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COA Flashcards

1
Q

A patient’s history of pain and low vision could be attributed to
a. acute glaucoma
b. Strabismus
c. stroke
d. subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

a. Acute Glaucoma

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2
Q

Which of the following is a symptom?
a. Flakes on the lashes
b. Flashes of light
c. Red eye
d. Swollen Lid

A

b. Flashes of light

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3
Q

Under what heading should the onset of current symptoms be recorded:
a. Current medications
b. Past history
c. Physical signs
d. Present illness

A

d. Present illness

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4
Q

What is a contraindication to contact lens wear?
a. Seizure disorders
b. Strabismus as a child
c. High blood pressure
d. Cataracts

A

a. Seizure disorders

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5
Q

Which is the main reason for the patient’s visit to the ophthalmologist recorded?
a. Chief complaint
b. Family history
c. Past medical history
d. Past ocular history

A

a. Chief complaint

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6
Q

Which is a probable cause of blurred distance vision that is improved by squinting?
a. Esotropia
b. Glaucoma
c. Uncorrected myopia
d. Uncorrected Presbyopia

A

c. Uncorrected myopia

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7
Q

Which of the following equivalence is correct?
a. 5/200 is equivalent to 20/400
b. 6/60 is equivalent to 3/120
c. 10/200 is equivalent to 20/100
d. 20/200 is equivalent to 10/100

A

d. 20/200 is equivalent to 10/100

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8
Q

Which of the following is a measure of distance of visual acuity?
a. 20/20
b. 40 arc seconds
c. D-15
d. Jaeuger 2

A

a. 20/20

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9
Q

20/60 visual acuity means the patient sees a test object at:
a. 6 meters that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 20 feet
b. 20 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 60 feet
c. 20 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 60 meters
d. 60 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 20 feet

A

b. 20 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 60 feet

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10
Q

An effective means of estimating visual acuity in infants would be to use
a. an amblyoscope
b. preferential looking
c. prism bars
d. a Snellen chart

A

b. preferential looking

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11
Q

In an industrial injury, in which the patient complains of a foreign body sensation, a 20/60 vision is records by the assistant. What is the next step the assistant should take?
a. instill a fluorescein dye
b. Patch the eye
c. Return the patient to the waiting room
d. Try a pinhole test to see if vision will improve

A

d. Try a pinhole test to see if vision will improve

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12
Q

What is the central field of vision?
a. A 10 degree area of vision around the macula
b. A 25-30 degree area of vision around the blind spot
c. A 25-30 degree area of vision around the fixation point
d. The area where the visual fields of the two eyes overlap

A

c. A 25-30 degree area of vision around the fixation point

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13
Q

Which of the following is the BEST method for kinetic testing of the central visual field?
a. Amsler grid
b. Confrontation testing
c. Harrington-Flocks screener
d. Tangent screen

A

d. Tangent Screen

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14
Q

If a lesion is more anterior and is located toward one side, that may affect the junctional area involving the optic nerve of one eye and the inferior nasal fibers of the other eye. The eye on the side of the lesion will have what type of optic defect?
a. Bjerrum scotoma
b. Central scotoma
c. Centrocecal scotoma
d. Pericentral scotoma

A

b. Central scotoma

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15
Q

The autoplot tangent screen measures the
a. supra threshold kinetic field
b. supra threshold static field
c. threshold kinetic field
d. threshold static field of vision

A

a. supra threshold kinetic field

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16
Q

Marcus-Gunn pupil
a. has diminished pupil reaction to light
b. is fixed and dilated
c. responds slowly to light
d. shows asymptomatic anisocoria

A

a. has diminished pupil reaction to light

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17
Q

When performing the swinging flashlight test on a patient with a relative afferent pupillary defect (Marcus-Gunn pupil) in the left eye, the expected findings would be a(n)
a. constriction of both pupils with direct light OD and dilation of both pupils when the light “swings” to OS
b. constriction of both pupils with direct light OD and hippus movement when the light “swings” to OS
c. constriction of both pupils when the light “swings” to OD
d. initial dilation followed by constriction with direct light OD and total dilation OU when the light “swings” to OS

A

a. constriction of both pupils with direct light OD and dilation of both pupils when the light “swings” to OS

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18
Q

Shining a bright light into one eye normally causes both pupils to constrict equally. The pupillary reaction in the illuminated eye is called
a. indirect light reflex
b. consensual light reflex
c. direct light reflex
d. near light reflex

A

c. direct light reflex

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19
Q

What is the MAIN advantage of the applanation tonometer compared with the indentation tonometer?
a. applanation is a more modern technique
b. applanation tonometry causes less patient discomfort
c. it is more accurate
d. the intraocular pressure change is larger as compared to indentation

