CMP Flashcards

1
Q

The National Fire Protection Assoc. suggests dividing your Risk Plan into two catagories. What are they?

A
  1. naturally occuring hazards

2. Human caused eventts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the definition of an emergency?

A

Unexpected actual or impending situation that may cause injury, loss of life, destruction of property or cause the interference, loss or disruption of an organizations normal business operations to such an extent it poses a threat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the definition of crisis?

A

A critical event that if it isn’t handled, may effect an organization’s profitability, reputation, or ability to operate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does Commercial General Liability (CGL) Insurance cover?

A

Protects the organization’s assets, including coverage to protect the organization if someone else suffers injury or damage of property and sues the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does event cancellation insurance cover?

A

compensates the organization for revenue lost as a result of cancellatin or business interruption of event caused by an unexpected occurrence from covered peril beyond the control of the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a Worker’s Compensation?

A

a no-fault coverage protecting empoloyees who suffer an iury or illness arising out of and in the course of business. Meeting sponsors must have coverage for their employees and should make sure that suppliers have coverage for their employees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What phone numbers should be included in a written risk management plan for an event?

A

Hospital, Ambulance service, and appropriate medical and dental specialists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Risk management issues that should be addressed during site inspections does not include what?

A

conduct a full mock crisis to determine response procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is covered by a force majeure clause?

A

greater force (act of God) or event beyond the control of the party that could not complete contract obligations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cancellation fees in a contract are usually stated in terms of:

A

liquidated damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What renders an entire contract legally unenforceable?

A

if one of the signing parties does not have authorization to sign contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

__________ damages are the compensation for losses that can readily be proven to have occurred and for which the injured party has the right to be compensated.

A

Compensatory or actual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What may serve as a defense to non-performance of a contract?

A

impracticability or frustration of purpose

Explanation: both of these are a defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a dishonored reservation clause in a hotel contract?

A

it accounts for guaranteed reserved rooms the hotel does not honor and what the hotel concession should be in this case
Explanation: also known as a relocation or walk clause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Overbooking refers to:

A

hotel accepting reservations for more rooms than are available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which vendor would the meeting manager ask to provide security cameras?

A

security company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An RFP sent to security vendors should address which of the following?

A

emergency response procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is is an important characteristic of a risk management team?

A

the team includes a top executive of the organization

Explanation: at least one top executive should be on the risk management team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

As a meeting manager, you should be ready to accommodate the disabled at an event that is open to the public. Since pre-registration is rarely possible for this type of event, where should you place an ADA booth to open communication between your organization and those seeking special accommodations?

A

near the registration area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is a recommended emergency procedure in order to comply with the Americans with Disabilities Act for people with visual disabilities?
a. hallways should have a 32 inch (81.28 centimeter) width

b. at least two percent of sleeping rooms should be built with a variety of accommodating features  
c. meeting rooms should be centrally located  
d. doors leading to potentially dangerous areas should be identified with textured surfaces on the handle, knob, or pull
A

doors leading to potentially dangerous areas should be identified with textured surfaces on the handle, knob, or pull
Explanation: this is the correct accommodation (in addition, braille on such surfaces is an additional accommodation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Your organization is holding a meeting in a room with theater-style seating. Where should you allow for wheelchair accessible seating?

A

in multiple accessible locations with chairs removed, so the attendee has a choice of seats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For accessibility, hotel room sinks must be mounted at least how many inches (centimeters) from the floor, with toe clearance under the drainpipe?

A

29 inches or 73.7 centimeters

Explanation: this is the minimum height for accessibility standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

According to the ADA laws, elevators should have no more than a ______ inch gap between the floor and the platform.

A

1.25 inches or 3.2 centimeters

Explanation: the gap should be no more than this measurement for safety and accessibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For accessibility purposes, the width of single-door entrances to accommodations must be at least:

A

32 inches or 81.28 centimeters

Explanation: this is the minimum for a single-door accessible entry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a recommended ADA accommodation related to water fountains?

A

positioned for access from a wheelchair

Explanation: at least one fountain in a group of fountains should have wheelchair accessibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What accommodations are recommended for curbs, walks, and ramps for ADA compliance?

A

ramps should have tactile warning surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What kind of accommodation is recommended for service dogs used by people with disabilities?

A

adequate space for service animals to maneuver in walkways, aisles, and in seating areas is recommended
Explanation: adequate space is recommended for these working animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the best method to determine the appropriate accommodations/requirements needed for an attendee with a disability to fully participate in the meeting/event?

A

ask the person with the disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is ALD as it relates to accommodations for meeting attendees with disabilities?

A

assisted listening device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What year was the ADA created?

A

1990

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What % of the hotel sleeping rooms should be barrier free?

A

2% with atleast 1% of these having a roll in shower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the maximum height for a toilet seat to be ADA accessible?

A

29”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How many feet shoudl the approach to a building be hard surface/

A

5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the max height for a self service counter in a restaurant

A

34”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how close should ADA parking be to the building?

A

200 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how many designated ADA spaces in a parking lot?

A

1:25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the slope ratio for ramps?

A

1 “ per every 12 inches of run

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ramps should have a landing that is at least how many feet?

A

5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what percentage of a budget should go towards accomodating ADA attendees?

A

5-7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how much space does a wheelchair require in a classroom setting?

A

36”-42” of table space and 6’ aisles between tables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how much space is required for wheelchair in theater style seating?

A

36”-42” and 5’ aisle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Generally, where is the best place to plan for wheel chairs?

A

The bak of the room or a center aisle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In order to provide the ability for non-ambulatory patrons to access the front entrance of the hotel, the facility must provide a ramp. If the stairs to the entrance incline a total of 3 feet, how long must the ramp be?

A

36’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A significant number of your attendees have indicated on their registration forms that they are wheelchair-bound. What is the MOST effective method to facilitate their check in to hotels and on-site registration?

A

Provide clipboards at hotel check-in and registration area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What represents a major section of the ADA?

A

one section addresses telephone and television access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Under the public accommodations provisions of the ADA, who is responsible for reasonable accommodations for a meeting/event held in a public facility?

A

the facility and the host organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When is an accommodation not considered reasonable?

A

when making the accommodation poses a direct threat to the health of safety of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where does the ADA apply?

A

only to meetings and events held in the U.S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Audio visual equipment rental would be considered what type of expense for a meeting or event?

A

fixed costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do organizational policies affect the meeting budget?

A

they dictate what kind of sponsorships (if any) a meeting planner can garner, based on what kind of consideration the organization will provide for that investment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cash flow refers to:

A

the transfer of monies into and out of the organization

Explanation: this is the definition of cash flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

An organization that uses a cash accounting system would record what?

A

income and expenses as they are received and paid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A chart of accounts is a detailed list of:

A

line items in revenue and expense categories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

According to the billing timetable, what action should be taken approximately 6 months prior to the meeting?

A

meet with the facility’s accounting representative
Explanation: this meeting should be held to discuss billing instructions, room and master account requirements, and room confirmation policies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

VAT is the equivalent to what kind of expense in the international event budget?

A

local sales taxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Financial objectives for a meeting should meet what criteria?

A

specific, measurable, and based on the acceptable ROI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The contribution margin in financial management of a meeting refers to which of the following?

A

the portion of the registration fee that covers non-variable costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Three tools that meeting planners should use to constantly review and analyze the financial health of the meeting include income statements, cash flow statements, and:

A

balance sheets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The statement of the financial condition of the meeting that provides a fiscal report as of a particular time is:

A

the balance sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is not an acceptable method for managing exchange rates in worldwide currencies?

