart rate and shouldn’t be used in patients with

292
Q
  1. oral and topical
A

decrease the formation and secretion of aqueous humor.

293
Q

carbonic anhy-

A

adopt, dorzolamide.

294
Q
  1. alpha selective
A

decrease the rate of aqueous humor production

295
Q
  1. prostaglandins
A

only use in the evening and they reduce intraocular pres-

296
Q
  1. hyperosmotics
A

draw fluid out of the aqueous and vitreous humors. action

297
Q
  1. antimicrobials
A

antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals - bacitracin, tobramycin,

298
Q
  1. ocular decon-
A

constrict the superficial blood vessels in the conjunctiva -

299
Q

gestants

A

visine, clear eyes

300
Q
  1. NSAIDS
A

used for ocular inflammation and allergies. -ketorolac,

301
Q
  1. immunomodula-
A

restasis - treatment for tear deficiency

302
Q
  1. what is needed
A
  • patients name, address, and date of prescription
303
Q

for a medical pre-

A
  • name of the drug and the strength
304
Q

scription

A
  • total amount of drug to be dispensed
305
Q
  1. bid
A

twice a day

306
Q
  1. gtt
A

drop

307
Q
  1. hs
A

bedtime

308
Q
  1. qd
A

everyday

309
Q
  1. qh
A

every hour

310
Q
  1. qid
A

4 times a day

311
Q
  1. tid
A

three times a day

312
Q
  1. ung
A

ointment

313
Q
  1. what do with
A

-oxygen

314
Q

drug allergic re-

A

-benadryl (oral)

315
Q

actions

A
  • epinephrine (injectable)
316
Q
  1. types of microor-
A

-bacteria

317
Q

ganisms

A

-fungi

318
Q
  1. how do scien-
A

size, structure, method of reproduction, or response to

319
Q

tists classify mi-

A

laboratory procedures such as staining

320
Q
  1. bacteria
A

-reproduce by splitting in 2, gram (+) and gram (-)

321
Q
  1. gram staining
A

allows you to distinguish between gram (-) and gram (+)

322
Q
  1. viruses
A

only can replicate inside a cell, cannot be controlled with

323
Q
  1. herpes type 1 vs
A

type 1: fever blisters and lesions of cornea/eyelids

324
Q

herpes type 2

A

type 2: genital region and transmitted by sexual contact

325
Q
  1. HIV
A

human immunodeficiency virus, causes aids.

326
Q
  1. protoza
A

single-celled. found in water, soil, plants and animals.

327
Q
  1. toxoplasmosis
A

causes inflammation of uveal and retinal structures. treat-

328
Q
  1. prions
A

transmissible proteins that represent a threat to humans

329
Q
  1. ways to get in
A
  • airborne droplets (sneezing)
330
Q

contact with mi-

A
  • direct-contact transmission (human to human contact)
331
Q

croorganisms?

A
  • indirect contact transmission (received from an inani-
332
Q
  1. universal pre-
A

wear gloves, wash hands, wear masks, wear gowns,

333
Q

cautions

A

clean spills properly, sterilize everything

334
Q
  1. disinfection
A

inactivating or eliminating most disease-causing microor-

335
Q
  1. germicide
A

chemical that kills germs

336
Q
  1. sterilization
A

killing of all living microorganisms

337
Q
  1. autoclave
A

uses steam under high pressure to kill microorganisms

338
Q
  1. empiric treat-
A

choosing an antibiotic with a broad spectrum of activity

339
Q

ment

A

that is capable of destroying a wide range of bacteria

340
Q
  1. comprehensive
A
  1. history
341
Q

medical eye

A
  1. examination and testing
342
Q

examination 3

A
  1. evaluation of the findings and establishment of a diag-
343
Q

major parts

A

nosis/plan

344
Q
  1. visual acuity
A

measure the patient’s ability to see fine detail.

