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CMT1 > CMT Theory > Flashcards

CMT Theory Flashcards

1
Q

Aims of first aid (3)

A

To save life
Promote recovery
Prevent pain getting worse

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2
Q

Chain of survival (4)

A

Early recognition
Early CPR
Early defibrillation
Post-resus care

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3
Q

PHC entitlement armed forces

A

Serving members
FTRS
Servicepersons family

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4
Q

FoI and confidentiality year

A

2000

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5
Q

Right to know came into force:

A

2005

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6
Q

How many days do you have to respond to an FoI request

A

20

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7
Q

8 principles of data protection

A

Fair and lawful
Adequate and relevant
Not kept longer than necessary
Processed in accordance with individual
Accurate
Not transferred outside EU
Secure

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8
Q

Caldicott principles

A

Principle 1: justify the purpose(s) for using confidential information.
Principle 2: use confidential information only when it is necessary.
Principle 3: use the minimum necessary confidential information.
Principle 4: access to confidential information should be on a strict need-to-know basis.
Principle 5: everyone with access to confidential information should be aware of their responsibilities.
Principle 6: comply with the law.
Principle 7: the duty to share information for individual care is as important as the duty to protect patient confidentiality.
Principle 8: inform patients and services users about how their confidential information is used and what choice they have. There should be no surprises.

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9
Q

FMED5

A

Attendance and treatment card

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10
Q

FMED 965

A

Operational medical record Vaccines -> for deployed soldiers

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11
Q

FMED 7

A

Referral form for routine admission to medical facility

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12
Q

FMED10

A

In patient case sheet

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13
Q

FMED 152

A

Drug record

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14
Q

Vaccinations:
What training must be carried out

A

Anaphylaxis training yearly
Training requirements met every 3 years

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15
Q

What temp should vaccinations be stored at

A

2-8 degrees celcius

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16
Q

Core vaccinations

A

Hepatitis A, B
Meningitis ACWY
MMR
DTP
HPV
Influenza
Yellow fever
Varicella

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17
Q

High risk (travel) vaccinations

A

Japanese encephalitis
Typhoid
Rabies
Tick-borne encephalitis
Anthrax
Cholera
Influenza
Pneumococcal

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18
Q

Occupational health vaccines

A

Hepatitis B
Rubella
Varicella
TB

These are essential for health workers

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19
Q

How long do live viruses vaccine inoculations need as a gap:

A

4 weeks

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20
Q

Where to record vaccination delivery

A

FMED4

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21
Q

Spectacles prescription FMED

A

FMED79
MOD form 1003

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22
Q

Can CMTs ‘bed down’ a soldier without MO referral

A

NO

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23
Q

Inappropriate admissions to bedding down facility

A

Head injuries
Acute to major trauma
Un-diagnosed abdominal pain
Chest pain
Intoxicated or aggressive patients

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24
Q

Minor surgery form

A

FMED 660/661

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25
Q

Types of sample

A

Eyes
Nose
Peri-nasal
sputum
Throat
Ear
Wound
Urine
Semen

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26
Q

Types of investigations

A

Bacterial - urine
Viral - virus
Serological - plasma
Mycosis - fungal disease
Mycobacterial
Protozoa
Blood

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27
Q

Factors affecting pulse rate

A

Level of arousal
Anxiety
Circulation of chemicals
Gender
Age
Temperature
Disease

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28
Q

JMES

A

Joint medical employment standards

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29
Q

Recording of PULHHEEMS FMED

A

FMED 23

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30
Q

Levels of command - Gold (OC)

A

Overall command and has ultimate command over incident

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31
Q

Levels of command (silver)

A

CSM PLT CMDR
co-ordinates tactical situation during the incident

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32
Q

Levels of command bronze

A

Deals with direct tasks set by the silver commander

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33
Q

Appendix 9

A

Form for notifying medical/functional restrictions to unit

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34
Q

FMEDs required for termination of service

A

F/MED/1, F/Med/133

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35
Q

Healthcare assurance framework domains

A

Safe
Effective
Caring
Responsive
Well led

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36
Q

Contraindications to intubation

A

Conscious patients
Trismus

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37
Q

Difficult intubation

A

Trauma
Pre-existing disease
Head/neck shape

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38
Q

Indications for surgical airway

A

total upper airway obstruction
Conscious casualty
Trauma to face and neck

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39
Q

Complications of tracheostomy

A

Damage to the carotid arteries
Bleeding
Asphyxia
Aspiration of blood
Laceration of oesophagus