A

not fixing set rates for currency exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

verbs to use when writing effective outcomes

A

list define accept report demonstrate balance support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

verbs to avoid using when writign learner outcomes

A

know understand appreciate comprehend learn enjoy believe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is an escort card

A

indicates which table the guest has been assigned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is a place card

A

indicates the place at the table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the average no show

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are some cost saving ideas for F&B

A

ganging menus, provide small savings of high end items, limit portion size, pass the food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

when is more white wine consumed

A

outdoor events, receptions for every 10 bottles of white there are two bottles of red, dinner with red meat opposite is true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When is more red wine consumed

A

winter, receptions for every 10 bottles of white there are two bottles of red, dinner with red meat opposite is true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

principles for writing statements

A

select one action, may use multiple uses of skills, describe end product, begin with action verb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

2 ways to control portion of spirits or hard liquor

A
  1. jiggers with pour spouts, 2. do ot allow doubles to be served
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

how many drinks are consummed w/ 1 hour cash bar?

A

avg. 1.5 drinks/per person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

how many drinks are consummed with 1 hour open bar?

A

2-2.5 drinks/ 1 hr. per person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How many drinks consummed with 1.5 hour open bar?

A

3-3.5 drinks/ 1.5 hour per person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is accrual accounting?

A
  1. An accounting method that enters income and expenses into the books @ the time of contract versus when payment is received or expenses incurred.
  2. a system in which revenue and expenses are accounted for as soon as they are committed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how do you match food and wine

A
white = delicate, less flavorful foods
red = red meats, pasta with meat and tomato sauce and strong flavored foods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is a goal

A

broad statement of purpose for an organization/association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

english breakfast

A

same as full breakfast buffet and action stations, time 1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

how many ounces of coffee is a gallon

A

128 oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

stake holder data in a needs assessment will include which of the following

A

reasons or objectives for participating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

full served breakfast

A

seated, served breakfast. time: more than one hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

calculations for coffee

A
128 oz divided mug size = number of cups per gallon.  
# of cups times attendance = gallons of coffee ordered
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is NOT a level 0 objective?

A

Decrease time spent in staff mtg. by 10 min. with in one month of attending the time managment and conducting effective meetings training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is American Service?

A

Food is provided and plated in the kitchen then served by attendants. Side dishes used for bread and salad. Served from left beverages from right and all items removed from the right. most common, functional, economical and efficiant type of service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is a chart of accounts?

A

A detailed list of individual line items that make up the revenue and expenses catagories in a budget. A # system used to identify every line item in a budget, so income and expenses are posted to the correct accounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When serving wine with dinner, which formula should be used to order correct qty. of wine?

A

One half bottle per person plus 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

When selecting beverages for a function what ratio of spirits to soft liquor?

A

50% to 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The psychomotor domain for learner outcomes is characterized by what element?

A

modifying a presentation based on learner responses in the early part of program. “Adaption” catagory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Synthesis in cognitive domain of learning includes what activity?

A

Take parts of previously gained knowledge and develop a unique response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When profiling stakeholders in a meeting, in addition to knowing why they attend (or support) a meeting or event, what other information should be gathered from a stake holder?

A

reasons for not attending.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

To plan an effective learning opportunity based on the “learning contract” concept, the meeting planner should make sure what is completed?

A

needs assesment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What represents a well written learner outcome using active verbs in the cognitive domain? (for a course on mtg. mgmt?)

A

Prepare a manual on how to use this software to accomplish our task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is a level 2 (learning) objective?

A

70% of attendess will agree that they learned at least 1 new skill at training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

For a seated dinner, the appropriate serice ratio is?

A

1 server / 32 guests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

When each course is served individually and sequentially, which service is being used?

A

French Style

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

When selecting beverages for a function what ratio of spirits to soft liquor?

A

50% to 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The psychomotor domain for learner outcomes is characterized by what element?

A

modifying a presentation based on learner responses in the early part of program. “Adaption” catagory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Synthesis in cognitive domain of learning includes what activity?

A

Take parts of previously gained knowledge and develop a unique response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

When profiling stakeholders in a meeting, in addition to knowing why they attend (or support) a meeting or event, what other information should be gathered from a stake holder?

A

reasons for not attending.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

To plan an effective learning opportunity based on the “learning contract” concept, the meeting planner should make sure what is completed?

A

needs assesment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What represents a well written learner outcome using active verbs in the cognitive domain? (for a course on mtg. mgmt?)

A

Prepare a manual on how to use this software to accomplish our task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is a level 2 (learning) objective?

A

70% of attendess will agree that they learned at least 1 new skill at training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

For a seated dinner, the appropriate serice ratio is?

A

1 server / 32 guests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

When each course is served individually and sequentially, which service is being used?

A

French Style

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Who loves you most beautiful sweetie

A

;)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What represents a well written learner outcome in the psychometer domain

A

following instructions, develop well written leraner outcomes for the three domains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

the affective domain for learner outcomes is characterized by which elements

A

priorities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

the appropriate time alloted for a luncheon is

A

1 1/2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

the most important factor to consider when planning f&b is

A

objectives of meeting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

how many drinks can a cocktail server serve in an hour

A

48-64 drinks, carry 12-16 trip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what is an income statement

A

a statement of revenues and expenses (P&L statement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is a balance sheet

A

statement that indicates overall financial states by subtracting expenses from income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what is the statement that indicates overall financial states by subtracting expenses from income

A

balance sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what is a statement of revenues and expenses (P&L statement)

A

income statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

how many bar tenders do you need

A

1 per 100 if arriving in intervals, 1 per 50 if arriving in group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

If alcohol is at reception what type of food should be served

A
  1. Serve food before alcohol is served
  2. Serve starchy and high protein foods (stays in stomach longer and delays absorbtion into blood)
  3. avoid salty, greaasy, spicey foods that create thirst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Banquets usually set what percentage over guarantee?

A

Avg. overset is 5%
100 guests = 10% overset
100-1000 guests = 5% overset
over 1000 guests = 3% overset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

18 months prior to an event what should happen with accounting?

A

expense projection and preliminary cash flow for the event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

1 year prior to an event what should happen with accounting?

A

Send billing instructions to the accounting department at the venue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

6 months prior to an event what should happen with accounting?

A

Meet accounting rep. to review the billing and master account set up. Start looking for a local DMC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

3 months prior to the event what should happen with accounting?

A

Verify the master account with CSM. Set up a local bank account.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

1 month prior to the event what should happen with accounting?

A

reiew room rates and F&B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What should happen with accounting during the events?

A

Periodic review of master account. Before leaving review the master and discuss discrepancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

if you use plates at a reception how much will it add to food cost

A

1/3 more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what type of food to serve when small budget for reception

A

dry snack, raw vegatables, cubed cheese with crackers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what is french cart style service

A

a pattern of service (usually for smaller events) involves the use of serving pieces, heating and garnishing of food tableside by captain; serving food on heated plate and served to guest by server. Served from right, bread and salad served from left beverages right, remove from right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

have you let your heart be warmed today

A

think pt2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what is russian banquet service

A

food is fully prepared in kitchen. all courses served from silver platters or an escoffer dish. Tureens for soup. Server places proper plate in front of guest then then returns with tray of food and moving counter clockwise across guest to serve themselves from platter on left AKA “butler service”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

space requirements for receptions

A

min: 5 1/2 to 6 square feet per person
comfortably crowded 7 1.2 square feet per person, ample room; 10 sqaure feet per person; less food consumed in tighter space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what are meeting goals

A

the purpose of meeting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

what are reception guidelines

A

seating for 20-25% of guests; 1 server per 50 guests; est avg 7 7 hor d’oeuvres during 1st hour; guests eat more in 1st hour of reception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

what is included in an environmental scan

A

past mtg history; information abotu host org and/or sponsor; info about competitors; info about stockholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

what are the steps to realize green meetings

A
  1. set goals and objectives
  2. develop guidelines
  3. communicate objectives
  4. negotiate green practices
  5. measure results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

list three ways to reduce water usage

A
  1. don’t wash linens daily
  2. use pitchers of water and do not pre pour
  3. Use hotels with water conservative plumbing fixtures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

3 key principles for green meetings

A

reduce - prevent waste
reuse
recycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is English Service?