345
Q
  1. alignment and
A

H movement.

346
Q
  1. pupillary exami-
A

swinging light test

347
Q
  1. visual field ex-
A

tests peripheral vision

348
Q
  1. tonometry
A

measuring the patients intraocular pressure

349
Q
  1. external exami-
A

typically done by the ophthalmologist. includes examin-

350
Q

nation

A

ing the patients eyelids, lashes, and visible parts of the

351
Q
  1. biomicroscope
A

(slit lamp) consists of a microscope of low magnifying

352
Q
  1. ophthalmoscope
A

doctor uses it to examine the inside of the eye. The vitre-

353
Q
  1. asymptomatic
A

no noticeable symptoms

354
Q
  1. 3 reasons to get
A
  1. eye diseases may be present but exist with no notice-
355
Q

an eye examina-

A

able symptoms

356
Q

tion

A
  1. assessment of overall ocular health can be an impor-
357
Q
  1. chief complaint
A

(patients own words and placed in quotes) is the main

358
Q
  1. History page and
A
  • chief complaint
359
Q

areas to make

A
  • past ocular history
360
Q

sure you hit

A
  • general medical and social history (present to past)
361
Q
  1. snellen acuity
A

primary acuity test performed. (big E chart)

362
Q
  1. at what distance
A

20 feet

363
Q
  1. pinhole occluder
A

pinhole allows only parallel rays of light, which do not

364
Q
  1. near visual acu-
A

testing vision at normal reading distance

365
Q
  1. suppression
A

ignoring one eyes visual input. used for children born with

366
Q
  1. cardinal posi-
A

-left

367
Q

tions of gaze

A

-left and up

368
Q
  1. worth 4-dot test
A

three different outcomes

369
Q
  1. titmus stereop-
A

determines whether the patient has fine depth perception

370
Q

sis test

A

and quantifies it in terms of binocular cooperation

371
Q
  1. swinging-light
A

tests for a direct and consensual pupillary reaction.

372
Q

test

A

(checks for APD)

373
Q
  1. amsler grid test
A

used for AMD patients

374
Q
  1. confrontational
A

compares the boundaries of the patient’s field of vision

375
Q

field test

A

with that of the examiner, who is presumed to have a

376
Q
  1. goldmann appla-
A

(on the slit lamp)

377
Q
  1. indentation
A

determines the intraocular pressure by measuring the

378
Q

tonometry

A

indentation of the cornea produced by a weight of a given

379
Q
  1. inditation vs ap-
A

the goldmann and schiotz test both assume normal

380
Q

planation tonom-

A

corneal curvature, but the inentation technique assumes

381
Q

etry

A

that scleral rigidity (resistance to stretching) is normal

382
Q
  1. flashlight test
A

determines the depth of the anterior chamber and the

383
Q
  1. hruby lens
A

the lens attached to the slit lamp for the doctors (-55 D)

384
Q
  1. goniolens
A

a mirrored contact lens that the doctor can use to see the

385
Q
  1. direct vs indirect
A

the direct is handheld

386
Q

opthalmoscope

A

the indirect is worn on the head

387
Q
  1. color vision tests
A

pseudoisochromatic color plates, 15 hue test

388
Q
  1. schirmer test
A

tear output test

389
Q
  1. exophthalmome-
A

measures the prominence of the eyeball in relation to the

390
Q

try

A

bony orbital rim surrounding it.

391
Q
  1. Hippus
A

normal brief oscillations of pupil size in response to light

392
Q
  1. Swinging flash-
A

Test used for detecting relative afferent pupillary defect

393
Q
  1. mydriasis
A

pupil dilation

394
Q
  1. anisocoria
A

unequal pupil size

395
Q
  1. pupillometry
A

Measure of the pupil diameters in various light conditions

396
Q
  1. Consensual
A

refers to constriction of both pupils in response to light

397
Q

pupillary

A

entering left or right pupil only

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