A

c. it is more accurate

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20
Q

In Applanation tonometry, excessive width of the mires can indicate
a. improper alignment of the prism
b. need for recalibration of instrument
c. too little fluorescein
d. too much fluorescein

A

d. too much fluorescein

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21
Q

What drug is used during tonometry to anesthetize the eye
a. proparacaine
b. paredrine
c. phenylephrine
d. tropicamide

A

a. proparacaine

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22
Q

Killing of the HIV and other viruses on the applanation prism is BEST accomplished by soaking in
a. diluted betadine
b. gentamycin solution
c. isopropyl alcohol
d. sodium hypochlorite (Chlorine bleach)

A

d. sodium hypochlorite (Chlorine bleach)

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23
Q

What type of corneal astigmatism does a keratometry reading of 42.25/44.75 x 90 indicate?
a. none
b. oblique
c. with-the-rule
d. against-the-rule

A

c. with-the-rule.

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24
Q

The purpose of keratometry is to measure the
a. thickness of corneal stroma
b. curvature of the anterior corneal surface
c. diameter of horizontal cornea
d. diameter of vertical cornea

A

b. curvature of the anterior corneal surface

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25
Q

What examination distinguishes a constant tropia from an intermittent tropia?
a. the alternating cover test with prism
b. the cover-uncover test
c. the Krimsky test
d. the Hirschberg test

A

b. the cover-uncover test

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26
Q

What is the best way to perform the Worth 4-Dot test on a child?
a. tell the child there are four lights and ask which colors they see
b. tell the child to alternately close one eye and the other
c. ask which color the child sees
d. give the child the flashlight before they put the glasses on

A

c. ask which color the child sees

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27
Q

Stereoacuity testing is indicated if a patient has
a. retinitis
b. a phoria
c. a chalazion
d. hyperplasia

A

b. a phoria

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28
Q

Evaluating the range and symmetry of motion of both eyes together is known as
a. ductions
b. versions
c. phorias
d. tropias

A

d. versions

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29
Q

A patient’s prescription from a referring doctor is written in minus cylinder notation, while your ophthalmologist works in plus cylinder. Transpose the following prescriptions: +2.25 -0.75 x 165; +3.75 -1.25 x 03.
a. +1.50 +0.75 x 75; +2.50 + 1.25 x 93
b. +1.50 +0.75 x 165; +2.50 + 1.25 x 03
c. +1.50 -0.75 x 165; +2.50 -1.25 x 03
d. -1.50 +0.75 x 75; -3.75 +1.25 x 93

A

a. +1.50 +0.75 x 75; +2.50 + 1.25 x 93

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30
Q

On the back of the frame are a few figures such as 46 x 22. What do these numbers represent?
a. bridge and lens size
b. pupillary distance and segment height
c. lens and bridge size
d. segment height and pupillary distance

A

c. lens and bridge size

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31
Q

What is the ONLY accurate method for measuring pupillary distance?
a. pupil gauge
b. light reflex method
c. ruler
d. dark reflex method

A

b. light reflex method

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32
Q

Visual acuity of 6/12 is equivalent to
a. 20/20
b. 20/30
c. 20/40
d. 20/50

A

c. 20/40

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33
Q

What is the principle reason for the routine preference of subjective over objective refraction?
a. automated retinoscopy systems make refraction efficient
b. Jackson’s cross cylinder is easy to use
c. Sphero-cylinder evaluation is easy
d. The patient’s preference is considered in the process

A

d. The patient’s preference is considered in the process

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34
Q

The fact that most glasses have a downward tilt to minimize oblique astigmatism is called
a. interpupillary distance
b. pantoscopic tilt (or angle)
c. oblique astigmatism
d. image displacement

A

b. pantoscopic tilt (or angle)

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35
Q

What is the result of a loss of accommodation?
a. myopia
b. hyperopia
c. presbyopia
d. amblyopia

A

c. presbyopia

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36
Q

What is the ocular structure with the greatest refractive power?
a. cornea
b. lens
c. pupil
d. retina

A

a. cornea

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37
Q

Axial length is provided by which measurement?
a. precorneal tear film to the posterior vitreous face
b. anterior corneal surface to the macula
c. anterior corneal surface to the optic disc
d. anterior pole to the posterior pole

A

b. anterior corneal surface to the macula

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38
Q

How are ultrasound biometric measurements obtained?
a. the anterior lens spike should be lower than posterior lens spike
b. the patient must have good vision
c. the probe should be aligned along the visual axis of the eye
d. the biometrist must press firmly on the globe