A

Food fully prepared in and served on trays and presented to the host. The host either cuts the food or has server cut away from table. Accompaniants are placed in bowls on table for guests to serve family style.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is French Banquet Service?

A

Platters of food prepared in kitchen. Served to guests from left by server from platters onto individual plates. Adding dressing or sauces to food by server while plate is in front of guest. Entrees served from right. Bread and served from the left. Beverages from the right. This service take more time and space and requires experienced captains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is Russian Restaurant Style Service?

A

Food is cooked table-side. Servers put food on platters and present platters to seated guests. Guests serve themselves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is optimum service level for French or Russian Service?

A

1 server/ table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is optimum service levels for Rounds of 10?

A

1 server/ 2 tables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is optimum service levels for rounds of 8?

A

1 server/ 5 tables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is optimum service levels for bussers at round tables?

A

1/ 3 servers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is optimum service levels for French service or with wine service?

A

Rounds of 10: 2 servers/ 3 tables
Rounds of 8: 1 server/ 2 tables
Buffets: 1 server/ 40 guests & 1 runner/ 100-125 guests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are recommended % of meeting objectives at each level?

A

level 0 100% Statistics, scope & Volume Objectives
level 1 90% - 100% Reaction & Satisfaction Objectives
level 2 40% - 60% Learning Objectives
Level 3 Application Objectives30%
Level 4 10% - 20% Business Impact Objectives
Level 5 5%-10% ROI Objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Good level 1 objectives should include what 3 things? (Statistic, scope, volume)

A
  1. Identify issues that are measureable and important to stake holders
  2. Are attitude based, clearly worded and specific
  3. Represent a satisfaction index from key stake holders.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

name 3 ways exhibitors reduce waste

A
reduce per show mailings
monitor shipping/transport
limit amount of giveaways
print on recycled paper
use less electricity
scrutinize decorator material
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

what paper materials could be replaced by electronic communications

A

email handouts electronic tickets, reuse signage, boxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

what is green seal

A

1995 some destinations have partnered with green seal to promise environmentaly responsible products and practices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

ways to be more gree wiht F&B

A

choose food in season
choose seafood from sustainable fisheries
choose food based on the history of attendees preferences
choose china service
choose not to serve individual bottled water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

how can exhibitors be more green

A

use soybased ink and recycled paper
recycled/consumable products as giveaways
no gifts from endangered species
avoid large quantity of collateral
minimize pkg materials
booths made of sustainable materials
recycle cardboard freight boxes and plastic wrap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

how can mtg manager be more green

A

accurate attendance numbers
electronic scan cards for attendees
clause with facility/general services contractor (recycle services)
Clause with exhibitor to be green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

How can general services contractor be more green

A

use recycled trade show materials
recylced biodegradable shipping and packing materials
coordinate with organization to collect donated items
provide carbon offset programs for shipping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

How can facility be more green

A

recycle bins on show floor
collection bins for less common materials
info given to exhibitors on material collected
area to donate leftover signage, giveaways,flowers to schools etc
organization names to donate to
electricity conservation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

The dept level of strategic mtg planning is known as what level

A

microlevel: focuses on depts and or mtgs and events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

definition of green mtg

A

a green mtg incorporated environmental consideration throughout all stages of the mtg in order to miniumize the negative impact on the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

what steps are appropriate for a green on-site show management office for a large multi day city wide conference

A

use inkjet printers (only when paper copies are required) for lover energy consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

what is appropriate strategy for gree mtg that use paper

A

use paper that is tree free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

The following is an example of which objective level? 80% attendees recommend conf. to others

A

level 1 Statistic, scope and volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

The following is an example of which objective level? 90% of attendees will indicate intention to impliment action plan with in 3 months

A

level 1 Statistic, scope and volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

The following is an example of which objective level? 80% will indicate intention to impliment new sales strategies with in 2 months.

A

level 1 Statistic, scope and volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

The following is an example of which objective level? Participants will rate hotel , F&B 4.3 of 5.8

A

level 1 Statistic, scope and volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is the ROI Formula?

A

meeting benefits - meeting costs
__________________________
mtg. costs x 100
this results in a %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

In what way might a meeting planner utlize goals and objectives for a successful meeting?

A

Goals and objectives can make logistical decisions for the meeting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

For an annual city wide meeting for 2500 people when should the mtg. planner first communicate sustainability practicies and requirements with all vendors?

A

during the RFP process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

How can tradeshows be more sustainable?

A

limit the amount of giveaways and make sure these items are not from endangered species (or animal based products).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is good samaritan law

A

encourages donation of food left over from event to organizations and eliminates liabilities involved with donations of food in good faith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

from where can mtg planners and/or food providers find accurate information regarding environmentalty responsible seafood choices

A

Seafood watch www.greenmeetings.info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

For associations, which is the foremost concern when conducting a meeds analysis for a specific event

A

the participants needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

before conducting the needs analysis research for a mtg, what is the first step

A

Reviewing already available information such as the mission and goals of the sponsorship organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

3 types of vegetarians

A
  1. non red meat eaters
  2. Lacto - ovovegetarian eat plant foods plus eggs and dairy
  3. vegans - eat plant foods only
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

continental breakfast

A

coffee/tea/juices
bread pastry
Deluxe Continental: add yogurt, fruit and cereals
1 attendant and seperate buffet per 100 people
2nd buffet at 120 attendees
time 30 min to one hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What should mtg planner do for signage clean up

A

review inventory list and highlight those that can be reused and stored
gather reusable signs and check off on list and recycle the other signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

if renting equipment for mtg what should be included for strike

A

ESG (event specification guide)
diagram showing where it will be placed for pick up and when/who is responsible for this
prepare inventory list to use in collecting and checking off items as moved out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What would not be included in a final post meeting registration report

A

P&L report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Who should provide information during the evaluation process for a complex multi day event to determine ROI for attendees

A

attendees and the companies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What type of sampling is recommended for participants data input when evaluating a meeting

A

random sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

what level do most organizations evaluate their meetings/events

A

0-1 most organizations

evaluate statistics and scope of their meetings and the satisfaction level of participants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

before conducting the needs analysis research for a mtg, what is the first step

A

Reviewing already available information such as the mission and goals of the sponsorship organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

3 types of vegetarians

A
  1. non red meat eaters
  2. Lacto - ovovegetarian eat plant foods plus eggs and dairy
  3. vegans - eat plant foods only
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

continental breakfast

A

coffee/tea/juices
bread pastry
Deluxe Continental: add yogurt, fruit and cereals
1 attendant and seperate buffet per 100 people
2nd buffet at 120 attendees
time 30 min to one hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What should mtg planner do for signage clean up

A

review inventory list and highlight those that can be reused and stored
gather reusable signs and check off on list and recycle the other signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

if renting equipment for mtg what should be included for strike

A

ESG (event specification guide)
diagram showing where it will be placed for pick up and when/who is responsible for this
prepare inventory list to use in collecting and checking off items as moved out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What would not be included in a final post meeting registration report

A

P&L report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Who should provide information during the evaluation process for a complex multi day event to determine ROI for attendees

A

attendees and the companies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What type of sampling is recommended for participants data input when evaluating a meeting

A

random sampling

185
Q

what level do most organizations evaluate their meetings/events

A

0-1 most organizations

evaluate statistics and scope of their meetings and the satisfaction level of participants

186
Q

What is evaluation?