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40
Q

RISE N FALL

A

Rate
Injuries
Symmetry
Effort

Neck (TWELVE)

Feel
Assess resonance
Listen to both sides
Look

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41
Q

Triage sort: 3 components
and scoring

A

BP
RR
GCS

Out of 12

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42
Q

Mass casualty definition

A

When number of casualties temporarily overwhelms medical and logistic capabilities

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43
Q

complications of drowning

A

Hypothermia
Prolonged immersion

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44
Q

Causes of anaphylaxis

A

Certain drugs
Blood transfusion
Foods
Bites
Stings

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45
Q

Asthma categories (3)

A

Mild
Severe
Life threatening

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46
Q

Moderate asthma criteria

A

Increasing symptoms
50-75% best PEF

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47
Q

Acute severe Asthma

A

PEF 33-50% predicted
RR >25
HR> 110
Inability to complete sentences in one breath

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48
Q

Life threatening asthma criteria

A

PEF <33%
SpO2 < 92%
Silent chest
Hypotension
Etc.

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49
Q

Acute poisoning - opiates
Signs and symptoms

A

Nausea
Seizures
AVPU
Euphoria
Pinpoint pupils
Reduced respiratory rate
Coma

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50
Q

Types of thoracocentesis

A

Needle
Tube

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51
Q

Complications of thoracocentesis

A

Local haematoma
Local infection
Pneumothorax

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52
Q

Tube thoracocentesis indications

A

Massive haemothorax
Haemothorax
Pneumothorax

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53
Q

Tube thoracocentesis post-procedure

A

Monitor and record fluid drained on FMED 100
Change bag as instructed
Monitor tube for blockage

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54
Q

Complications of tube thoracocentesis

A

Blocke/kincked chest tube
Dislodged chest tube
haematoma
Local or pleural infection
Incorrect tube placement
Damage to intra-thoracic organs

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55
Q

Manual handling legal framework

A

Health and safety at work 1974
Manual handling of operations 1992
Management of health and safety 1999

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56
Q

Types of wound

A

Laceration
Incision
Impalement
Puncture
Abrasion
Burn
GSW
External haemorrhages

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57
Q

Signs of internal haemorrhage

A

Increase in pulse rate
Swelling over site
Tenderness on touch
Distension

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58
Q

Typical blood loss: femoral fracture

A

Closed femoral fracture: 1.5 L

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59
Q

Haemothorax blood loss

A

up to 2L each side of chest

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60
Q

Fractured pelvis blood loss

A

3L plus

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61
Q

Fractured rib blood loss

A

150 ml

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62
Q

Reasons for NBM following haemorrhage

A

Those requiring surgery
Large abdominal injury
Active vomiting

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63
Q

IO contraindications

A

Fractures
Infections
osteoporosis

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64
Q

Types of IO: colours

A

Pink for paeds
Blue for small adults and (tibia)
Yellow for humeral head

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65
Q

What does RIDDOR stand for

A

Reporting
Injuries
Diseases
Dangerous
Occurences
Regulation

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66
Q

When must an accident be reported

A

within 10 consecutive days (deaths reported immediately)

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67
Q

JSP for accident reporting

A

JSP 375

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68
Q

Types of accident

A

Accident - an injury which is RIDDOR reportable
Incident event - causing damage to equipment
Near miss - harm could have been caused

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69
Q

Normal temperature:
Low grade pyrexia:
High grade pyrexia:
Hyperpyrexia

A

Normal temperature: 36-37.5
Low grade pyrexia: 37.5-38
High grade pyrexia: 38-40
Hyperpyrexia >40

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70
Q

What does PEFR stand for

A

Peak expiratory flow rate

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71
Q

Values for hypertension

A

Sustained systolic pressure >160 mmHg
Diastolic pressure >100 mmHg

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72
Q

Size of igel for adults

A

3 or 4

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73
Q

Indications of catheterisation

A

Monitor fluid balance
Urinary retention
Urinary incontinence causing skin sores
Post-anaesthetic
Head injury