A

c. the probe should be aligned along the visual axis of the eye

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39
Q

What A-scan measurement is MOST important in determining intraocular lens (IOL) power?
a. corneal curvature
b. anterior chamber depth
c. lens thickness
d. axial length

A

d. axial length

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40
Q

Axial length measurements should be rechecked if there is a difference between the two eyes of more than
a. 0.1 mm
b. 0.3 mm
c. 1mm
d. 3mm

A

b. 0.3mm

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41
Q

Schirmer testing is frequently used for a patient who is considering
a. new spectacles
b. cataract surgery
c. contact lenses
d. muscle recession

A

c. contact lenses

42
Q

Titmus testing evaluates steropsis by assessing if certain portions of the images are
a. elevated
b. darker
c. clear
d. not visible

A

a. elevated

43
Q

Which of the following organisms is MOST likely to cause a dendritic corneal ulcer?
a. Adenovirus
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. pneumococcus
d. staphylococcus aureus

A

b. Herpes simplex virus

44
Q

What is the MOST prevalent cell type in a scraping from allergic conjunctivitis?
a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils

A

b. eosinophils

45
Q

Which of the following stains is useful for determining the inflammatory cellular response to a particular agent?
a. Giemsa’s
b. Gram’s
c. Sabouraud’s
d. Safranin’s

A

a. Giemsa’s

46
Q

What is an important factor in the delivery of eye medications?
a. instilling extra drops of medication at the same time
b. massaging the tear duct before using drops
c. the person who is administering the drops
d. prolonging medication contact time with the eye

A

d. prolonging medication contact time with the eye

47
Q

Which of the following modes of drug delivery involves placing the drug directly on the surface of the eye?
a. periocular
b. sub-tenon’s
c. subcutaneous
d. topical

A

d. topical

48
Q

Patients most commonly cite which systemic drug as producing an allergic or bad reaction?
a. acetaminophen
b. ampicillin
c. tetracycline
d. tobramycin

A

b. ampicillin

49
Q

How soon should aspirin and other blood thinners be discontinued prior to cataract surgery?
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks

A

a. 1 week

50
Q

For which of the following in-office minor surgeries might an ophthalmologist ask that the operative site be prepped with topical 5% povidone-iodine?
a. chalazion excision
b. corneal debridement
c. foreign body removal
d. canaliculus repair

A

a. chalazion excision

51
Q

The ophthalmologist ask for the room and equipment to be prepared for a patient who will undergo a minor procedure. What may be the procedure that is going to be performed if electrolysis has been selected as the preferred treatment?
a. trichiasis
b. chalazion excision
c. skin tumor removal
d. conjunctival lesion removal

A

a. trichiasis

52
Q

An ophthalmologist asks you to educate a patient on cataract sugery with intraocular lens placement. Which of the following is correct?
a. a cataract is a film that grows over the eye
b. an implant replaces the eye’s crystalline lens
c. a cataract results from increased intraocular pressure
d. an implant periodically needs to be removed and cleaned

A

b. an implant replaces the eye’s crystalline lens

53
Q

Which structure secretes aqueous fluid and serves as an attachment site for zonules?
a. ciliary processes
b. iris root
c. lens capsule
d. ora serrata

A

a. ciliary processes

54
Q

A condition in which blood has settled in the bottom half of the anterior chamber of the eye is called a(n)
a. erythema
b. hematoma
c. hyphema
d. hypopyon

A

c. hyphema

55
Q

A person with a fold of skin overlying the nasal area of the eye lids has
a. blepharochalasis
b. entropion
c. epicanthus
d. lagophthalmos

A

c. epicanthus

56
Q

Aqueous humor drains out into the
a. Canal of Schlemm
b. ciliary body
c. iris
d. uveal tract

A

a. Canal of Schlemm

57
Q

A parent calls to say their child has been hit in the eye with a rock from a sling shot. You advise the parent to
a. bring the child to the office immediately
b. give the child a mild analgesic for pain
c. patch the eye tightly to stop the bleeding
d. pry the lids open to check the eye

A

a. bring the child to the office immediately

58
Q

Inflammation of the tear sac associated with fault tear drainage is
a. trichiasis
b. blepharitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. dacryocystitis

A

d. dacryocystitis

59
Q

Which of the following is NOT normally considered in the differential diagnosis of an inflamed, red eye
a. acute conjunctivitis
b. keratitis
c. dacrycystitis
d. acute iritis