A

Ability to appraise or judge the value or appropriateness of a proposed or applied behavior and to make both quantitive and qualitative judgements about the way in which particular elements or aggregates of content meet external or internal criteria. (cognative domain)

187
Q

For an event with a media room what information should be gathered?

A

Were the services provided by the media center adequate and utilized by media rep. on site?

188
Q

What is the purpose of evaluating a meeting or event?

A

Compare costs to benefits recieved

189
Q

What coverage does an umbrella policy provide for the host organization of a meeting or event?

A

it is an insurance to cover gaps in cover under the primary insurance policies.

190
Q

In the case of a catering contract, what are the “obligations” for each party?

A

One party is obligated to provide food and beverages; the other party is obligated to pay for the services.

191
Q

What should be included in a hotel contract as options if rooms haven’t been reserved after the reservation cut off date?

A
  1. Rooms released to public
  2. Should make rooms available to group @ agreed upon rate
  3. Charged to Group’s account
192
Q

What is not an example of Liability exposure for events?

A

Substituation of Celebrity with another equal celebrity.

193
Q

In the US when an independant contractor is injured @ an eent, the liability exposure for host includes what liability?

A

Medical liability

194
Q

In order to avoid deisputes in contraccts specify a despoist should include what?

A

When title to the deposits passes from one party to the other

195
Q

Who is an authorized signatory according to contract law?

A

An individual of legal age who is the actual party to the contrat or who has authority to bind the party for whom he/she has signed the agreement

196
Q

What is included in a full breakfast buffet and how long should it be served?

A

2-3 types of meat, 2-3 styles of egg, 1 potato dish, 3-6 types of bread, cereal, yogurt, fruit, coffee/tea/juices. SErved for an hour

197
Q

what is synthesis?

A

ability to take parts of previously acquired knowledge elements and produce a unique response (cognance domain)

198
Q

which of the following is not one of the 10 step in conducting a needs assessment

A

identify statistics that are important to the meeting organizer and or key stake holders

199
Q

What are the three possible financial objectives for a meeting?

A
  1. To make a profit 2. To break even 3. Sustain a loss
200
Q

What is a crucial first step in the budgeting process and financial mangment of a meeting?

A

Asking questions of upper management or those rewsponsible for the meeting to determine specific and measureable finacial objectives based on what is an acceptable ROI

201
Q

If the meeting is a recurring meeting what must be reviewed?

A

The finacial history of the meeting

202
Q

When creating budget for a recurring meeting what should be taken into account when reviewing the past budgets?

A

price increases because of the date or location of the meeting, differences in the programming, attendance, and the other aspects of the meeeting

203
Q

What are key issues that should be included in the budget?

A
  1. Both budgeted and actual figures from previous meetings 2. income and expense line item should be calculated as a percentage of the overall or total budget
204
Q

What are some areas that are often forgotten in budgets?

A

Ground transportation rebates, commissions from facilities, sales of proceedings, list sales or rentals, investment or interest income, royalties, administrative fees kept when registrations are canceled, or general grants

205
Q

What is a spreadsheet control report?

A

A document that can be created upon completion of the budgeting process. It shows anticipated income and expenses by month.

206
Q

If accrual accounting system is used how will this impact the spreadsheet control report?

A

Income and expenses must be allocated ot the months in which they will be contracted or comitted and not when they are actually recieved or paid.

207
Q

When using an accrual system when will the expenses show in the spreadsheet contral report?

A

The month that the event takes place

208
Q

If staff is required to handle cash at an event it is important that they are _________?

A

bonded

209
Q

When working with currency exchange rates where the rates may fluctuate greatly what is something you may consider?

A

“Buying forward” at fixed exchange rates, which can lower the risk of fluctuation in the short term. You may consider to open a bank account in the country where the meeting will be held to deposit income and avoid exchange rate fluctuations that could negatively impact the budget.

210
Q

True or False. The best results from focus groups are usually obtained by a professional facilitator.

A

True

211
Q

True or False. Stakeholder information will include evaluation data from previous meetings.

A

False

212
Q

True or False. Business impact objectives address the results of a meeting that will affect the key stakeholders’ personal, professional, and business lives positively.

A

True

213
Q

True of False. If a five-day event serves 2200 people meals on china instead of disposable plates, etc., it prevents 1,890 lbs. of waste from going into the landfill.

A

True

214
Q

True or False. n important green initiative is to provide recycled content paper products that have been bleached with chlorine.

A

False

215
Q

True or False. Estimates of improvement should be adjusted for the potential error of the estimates.

A

True. (PMM5, p. 722)

216
Q

True or False. International meetings or events may place monies in a bank at the destination, but cannot protect the host organization against currency fluctuations within a facility contract.

A

True, (CIC International, p. 36)

217
Q

True or False. The U.S. has a tougher insurance regime than most countries and could be a “benchmark” for cautious meeting or event planners.

A

True, PMM5, p. 631

218
Q

True or False. For liquidated damages, the contract may not be enforceable if the amount of damages is out of proportion to the actual damages.

A

True

219
Q

True or False. Vendors often require performance clauses in the form of minimum amounts of guaranteed revenue.

A

True, PMM5, p. 661

220
Q

True or False. Accessible parking spaces should have adequate clearance (which is 5 to 8 feet) to accommodate the width of vehicles and any motorized ramps they use.

A

True

221
Q

True or False. The only disabilities the ADA covers is blindness, deafness, and mobility.

A

False, PMM5, p. 667)

222
Q

True or False. At the conclusion of the meeting, emphasis should be placed on analyzing financial records to confirm or change financial philosophies based on actual performance.

A

True, PMM5, p. 47

223
Q

True or False. Internationally, housing processing is rarely taken on by a local CVB or Tourist Board.

A

True, CIC International, p. 20

224
Q

True or False. Most professional speakers choose not to negotiate or make exceptions to their fees schedule.

A

True PMM5, p. 309

225
Q

True or False. CSMs who work for convention and visitors bureaus only work with meeting planners who are using hotels or convention centers in the area; this specialization makes them very valuable to the host organization.

A

false, PMM5, p. 537

226
Q

True or False. All potential suppliers should submit sample contracts with their proposals.

A

True, PMM5, p. 564

227
Q

True or False. A seminar is where a limited number of attendees participate in an intense, often hands-on learning experience, directed in learning a new skill.

A

False, CIC8, p. 28

228
Q

True or False. Asynchronous learning may occur online, where the student-student interaction or student-instructor interaction occurs simultaneously.

A

False, PMM5, p. 258

229
Q

True or False. Aisles between tables in a dining hall should be a minimum of 36 inches (91 centimeters) wide.

A

True, CIC8, p. 361

230
Q

True or False. Hygiene inspection information (how often and by what standard the inspection is conducted) is necessary for meetings in Third World countries, but not in more robust economies.

A

False. CIC International, p. 44

231
Q

True or False. Negotiations for food functions at resorts are less flexible than for comparable events held elsewhere throughout the world.

A

False. CIC International, p. 45

232
Q

True or False. The minimum amount of time for refreshment breaks should be about 30 minutes, to encourage attendees to eat lightly.

A

False. PMM5, p. 403

233
Q

True or False. A room setup principle suggests that the room setup should be to the shorter side of the room, whenever possible.

A

False, CIC8, p. 328

234
Q

True or False. Unlike events in the U.S., when planning an international event, the planner should consider hiring different specialists for different aspects of the production (e.g., one provider for audience response systems, one for audio, etc.).