74
Q

Childbirth: treatment aims

Mother

Baby

A

Mother
prevent infection
Prevent trauma
relieve pain

Baby
resuscitate
prevent trauma
maintain body heat

75
Q

First stage of labour

A

regular, rhythmic contractions to full dilation of cervix (10cm)

76
Q

Second stage of labour:

A

Full dilation of cervix to complete delivery of baby

77
Q

Third stage of labour

A

Birth of the baby to complete expulsion of the placenta and membranes

78
Q

Acute stress reaction: 3 symptoms cluster

A

Re-experiencing
Avoidance
Arousal

79
Q

7 Rs of operational stress

A

Recognition - of reaction
Respite - from worst of the fighting
Rest
Recall - their tales
Reassurance - reaction is normal
Rehab - keep in role
Return to duty

80
Q

PIES: operational stress

A

Proximity - as close to the front line as possible
Immediacy - asap
Expectancy - they will return to duty
Simplicity - utilising the 7Rs

81
Q

Types of burns

A

Thermal (hot wet and dry)
Electrical
Chemicals
Radiation
Friction

82
Q

Three depth of burns

A

Superficial
Partial
Full thickness

83
Q

Burn management

A

Apply clingfilm
Leave facial burns uncovered
Pace extremities in burns bag
Treat for shock

84
Q

Treatment of smoke inhalation

A

Maintain airway and give humidified oxygen
Bronchospasm
Nebulised medication

85
Q

Four stages of shock

A

Initial
Compensatory
Progressive
Refractory

86
Q

Two types of seizures

A

Partial seizure
Generalised seizure

87
Q

Management of poisoning

A

Initial assessment and primary survey
Give antidote if available or cause known
Evacuate and take any evidence of the poison with you

88
Q

Snake bite and scorpion stings tx.

A

pressure immobilisation
Splint limb
Gain IV access
Arrange transfer
If respiratory distress, give oxygen

89
Q

Hypoglycaemia level

A

<4 mmols

90
Q

Management of hypoglycaemia

A

Ascertain levels of consciousness
ABC stable
Recovery position
Initial assessment and primary survey
Rapid evacuation

91
Q

Head injuries
Classification (3)

A

Scalp wounds
Skull fractures
Brain injuries

92
Q

Basal skull fractures signs

A

Perioribtial haematoma - raccon eyes
Bruising over mastoid - battle signs

93
Q

Brain injuries:

A

Subdural haematoma
Extradural haematoma
SA haemorrhage

94
Q

Signs of increased ICP

A

Hypertension and bradycardia
Abnormal breathing
Abnormal posturing

95
Q

Levels of increased ICP: 3

A

Ventilation become ataxic
Single or both pupils dilated or fixed
Casualty becomes flaccid
BP drops, pulse rapid

96
Q

Increased ICP: Level 1

A

BP RISE
Pupils may constrict but react
Posturing - decorticate

Usually reversible with surgical intervention

97
Q

Increased ICP: Level 2

A

BP RISES with decreasing pulse
Pupils may become fixed
Abnormal respiratory rate
Decerebrate

98
Q

Causes of unconsciousness FISHH SHAPED

A

Fainting
Infections
Shock
Head injury
Heart attack

Stroke
Hypoxia
Abnormal body temp
Epilepsy
Diabetes

99
Q

Assessing consciousness 3

A

AVPU
PEARLA
GCS

100
Q

Scope of practice definition

A

The area of a persons profession in which they have the knowledge skills and experience to practice safely and effectively

101
Q

Code of conduct definition

A

Sets out attitudes and behaviours expected of a person

102
Q

Hazard spectrum (3)

A

Trauma/burns
Medical/toxicological
Environmental

103
Q

Principles of manual handling (5)