A

c. dacryocystitis

60
Q

Which of the following organisms is likely to cause a corneal ulcer?
a. Adenovirus
b. pnuemococcus
c. herpes simplex virus
d. staphylococcus aureus

A

c. herpes simplex virus

61
Q

In which of the following ocular conditions is the direction of gaze a factor in intraocular pressure determination?
a. chronic angle glaucoma
b. thyroid ophthalmopathy
c. centrail retinal vein occlusion
d. iritis with secondary glaucoma

A

b. thyroid ophthalmopathy

62
Q

What eye disorder reveals a constricted pupil and keratic precipates?
a. iritis
b. conjuntivia
c. episcleritis
d. keratoconus

A

a. iritis

63
Q

The swelling of the optic nerve with engorged blood vessels is known as
a. papilledema
b. enophthalmitis
c. optic nerve compression
d. anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

A

a. papilledema

64
Q

Which organ is included in the cardiovascular system?
a. heart
b. lungs
c. brain
d. kidneys

A

a. heart

65
Q

A non-contact lens used to exam the macula is a
a. goniolens
b. Hruby lens
c. Koeppe lens
d. Maddox lens

A

b. Hruby lens

66
Q

Which of the following MOST likely to cause diplopia in a patient only when wearing spectacles?
a. high minus lenses
b. high plus lenses
c. improper centering of the lenses
d. larger frames

A

c. improper centering of the lenses

67
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with epidemic keratoconjunctivitis(EKC). The MOST effective role Allied Ophthalmic Personnel (AOP) can take in preventing the spread of EKC is to
a. identify carriers of the disease
b. treat all those infected with sulfacetamide drops
c. wash hands and disinfect all ophthalmic instruments
d. wear disposable gloves when coming in contact with all patients

A

c. wash hands and disinfect all ophthalmic instruments

68
Q

Which of the conditions listed below may be characterized by a white pupillary reflex in a pediatric patient?
a. choroidal nevus
b. congenital glaucoma
c. iris coloboma
d. retinoblastoma

A

d. retinoblastoma

69
Q

Color deficient individuals can be
a. denied a driver’s license
b. aided through drug therapy
c. detected by visual field examination
d. disqualified from certain occupations

A

d. disqualified from certain occupations

70
Q

The three color receptors found in cones are
a. blue, green, yellow
b. red, blue, green
c. red, green, yellow
d, red, yellow, blue

A

b. red, blue, green

71
Q

If an ophthalmologist states a patient’s condition is “OU” this means the condition is present in
a. neither eye
b. the left eye
c. the right eye
d. both eyes

A

d. both eyes

72
Q

Scattered light rays produce which visual phenomenon?
a. diplopia
b. glare
c. photopsia
d. metamorphosia

A

b. glare

73
Q

Color vision defects may be
a. refractive
b. subjective
c. congenital or inherited
d. more common in women

A

c. congenital or inherited

74
Q

A latent deviation that can only be observed when binocular fusion is disrupted is called a(n)
a. tropia
b. hemianopia
c. phoria
d. ametropia

A

c. phoria

75
Q

Axial length in IOL formulas refers to the distance from the
a. cornea to the iris
b. cornea to the lens
c. lens to the retina
d. cornea to the retina

A

d. cornea to the retina

76
Q

The name of oil secreting glands found in the posterior margin of the eyelid is the
a. gland of Moll
b. gland of Wolfring
c. lacrimal gland
d. Meibomian gland

A

d. Meibomian gland

77
Q

What is the name of the condition where both the globe and the ocular tissue are missing?
a. anophthalmia
b. anisocoria
c. buphtalmos
d. cytinosis

A

a. anophthalmia

78
Q

Evisceration is the
a. surgical removal of the globe
b. abnormal turning of the eye outward
c. tendency of the eye to turn inward
d. turning outward of the eyelid

A

a. surgical removal of the globe

79
Q

What is the name of the condition where a fibrovascular growth forms from the conjunctiva to a portion of the cornea?
a. pterygium
b. pinguecula
c. exteration
d. entropion

A

a. pterygium

80
Q

Enucleation is the
a. inflammation of the ciliary body
b. complete or partial separation of the retina from choroid
c. complete surgical removal of the eyeball
d. aberration of rays of lights

A

c. complete surgical removal of the eyeball

81
Q

The strength of the middle segment in a trifocal lens is
a. -1.00D weaker than the reading segment add
b. 50% of the strength of the reading segment add
c. difficult to measure
d. stronger in magnification than the reading segment add