A

False, INT1, p. 52

235
Q

True or False. Few PCOs are prepared to manage production technologies, although they tend to be expert at other planning tasks, such as budgeting, contract negotiations, and site selection.

A

True, (INT1, p. 51

236
Q

True or False. A growing body of research suggests that PowerPoint™ slides do not enhance learning; however, it remains the standard in presentation software.

A

True, PMM5, p. 455

237
Q

Which of the following questions would be appropriate for the CSM at the headquarters hotel for a major city-wide convention?

a. Are you the liaison with the local fire and safety officials or do I work directly with them?  
 b. Does the city offer shuttle service from hotels to the convention center?  
 c. What attractions are available as special event venues?  
 d. What is the pricing to carpet exhibit halls?
A

Are you the liaison with the local fire and safety officials or do I work directly with them?

238
Q

While many volunteer programs exist, one of the areas that is often overlooked in such programs is which one of the following?

A

evaluation of performance

239
Q

Which of the following questions would be most likely to be asked of a convention center CSM and not a hotel CSM?

a. What public shows are taking place during our meeting?  
 b. What is your availability before, during, and immediately after the meeting?  
 c. What is your role in relation to the CVB CSM?  
 d. What is your role in assigning guest rooms for VIPs?
A

Correct answer: a

240
Q

For large educational meetings with numerous speakers and various types of sessions, a meeting manager might choose to start the search by sending out a “request for presentations” or a what?

A

a call for papers

241
Q

In what way does the CSM position for a CVB differ from the CSM position for a hotel?

A

the CVB’s CSM provides most of his or her services prior to the meeting

242
Q

If changes are requested to the room block after the contract is signed, who should you work with?

A

Reservation Manager

243
Q

A facility that separates convention services and catering responsibilities, requiring the planner to work with two key facility staff representatives, is a:

A

duoserve folio

244
Q

Three methods of instruction that are the most adaptable to the meeting environment include all of the following except:

a. expository  
b. participatory  
c. communicative  
d. evaluative
A

communicative

245
Q

A facilitator for a meeting of grade school teachers relates a story that demonstrates a real-life example of the point the facilitator is trying to make. This is an example of the facilitator being aware of which learning environment factor?

A

psychological

246
Q

A group of research scientists will hold an informal meeting to discuss mutual interests and exchange ideas. This meeting format is classified as a:

A

c: colloquium
Explanation: definition of colloquium is an informal meeting for the purpose of discussion, usually of an academic or research nature in order to ascertain areas of mutual interest.

247
Q

On what is most formative adult learning competency based?

A

learners focus on increasing performance in their jobs and personal lives

248
Q

What element uniquely characterizes adult learners?

A

self-directedness

249
Q

Which of the following is part of providing a climate that is conducive to adult learning?

A

non-threatening

250
Q

To become an accredited program, what general requirements must be met?

A

specific learning objectives must be stated

251
Q

Adult learners have specific objectives; which of the following represents an adult learner’s objective for continuing education?

A

I prefer seminars that allow the audience to share experiences and solutions to problems I face in my profession.
Explanation: this is typically what adult learners seek when they look for professional development experiences.

252
Q

When a learner prefers to select the focus for continuing education, sets personal objectives and is responsible to set deadlines, while capable and even eager to apply the learning to a current professional position, the learner is:

A

an adult learner
Explanation: with the research of Malcolm Knowles and many others, we have come to characterize adult learners with this description

253
Q

What set up restricts attendee contact and their view of the presentation the most?

A

straight-row seating

254
Q

When setting a room schoolroom for over 300 people, the amount of space required per person is:

A

17 to 18 square feet

255
Q

Which of the following is not considered a meeting peripheral?

A

water station

256
Q

If there are no head tables or dance floor requirements, how many square feet per person should be allotted when calculating capacity for a banquet?

A

10

257
Q

Facility contracts usually include a release date for meeting space that was held/contracted but may not be required for any meeting functions. When is the release date typically?

A

1 month or more prior to the event

258
Q

The standard schoolroom (or classroom) set up requires how many square feet per person to be comfortable (using 8 feet x 18 inch or 2.4 meters x 46 centimeter tables)?

A

17 to 22 square feet (or 1.6 to 2 meters)

259
Q

For theater style seating, with at least 24 inches (61 centimeters) of space between rows and 4 inches (10 centimeters) between chair seats (side to side), how much space is needed per person for a group of 250 people?

A

11 to 12 square feet (1 to 1.1 square meters)

260
Q

You are planning a dinner for 900 people and will use 60” rounds for seating. In order to maximize seating, how many tables will be required?

A

100 tables

CIC8 28-312

261
Q

What is the key purpose of identification signage?

A

to prominently display the name of the host organization and the event

262
Q

The term wayfinding refers to all of the following EXCEPT:

A

decor

263
Q

Which of the following tools is a necessary part of developing a wayfinding plan, typically serving as the second most important document to utilize (the first is the facility floor plan)?

A

summary list of signage options from the facility contract

264
Q

What kind of lighting produces high glare and does not allow for dimming?

A

Fluorescent

265
Q

A/an __________ __________ is a room at the main meeting facility, that is stocked with refreshments for featured speakers and other VIPs to meet with guests or media representatives.

A

green room

266
Q

A tightly focused pool of light that can also project gobos is a/an:

A

leko

267
Q

The required A/V in a meeting room includes 3 screens adjacent to one another that span the entire width of the room. Each screen is 10’x12’. Where does the projector for the middle screen need to be placed?

A

18 feet from either wall

268
Q

Which of the following is the standard for video playback and recording standard used in the U.S.?

A

NTSC

269
Q

The formula to determine how far from the screen to place the projector requires you to multiply __________ times the screen width.

A

1.5

270
Q

Which type of lighting instrument is required to “wash” a stage or area with light that has a soft edge?

A

fresnal

271
Q

For international meetings, protocol suggests the highest-ranking female would be seated where if the host is a male?

A

to the right of the host

272
Q

Protocol dictates how much space be allowed between the utensils at a formal place setting and the edge of the table?

A

1 inch

273
Q

CIC8 35-016 What practice should a meeting planner initiate that will eliminate the influence of incentives to make business decisions (and lead to a more ethical business climate)?

A

refuse gifts from any business source

274
Q

For which of the following are fold-over notes appropriate?

A

for thank-you notes, formal invitations, or short notes to friends

275
Q

Which of the following should not be a factor for exclusionary practices as outlined in the MPI code of ethics?

A

physical or mental impairment

276
Q

What organization administers the Certified Special Events Professional designation?

A

ISES

277
Q

The ten basic elements of any special event, and items that should be included in the event’s budget include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. hotel room block  
b. lighting  
c. linens  
d. gratuities
A

hotel room block

278
Q

Which of the following are unique characteristics of zone fares offered by airlines to meeting planners?

a. these only apply to meetings that will book 100 or more people  
 b. these are ideal for week-end events because there is a Saturday night stay-over requirement  
 c. these are usually valid only for travel originating in the U.S., Canada, or Europe  
 d. zone fares are usually valid for travel to virtually anywhere in the world
A

zone fares are usually valid for travel to virtually anywhere in the world

279
Q

What is important to obtain from the ground transportation provider just prior to the event?

A

the trip sheet

280
Q

What does air lift refer to?

A

it relates to the number of flights/seats on in and out of a specific destination

281
Q

Which of the following can be arranged through an official air carrier’s meeting services representative for group/meeting travel?

A

arrival and departure manifest

282
Q

From the perspective of the attendees, the key benefit of a shuttle program at a convention is:

A

reliability

283
Q

What action is recommended when attendees who booked a hotel room outside of the meeting block attempt to ride the provided shuttle to/from official hotels and the convention center?