A

Avoid
Assess
Plan
Prepare
Perform

104
Q

Environmental health FMED for CMT

A

FMED 85

105
Q

4 broad routes of disease

A

ingestion
inhalation
vector born
contact

106
Q

Normal pregnancy length

A

40 weeks

107
Q

Scene management - tactical field care CSCATTT

A

Command and control
Safety
Communication
Assessment
Triage
Treatment
Transport

108
Q

Examples of ODP

A

Operations during peacetime
Strikes, Forest fires/ flood relief
Major incident

109
Q

Operations other than war

A

OOTW
Kenya
Cyprus
Falklands
Libya

110
Q

Communicable disease
types

A

transmitted from an infected person, animal or insect - Virus, parasites, bacteria

111
Q

Non-communicable diseases
Types

A

cannot be spread from person to person
Cancers
Genetic disorders
Psychiatric disorders

112
Q

3 link chain of infection

A

source
route
target

113
Q

Routes of infection (4)

A

Airborne
Ingestion
Contact
Arthropod

114
Q

Notification of disease FMED

A

FMED85

115
Q

Trauma death timings

A

Instantaneous - seconds to minutes
Early - minutes to hours
Late - hours to days to weeks

116
Q

RTC two types of injury

A

Down and under
Up and over

117
Q

RTC down and under potential injuries

A

Knee dislocation
Patellar fracture
Femoral fracture
Fracture/dislocation of hip
Fracture of acetabulum

118
Q

RTC up and over potential injuries

A

Rib fractures
Ruptured diaphragm
Haemo-pneumothorax
Pulmonary contusion

119
Q

Blast injury phases: (4)

A

Primary: The shock wave
Secondary: Bomb fragments and projectiles causing penetrating and blunt trauma to any part
Tertiary: blast wind
Quaternary: Flash burns and psychological

120
Q

Triage: T1

A

Immediate treatment: Those requiring life saving intervention

Airway obstruction
Accessible haemorrhage
Non-accessible haemorrhage

121
Q

Triage: T2

A

Urgent treatment:
Those needing early resuscitation and or surgery

Open fractures of long bones, large joint dislocations

122
Q

T3

A

Delayed treatment
Require treatment but longer delay is acceptable
Minor lacerations, uncomplicated fractures

123
Q

T4

A

P1 (hold)
Those with multiple injuries needing extensive treatment or with poor chance of survival

Severe head injuries, Extensive burns

124
Q

Incident report: Methane mnemonic

A

Major incident declaration
Exact location
Type of incident
Hazards
Access
Number/severity of casualties
Emergency services, present or required

125
Q

CUF: tactics 4

A

WIN THE FIRE FIGHT
Casualty to return fire where possible
CUF occurs in non-permissive environment SAFE and BIG C, A
TFC - TRaPS in semi-permissive environment
Detailed primary survey in permissive environment

126
Q

TWELVE

A

Trachea
Wounds
Emphysema
Larynx
Veins
Expose every time before collar

127
Q

How long should you apply pressure for after CELOX rapid

A

1 minute

128
Q

How many litres of blood can each lung fill up with

A

2

129
Q

Recognition of flail chest

A

MOI
Tachypnoea
Obvious wound/bruising
Reduced chest movements
Paradoxical breathing

130
Q

Types of wound (8)

A

Burn
Laceration
Puncture
GSW
Incision
Abrasion
Impalement
External haemorrhages

131
Q

Define open/compound fracture

A

Bone is fractured and protruding through overlying skin and tissue - contaminating the wound

132
Q

Complicated fracture

A

Bone ends cause injury to important structures in the body

133
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

Bone fractured into many pieces

134
Q

Internal haemorrhage check

A

Consider MoI
Pulse > 100
Fallen from height
Blast

135
Q

What can cause burns (5)

A

Thermal
Electrical
Chemicals
Radiation
Friction

136
Q

Signs of superficial burn

A

Red, swollen and tender
Self-limiting
Painful

137
Q

Signs of partial thickness burn

A

Wet visible skin loss
Broken skin
Raw skin with blisters

138
Q

Signs of full thickness burns

A

Black/white leathery appearance
Possible damage to underlying structures
Involves all layers of skin
Low pain

139
Q

WRNs -> what does the hand equate to as a percentage of body surface

A

1%

140
Q

WRNs -> What percentage is represented by:
Head and neck:
Chest and abdomen:
Back:
Arm and hand:
Leg and foot:
Genital region:

A

Head and neck: 9%
Chest and abdomen: 18%
Back: 18%
Arm and hand: 9%
Leg and foot: 18%
Genital region: 1%

141
Q

How long should burns be cooled for

A

At least 10-20 mins

142
Q

Treatment of smoke inhalation

A

Maintain airway and give humidified oxygen
Bronchospasm may occur and is treated with Nebulised salbutamol
Urgent evacuation

143
Q

Types of shock (5)

A

Cardiogenic
Hypovolaemic
Neurogenic
Anaphylactic
Septic

144
Q

FMED 767

A

Infection clearance certificate

145
Q

Medical modules: 583

A

Team medic pouch

146
Q

501 medical module

A

Primary care module

147
Q

Medical module 300

A

Treatment bay medical equipment set

148
Q

Medical module 536

A

Ambulance module

149
Q

How many days do you get out of a 583 module

A

Basic PHC for 12 personnel for 3 days
2 X trauma casualties

150
Q

584 module

A

Patrol dismounted medic

151
Q

Causes of seizures

A

Mental health - fake-shake
Battle shock
Drugs/intoxication
Hyperventilation
Hypothermia
Hypoglycaemia
Epilepsy

152
Q

How many attempts at cannulation before IO access is considered?

A

2

153
Q

2 types of IO

A

FAST IO (used in sternum only)
EZ IO

154
Q

Peak flow normal limits

A

PEFR 500-650 male
PEFR 400-500 female

155
Q

Medical centre access: When are non-urgent cases seen within:

A

one working day
Named doctor or nurse normally seven working days

156
Q

Vital signs in secondary survey

A

C
A
B - RR
C - PR
D - AVPU AND PEARL

157
Q

4 zones in secondary survey

A

Head and neck
Chest - Full RISE N FALL
Abdomen and pelvis
Long bones

158
Q

FMED 826

A

Field medical card
Prolonged field care documentation FMED

159
Q

monitoring observations: Time stamps

A

MO will indicate

But if on your own: Monitor every 15 minutes for first two hours

If stable increase to every 30 minutes for next four hours

160
Q

HITMANN mnemonic
Pre-evacuation checks

A

Head to toe examination (zone 1-4)
Infection (type wound care, dressings)
Tubes (functioning, secure?, hygiene)
Medication (analgesia, sedatives, antibiotics)
Analgesia (non-drug and drug measures)
Nutrition and hydration (input and output)
Notes and documentation

161
Q

Consent - points

A

Competent adults can refuse treatment
No-one can give consent on behalf of incompetent adult
Can withdraw consent at anytime

162
Q

complications of needle thoracocentesis

A

Local Haematoma
Local or pleural infection
Pneumothorax

163
Q

Complications of tube thoracocentesis

A

Local haematoma
Local or pleural infection
Damage to intra-thoracic organs
Dislodged chest tube
Blocked/kinked chest tube

164
Q

Stages of shock: % of blood volume lost in S1

A

<15%

165
Q

Stages of shock: % of blood volume lost in S2

A

15-30% 750-1500 mls

166
Q

Stages of shock: % of blood volume lost in S3

A

30-40%

167
Q

Stages of shock: % of blood volume lost in S4

A

> 40% >2L

168
Q

Oxygen: CD canister capacity

A

460

169
Q

Oxygen F canister capacity

A

1360

170
Q

Oxygen D canister capacity

A

340 L

171
Q

BVM with O2 at 15 L/min Oxygen delivery

A

90%

172
Q

Kendrick splint use (KTD)

A

For mid-shaft femoral fracture

173
Q

splinting aims

A

support
Immobilise
elevate
Relieve pain

174
Q

3PS of pain relief

A

Physical
Psychological
Pharmacological

175
Q

Do not use Fentanyl without MO advice

A

Abnormal breathing
Head injury
Appear drowsy

176
Q

How long is Fentanyl given over

A

15 minutes

177
Q

When can second lozenge be given

A

After 30 minutes

178
Q

Can you remove GSR to give fentanyl lozenge

A

NO

179
Q

When not to use penthrox

A

Shallow/difficulty breat

180
Q
A

CMT1 (1 decks)

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