A

b. 50% of the strength of the reading segment add

82
Q

Which of the following properly represents the steps used to convert a spherocylindrical lens into its spherical equivalent?
a. divide the spherical power in half; then add the cylindrical power
b. add the spherical and cylinder power; then divide by 2
c. divide the cylinder power in half; then add the spherical power
d. divide the cylinder power in half; then subtract the spherical power

A

c. divide the cylinder power in half; then add the spherical power

83
Q

Spectacle blur is unclear vision associated with
a. changing from an old spectacle prescription to a new one
b. changing from contacts to spectacles
c. changing from spectacles to contacts
d. spasm of accommodation

A

b. changing from contacts to spectacles

84
Q

Changing the base curve or a contact lens changes the fitting characteristics of that lens due to a change in sagittal depth. Increasing the base curve radius of a contact lens while maintaining the same diameter will cause the lens to fit
a. steeper and tighter
b. flatter and looser
c. higher and tighter
d. lower and looser

A

b. flatter and looser

85
Q

**A B C
—___–__-__________—--_
What ocular tissue does the A-scan spike labeled A and B represent?
a. cornea
b. lens
c. retina
d. sclera

A

b. lens

86
Q

Which ocular tissue produces A-scan spikes?
a. lens
b. choroid
c. optic disc
d. vitreous

A

a. lens

87
Q

Advances in digital imaging technology faciliated the practical use of what type of dye?
a. trypan blue
b. rose bengal
c. indocyanine green
d. gentian violet

A

c. indocyanine green

88
Q

What is the condition where parallel rays of light come to focus at a point just in front of the retina with respect to unaccommodated eye?
a. myopia
b. cycloplegia
c. hyperopia
d. hyperopia with astigmatism

A

a. myopia

89
Q

What is the purpose of dilating the eye?
a. help increase aqueous outflow
b. anesthetize the eye
c. allow a more complete posterior segment exam
d. stimulate accommodation

A

c. allow a more complete posterior segment exam

90
Q

To photograph the posterior pole, the center of focus is
a. the macula
b. the optic disc
c. between the macula and the optic disc
d. between the optic disc and the nasal arcades

A

c. between the macula and the optic disc

91
Q

What is first seen (recorded) in fluorescein angiography?
a. arterial phase
b. capillary phase
c. choroidal flush
d. venous phase

A

c. choroidal flush

92
Q

A fluorescein angiography is used for which of the following?
a. counting epithelial cells
b. measuring the eye’s contrast sensitivity
c. viewing in detail, such a blockages in fundus blood vessels
d. estimating the cornea’s ability to withstand stress in operation

A

c. viewing in detail, such a blockages in fundus blood vessels

93
Q

The three principle types of ophthalmic imaging are
a. specular, pachymetry, and contrast sensitivity
b. external, slit lamp, fundus
c. slit lamp, pachymetry, and ultrasonography
d. contrast sensitivity, viewing blockages, viewing vessels

A

b. external, slit lamp, fundus

94
Q

Retroillumination detects
a. opacities or defects in the iris
b. irregularities of the eyelids and eyelashes
c. the palperal conjunctiva or sclera
d. adverse corneal affects from CLs

A

a. opacities or defects in the iris

95
Q

Health care professionals who have open lesions, dermatitis, or other skin irritations should not participate in direct patient care activities or handle
a. contaminated equipment
b. gowns and masks
c. sealed instruments
d. disposable gloves

A

a. contaminated equipment

96
Q

Why should laminated acuity projector slides NOT be cleaned under running water?
a. retained moisture might short out the projector
b. the letters, numerals, and/or characters will be washed off the slide
c. the specially heated glass of the projector slide will lose its heat-resistant properties
d. water beads can pool between the two layers of glass

A

d. water beads can pool between the two layers of glass

97
Q

The application of coding facilitates the processing of insurance claims. The assigned code as it refers to procedures and services must be support by
a. all billing practicies
b. the medical records
c. the policies and procedures manual
d. the length of time the appointment took

A

b. the medical records

98
Q

Obtaining informed consent for a procedure
a. is having the patient sign a consent form
b. begins at the preoperative visit
c. is not needed if the procedure is medically necessary
d. is a process involving education of the patient

A

d. is a process involving education of the patient

99
Q

The principles that dictate what is appropriate and inappropriate behaviors are
a. ethics
b. decency
c. morality
d. standards

A

a. ethics

100
Q

Informed consent occurs
a. when the patient signs consent forms
b. when the patient acknowledges understanding of the treatment recommended
c. as a process of patient education and participation in the decision-making process with documentation in record of consent to treat
d. when a reasonable patient verbally agrees to the recommended treatment

A

c. as a process of patient education and participation in the decision-making process with documentation in record of consent to treat

COA (1 decks)

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