A

No action should be taken - they should be allowed to ride the shuttle as they are paid registrants

284
Q

What is a key advantage of an official air carrier which cannot be provided by online booking agencies?

A

tracking and reporting of bookings for all attendees

285
Q

What is a group for whom a sub-block is likely be required?

A

board of directors

286
Q

What registration method is the least effective and therefore the least used?

A

phone

287
Q

For an exhibition with 1,500 exhibitors and 35,000 attendees, where online exhibitor registration and other technology-based solutions are required and multiple-booth tiered discounts are offered, which of the following should be provided by the ASP for

A

a software solution that reflect discount amounts and tracking as well as automated reports
Explanation: this is a critical service to allow for discounts that are offered for multiple purchases

288
Q

Which of the following is typically included in banquet software?

A

printing a variety of name tags and table tents

289
Q

What is a disadvantage of using an ASP for meeting and exhibit registration?

A

the organization’s data control measures may conflict with the ASP’s policies

290
Q

What is the most complex and expensive event management application?

A

association management applications

291
Q

Which of the following would NOT typically be found in a more complete version of fundraising event and auction software?

A

space-request tracking

292
Q

Which of the following is a scanned device used by exhibitors for lead retrieval?

A

smart cards

293
Q

Which of the following should be asked in order to select an ASP software solution for exhibitor registration and options purchases?

A

Does the package provide branding options?

294
Q

Enterprise-wide solutions connect all meeting stakeholders to critical information about the meeting and also provide which of the following benefits?

A

financial data tracking

295
Q

Which of the following communication tools improves interaction between attendees and presenters?

A

ARS

296
Q

Which of the following technologies allows for real-time messaging from and to mobile devices and computers?

A

IM

297
Q

Which of the following should be included in requirements for technology infrastructure at a venue?

A

a high speed wireless network in all meeting space

298
Q

One of the two types of electronic message centers is

A

closed email functionality with no Internet access

299
Q

What is the broadest definition of virtual conferencing?

A

any event where people at two or more distant locations are linked using video, audio, and/or data for two–way communication

300
Q

Which of the following is best suited for a videoconference?

A

when participants are at multiple locations and visual confirmation of participation is necessary

301
Q

Category 6 cabling can communicate how many bits of data per second, which allows for bandwidth required for virtual conferencing

A

four gigabits

302
Q

Which of the following should be done after a video conference?

A

Which of the following should be done after a video conference?

303
Q

Common web conferencing tools include:

A

audience polling and application sharing

304
Q

Which of the following is an advantages of using web conferencing?

A

the only participant requirements are an Internet connection, computer, and phone

305
Q

what is a typical revenue source from a trade show or exhibition?

A

registration fees

306
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be subcontracted by the general service contractor?

A

security

307
Q

A booth that measures 10’x10’x12’ and allows nothing in the booth to be higher than 4’ except behind the 5’ sightline is a:

A

perimeter booth

308
Q

For an exhibition anticipating 45- 10’ x10’ booths, a 500 square foot bookstore and a 2500 square foot demonstration area, how much gross square footage of space is required?

A

12,000 gross square feet

Explanation: gross square footage for booths equals 9,000 plus the ancillary space of 3,000

309
Q

Which country in the Asia Pacific region typically require some sort of language interpretation for successful meetings/events\?

A

China

310
Q

What is an option for exhibitors for a trade show in a foreign destination for their booths?

A

designing and building a booth at the show site

311
Q

A key consideration when a U.S. based organization is booking a facility for a meeting or event in a foreign destination is:

A

preliminary contract discussions may be binding on both parties in some foreign destinations

312
Q

Based on language in the contract, what organization provides assistance with international contract disputes?

A

CIA

313
Q

For U.S. citizens attending an international event, the IRS requires which of the following information to determine if travel to the meeting is tax deductible?

A

the purpose of the event and the activities taking place there

314
Q

What is the EFCT?

A

it is a federation of cities in Europe that are capable of holding conferences

315
Q

To be comfortable when attending a meeting in an international destination, travelers will likely want to know what before traveling?

A

electrical voltage and type of socket

316
Q

When a meeting is held at high altitudes in Latin America, what is the recommended time for acclimatization (for the meeting organizers) before the arrival of the meeting attendees?

A

1-1/2 days (or more)

317
Q

What constitutes an “international” meeting?

A

any meeting with attendees from three or more countries

318
Q

When attendees for an international meeting will be traveling as a large group, which of the following should assist with the group’s travel arrangements?

A

a travel agency

319
Q

Effective communications across cultures requires understanding the characteristics of high and low context cultures - a characteristic of a low context culture is:

A

change is valued over tradition

320
Q

When several methods of recognition for individual achievement and service to the organization are employed, it is an example of which type of culture?

A

low context/monochromic

321
Q

In Europe, commission is typically paid to PCOs or other intermediary agents on:

A

both DDR and 24-hour rates

322
Q

Which facility is best suited to a small program with a limited budget that requires focused learning?

A

Conference Center

323
Q

Which of the following is information required in order to develop an attendee profile based on historical meeting data?

A

Will attendees’ spouses/families be encouraged to attend?

324
Q

Which of the following should be negotiated with a facility for a series of 1-1/2 day training courses to be held on weekdays in various locations throughout the U.S. for a total of 1,000 people who must be trained within six months, who live throughout the U.S. and who are employed by a variety of corporations?

A

meeting dates and patterns

325
Q

Which of the following is one of the categories/types of conference centers as designated by the IACC?

A

residential conference center

326
Q

Which of the following is a common name for government-supported agencies outside the U.S. that promote a country as an international meeting destination?

A

tourism office

327
Q

Which of the following will limit expenses related to a site inspection for a small, one-day meeting?

A

use virtual site selection

328
Q

During a site inspection at all hotels, which of the following must be addressed regarding shuttle transportation for a city-wide meeting?

A

what is the access for motorcoaches

329
Q

What is the primary target client for most conference centers?

A

corporations

330
Q

The DMO sales cycle has numerous phases, including which of the following?

A

negotiation and contracting

331
Q

The Destination Marketing Association International, which promotes sound professional practices in solicitation and servicing meetings and events worldwide, provides which of the following services?

A

MINT - a meeting evaluation system

Explanation: this is a key program of DMAI

332
Q

Most CVBs/DMOs market their services through:

A

a lead system

333
Q

Most CVBs/DMOs are:

A

membership-based with a portion of their funding coming from membership dues

334
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be an exclusive contractor at a convention center?

A

F&B

335
Q

Which of the following should be included in the narrative portion of the ESG?

A

key dates, times, locations for pre- and post-event activities

336
Q

What is the primary goal of the APEX ESG template (and other APEX tools)?

A

to facilitate the seamless transfer of data between planners and suppliers to avoid duplicate data entry and enhance efficiency for both

337
Q

What kind of information is found in the function schedule section of the ESG?

A

this section lists each function that will occur during the event

338
Q

What kinds of “other equipment” might be specified on a function sheet in the ESG?

A

coat rack, whiteboard, easel

339
Q

A pre-con agenda might contain which of the following?

A

identification of VIPs and special considerations

340
Q

Where should vendor contact information be included?

A

in the ESG

341
Q

An international freight forwarder is a key vendor for meetings held in international destinations and typically provide which of the following services?

A

contracting with the customs broker

Explanation: typically the host organization would contract this service

342
Q

Fees for handling materials with specialized equipment or labor are often based on hundredweight (cwt), which refers to:

A

fees are determined by each 100 lbs or portion thereof

343
Q

What is the most economical and efficient way to ship materials for a meeting to be held in San Francisco with the host organization headquartered in Washington D.C. that includes large, heavy items and unusually sized packages and crated materials that

A

Van lines

344
Q

Unless you can guarantee exclusive use, which is expensive, this method of shipping large quantities will not guarantee delivery on an exact date and may increase handling and the risk of damage due to reloading.

A

common carrier

345
Q

Which of the following is MOST important when determining a ship date?

A

Type of carrier

346
Q

Which of the following information is LEAST likely to be required by the insurance carrier if the airfreight company has lost part of your insured shipment?

A

Itemized list of what was in each package

347
Q

Which of the following is a typical method for shipping freight when air freight is too expensive and ocean freight isn’t possible considering the origination and destination sites.

A

overland carriage

348
Q

When this term is placed in a bid, it means the service fee, applicable insurance and shipping are included in the quoted fees.

A

CIF (cost, insurance, frieght)

349
Q

To create a sense of urgency to register for a meeting/event, promotion should be sent out when?

A

16 weeks in advance

350
Q

Which of the following promotional activities should take place three months prior to the meeting?

A

create news releases about the meeting and submit to appropriate trade publications

351
Q

The on-site press room for a large meeting of national importance should contain which of the following?

A

Internet access

352
Q

The elements of a meeting’s promotional plan include which of the following?

A

public relations

353
Q

All of the following elements should be part of a promotion plan EXCEPT:

a. personal selling  
b. direct mail, email, or phone calls  
c. advertising  
d. demographics
A

demographics

354
Q

Which of the following tools will assist in determining the most attractive features of your trade show from current exhibitors’ perspectives in order to develop effective promotional materials and grow booth sales by 20%?

A

focus groups with a cross-section of current exhibitors

Explanation: this would accomplish the objectives outlined

355
Q

Which of the following should be included in a marketing plan for a meeting to be held in two years in Chicago, that requires attendance of 3500 public school administrators?

A

staff responsibilities and a timeline

356
Q

Which of the following is a recommended method of determining a marketing budget for a first-time meeting, with no past meetings of similar size/scope?

A

mine all marketing activities and distribute RFPs for the required services

357
Q

For an annual conference, what type of information to promote the meeting should be released approximately one year in advance?

A

date, location, theme, and logo announcement

358
Q

What practice should a meeting planner initiate that will eliminate the influence of incentives to make business decisions (and lead to a more ethical business climate)?

A

refuse gifts from any business source

359
Q

For which of the following are fold-over notes appropriate?

A

for thank-you notes, formal invitations, or short notes to friends

360
Q

Which organization requires potential members to have a code of ethics for membership consideration?

A

CIC

361
Q

Different cultures view the issue of power in various ways and when a culture has a centralized power or authority, and organizational structures are tightly controlled it is an example of:

A

hierarchical

Explanation: this is the term used to reference the culture described

362
Q

If a third-party meeting management company is approached by an organization to perform site selection services, what obligation does the third-party have to disclose the existence of and information regarding the host organization to potential sites?

A

full disclosure of the name and known information is required prior to potential sites holding rooms/space

363
Q

Which of the following is not one of the seven guidelines recommended to insure successful multicultural communication?

A

Adopt generalizations about cultures; they are usually based on fact.

364
Q

When giving gifts in cross-cultural situations, which of the following must be determined?

A

Who is receiving the gift and what do you know about that person?

365
Q

The invisible culture dimension is characterized by which of the following?

A

assumptions

366
Q

True or False. rnational exhibitions have a long history, such as the Frankfurt Book Fair, which has been operating continuously since the 13th century.

A

True

367
Q

True or False. To ensure success, local moves have to be coordinated in the same way as long-distance, international moves.

A

True

368
Q

True or False. The U.S. export process (through trade shows) is aided by the U.S. Department of International Exhibitions and Trade.

A

false

369
Q

True or False. everyone on the exhibit hall floor, except the GSCs and the EACs (they will have company IDs).

A

False, EACs should also where special badges.

370
Q

True or False. Assistance in countries outside the U.S. for exporting is available through departments or ministries of commerce and industry, from regional development boards, and from city and provincial governments.

A

True

371
Q

True or False. The laws of the host organization’s home country will be applied to any contract disputes for the international meeting held in another country.

A

False, local laws will prevail

372
Q

True or False. In the Asia Pacific region, more than 1,000 local languages (and more dialects) are spoken; however, English is widely spoken there, too.

A

True

373
Q

True or False. “Needs” are the negotiable elements for a meeting and when they are satisfied, increase satisfaction levels for stakeholders.

A

False

374
Q

True or False.

Good practice suggests adding an attendee profile as an appendix to the ESG.

A

True

375
Q

true or false. Budget information (like room rates) do not appear on the typical ESG.

A

false

376
Q

The acronym “ATA” stands for air transport admission and refers to the government-approved license for transporting goods by air freight.

A

false, Admission Temporare, Temporary Admmission

377
Q

True or False.

VAT fees are only charged on goods in the EU; other countries don’t use this system (they use tariffs, instead).

A

FAlse

378
Q

True or False. Segmentation refers to how you might classify various types within your target audience; however, only five types exist overall.

A

False there are two types.

379
Q

Which of the following is a source for specific and accurate information for a meeting to be held in a specific region of Europe? PCO or DMC?

A

a DMC. Explanation: the PCO tends to be more oriented to a specific country

380
Q

Which two key tax issues are unique and have significant implications for the budget of an international event?

A

at home tax variations due to the international destination and VAT taxes

381
Q

Why should qualitative questions be limited in surveys for ROI analysis?

A

they are time consuming for the respondent

382
Q

What data collected by meeting planners is increasingly protected by government regulations due to privacy issues in Europe and some parts of Asia?

A

racial or ethnic origin

383
Q

For theater style seating, with at least 24 inches (61 centimeters) of space between rows and 4 inches (10 centimeters) between chair seats (side to side), how much space is needed per person for a group of 250 people?

A

11 to 12 square feet (1 to 1.1 square meters)

384
Q

What document functions as the final word on all aspects of the meeting or event?

A

ESG

385
Q

When should an automatic reply be utilized for email correspondence?

A

When you are out of the office a day or more (excluding holidays and weekends)

386
Q

To select a random sample of potential participants to a national association’s annual meeting, which would NOT be a logical factor (or basis for the selection)?

A

number of associations they belong to

387
Q

How many people are typically included in a focus group for gaining insight into the needs and interests of potential participants for a large meeting?

A

10 to 12 people

388
Q

Some organizational factors can affect the budgeting process, including all of the following EXCEPT:

A

incremental budgeting

389
Q

Your meeting attendance is expected to be 400 paid professional members, 200 exhibitors and 100 complimentary students. For optimal on-site registration, how many registration clerks should be scheduled?

A

the standard is one registration clerk for every 100 expected attendees. 7 is the correct answer.

390
Q

For an exhibition with 1,500 exhibitors and 35,000 attendees, where online exhibitor registration and other technology-based solutions are required and multiple-booth tiered discounts are offered, which of the following should be provided by the ASP for e

A

a software solution that reflect discount amounts and tracking as well as automated reports

391
Q

In a risk analysis for a new software product launch, how would the risk of delaying the launch by several months be classified?

A

high probability/low consequences

392
Q

Which of the following needs to be in the communications section of a risk management plan for an organization with two large meetings per year (one held in the U.S. and one held outside the U.S.)?

A

phone tree for communicating about the risk

393
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of using an ASP for registration for a large meeting or event?

A

broad access

394
Q

Virtual conferencing might be used by meeting planners for which of the following?

A

remote speaker presentations

395
Q

Ethical practices are most important for which industry segment, due to the nature of their business organizations?

A

Independant planners

396
Q

What steps are appropriate for a green on-site show management office for a large, multi-day, city-wide conference?

A

use ink-jet printers (only when paper copies are required) for lower energy consumption

397
Q

Which of the following is a recommended ADA accommodation related to water fountains?

A

positioned for access from a wheelchair

398
Q

To utilize DVC (desk top controlled) technology, participants need all of the following EXCEPT:

A

remote controlled video camera for pans

399
Q

Which of the following is recommended for a professional speaker presenting to an audience of 2,000 for a formal keynote/general session?

A

teleprompter

400
Q

What is the key factor for DMOs/CVBs to determine the value of an exhibition to be held in their city?

A

the room nights that will be generated

401
Q

A two-day meeting for thirty accountants, featuring instruction regarding and intensive education about the federal tax law changes since 1990 would be classified as a(an):

A

institute

402
Q

Sound mixers should be provided in the following quantities:

A

2-4 microphones

403
Q

How do organizational policies affect the meeting budget?

A

they dictate what kind of sponsorships (if any) a meeting planner can garner, based on what kind of consideration the organization will provide for that investment

404
Q

Which of the following questions would reflect the “application” level of ROI identified by Phillips?

A

Did the attendee follow the guidelines for best practices outlined at our meeting?

405
Q

Three tools that meeting planners should use to constantly review and analyze the financial health of the meeting include income statements, cash flow statements, and:

A

balance sheets

406
Q

If there are no head tables or dance floor requirements, how many square feet per person should be allotted when calculating capacity for a banquet?

A

10

407
Q

When calculating capacity for a stand-up reception, how many square feet should be calculated per person?

A

9 - 10

408
Q

What is an “aperitif”?

A

It is a drink served before a meal to “open the appetite.”

409
Q

To reach adult learners effectively, the learning environment should include which of the following?

A

asynchronous learning, when appropriate

410
Q

Which of the following is best suited for a videoconference?

A

when participants are at multiple locations and visual confirmation of participation is necessary

411
Q

Generation X was born between 1965 and 1981; they represent younger professionals in meeting management with a college education. What are the characteristics of this generation?

A

they are less likely to join groups like PCMA, as they tend to be very independent and distrustful of older meeting professionals

412
Q

What quantities of coffee and decaf coffee should be ordered for a group of 200 women for a morning break?

A

5 gallons of regular and 2.5 gallons of decaf

413
Q

Which type of microphones are less prone to feedback problems, but must be kept very close to the source of sound?

A

unidirectional microphones

414
Q

Which of the following must be determined before gift giving in any culture?

A

religious preferences

415
Q

What is an income statement?

A

a statement of revenues and expenses which summarizes transactions over a period of time

416
Q

The Middle East can be divided into two general areas, one of which is:

A

the Levant (Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Palestine, Jordan, Iraq, Iran, and culturally and politically different Israel)

417
Q

Which of the following is an example of moving décor?

A

costumes

418
Q

Seating should be allowed for what percentage of attendees at a reception?

A

20-25%

419
Q

Unless you can guarantee exclusive use, which is expensive, this method of shipping large quantities will not guarantee delivery on an exact date and may increase handling and the risk of damage due to reloading.

A

common carrier

420
Q

The formula to determine how far from the screen to place the projector requires you to multiply __________ times the screen width.

A

1.5

421
Q

Providing discounted pricing for and assistance with air cargo for meeting management and/or exhibitors is a benefit of a/an:

A

official air carrier

422
Q

Brochures used to promote a meeting/event to potential attendees should include which of the following?

A

meeting/event objectives

423
Q

Outside the U.S., room blocks and room availability policies are changing; which of the following are true, or are becoming true, for rooms in Europe and Asia?

A

women-only floors are becoming more common

424
Q

How far in advance do corporations tend to book speakers?

A

less than 6 months in advance

425
Q

____________ _______________ should be pre-numbered consecutively with numbers tracked/recorded, are used as a reminder to the attendee of the event’s time/location and assist in guaranteeing food and beverage attendance

A

event tickets

426
Q

When survey respondents are likely to feel rushed, what is the ideal length of the survey instrument?

A

one page

427
Q

When the final post-event registration report is compiled for a complex, multi-day event, what information should be included?

A

registration results, compared to previous years (for annual meetings) and broken down by type of event the registrant purchased (when options exist)

428
Q

The program outline organizes the meeting into various functions and includes which of the following?

A

schedule of activities

429
Q

Shipments for large, multi-facility meetings that are being sent to the GSC warehouse should be sent:

A

10-30 days prior to the move-in date

430
Q

Stratified random sampling refers to which of the following?

A

all participants are examined for certain characteristics, groups are created based on those characteristics, and a random selection from each group is used for evaluation

431
Q

at is the EFCT?

A

it is a federation of cities in Europe that are capable of holding conferences

432
Q

Which of the following details wouldn’t be found on the wayfinding plan?

A

who will place the sign

433
Q

Common web conferencing tools include:

A

audience polling and application sharing

434
Q

Which of the following is an advantages of using pagers over walkie-talkies for on-site communications?

A

Pagers typically have a much longer range than a walkie-talkie

435
Q

Which of the following may be charged to the master account, but are required to be charged to other parties?

A

incidental charges on sleeping room bills, which are charged back to attendees

436
Q

The affective domain for learner outcomes is characterized by which of the following elements?

A

priorities

437
Q

The psychomotor domain for learner outcomes is characterized by which of the following elements?

A

modifying a presentation based on learner responses in the early part of the program
Explanation: this is a psychomotor response under the “adaptation” category

438
Q

When writing educational or learning objectives for a specific session, all of the following should be measured except:

A

amount of continuing education (CEU) units/credits* provided

439
Q

Which of the following is least impacted by the objectives of the meeting?

A

meal function menus

440
Q

What information should be included in a contract with a photographer?

A

staffing coverages

441
Q

A room for one person with two beds is a/an:

A

single occupancy

442
Q

One of the objectives of adding an exhibition to a meeting, from the exhibitors’ perspective is:

A

unique marketing opportunities

443
Q

The contribution margin is:

A

the price less the variable expenses.

444
Q

Which of the following items needs to be addressed by the sponsoring organization during a crisis to insure effective communication?

A

set up a 24-hour media center

Explanation: a 24-hour media center is often critical for dispensing accurate information

445
Q

When each course is served individually and sequentially, which service is being used?

A

French

446
Q

Which of the following are parameters for selecting members for an independent audit committee?

A

the committee members cannot be part of the organization’s management

447
Q

Activation in a strategic partnership refers to

A

a proactive role for the organization and the strategic partner to maximize the results for both

448
Q

What are the “three Rs” of convention services management?

A

relationships, resources, and reliability

449
Q

If changes are requested to the room block after the contract is signed, you should work with which of the following:

A

Convention Services Manager (CSM)

450
Q

ich of the following session formats is the most interactive?

A

colloquium

451
Q

Which of the following answers is NOT part of a typical agenda for the planning committee’s first meeting?

A

program design

452
Q

How far in advance of an event should the event’s web page and/or brochure begin to be created/developed?

A

9 months

453
Q

A facility that separates convention services and catering responsibilities, requiring the planner to work with two key facility staff representatives, is a:

A

duoserve property

454
Q

When the GSC needs another firm to help provide the trade show management function, that additional provider is known as a/an __________ provider.

A

third party vendor

455
Q

Which of the following allows wireless connectivity between various devices?

A

Bluetooth

456
Q

To become a member of the International Association of Conference Centers, a center must meet how many of the identified brand standards?

A

31

457
Q

What technology options are available to help staff stay connected on site, without significant additional costs?

A

wireless digital phone and email

458
Q

Which of the following should be done after a video conference?

A

offer audio and/or video tapes of the conference

Explanation: correct