cmp 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Why are amniotic specimens for cytogenetic analysis incu- bated at 37°C prior to analysis?
A. To detect the presence of meconium
B. To differentiate amniotic fluid from urine
C. To prevent photo-oxidation of bilirubin to biliverdin
D. To prolong fetal cell viability and integrity

A

d

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2
Q

A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid at 450 nm
indicates the presence of which analyte? A. Bilirubin
B. Lecithin
C. Oxyhemoglobin
D. Sphingomyelin

A

a

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3
Q

Plotting the amniotic fluid OD on a Liley graph represents the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn. A value that is plotted in zone II indicates what condition of the fetus?
A. No hemolysis
B. Mildly affected fetus
C. Moderately affected fetus that requires close monitoring
D. Severely affected fetus that requires intervention

A

c

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4
Q

The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by:
A. Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin
B. Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
C. Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidyl glycerol D. Decreased maternal serum acetylcholinesterase

A

b

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5
Q

True or False: An AFP MoM value greater than two times the median value is considered an indication of a neural tube disorder.

A

t

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6
Q

WhensevereHDNispresent,whichofthefollowingtests on the amniotic fluid would the physician not order to determine whether the fetal lungs are mature enough to withstand a premature delivery?
A. AFP levels
B. Foam stability index
C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio D. Phosphatidyl glycerol detection

A

a

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7
Q

TrueorFalse:Priorto35weeks’gestation,thenormalL/S ratio is less than 1.6.

A

t

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8
Q

When performing an L/S ratio by thin-layer chromatography, a mature fetal lung will show:
A. Sphingomyelin twice as concentrated as lecithin B. No sphingomyelin
C. Lecithin twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin
D. Equal concentrations of lecithin and sphingomyelin

A

c

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9
Q

True or False: Phosphatidyl glycerol is present with an L/S ratio of 1.1.

A

t

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10
Q

A rapid immunologic test for FLM that does not require performance of thin-layer chromatography is:
A. AFP levels
B. Amniotic acetylcholinesterase
C. Aminostat-FLM D. Bilirubin scan

A

c

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11
Q

Does the failure to produce bubbles in the Foam Stability Index indicate increased or decreased lecithin?
A. Increased B. Decreased

A

b

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12
Q

The presence of phosphatidyl glycerol in amniotic fluid fetal lung maturity tests must be confirmed when:
A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is present
B. The mother has maternal diabetes
C. Amniotic fluid is contaminated by hemoglobin
D. Neural tube disorder is suspected

A

b

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13
Q

A lamellar body count of 50,000 correlates with:
A. Absent phosphatidyl glycerol and L/S ratio of 1.0
B. L/S ratio of 1.5 and absent phosphatidyl glycerol
C. OD at 650 nm of 1.010 and an L/S ratio of 1.1
D. OD at 650 nm of 0.150 and an L/S ratio of 2.0

A

d

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14
Q

In what part of the digestive tract do pancreatic enzymes and bile salts contribute to digestion?
A. Large intestine
B. Liver
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach

A

c

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15
Q

Where does the reabsorption of water take place in the primary digestive process?
A. Large intestine
B. Pancreas
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach

A

a

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16
Q

Which of the following tests is not performed to detect osmotic diarrhea?
A. Clinitest
B. Fecal fats
C. Fecal neutrophils
D. Muscle fibers

A

c

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17
Q

Thenormalcompositionoffecesincludesallofthefollowing except:
A. Bacteria
B. Blood
C. Electrolytes
D. Water

A

b

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18
Q

What is the fecal test that requires a 3-day specimen? A. Fecal occult blood
B. APT test
C. Elastase I
D. Quantitative fecal fat testing

A

d

19
Q

The normal brown color of the feces is produced by:
A. Cellulose
B. Pancreatic enzymes
C. Undigested foodstuffs
D. Urobilin

A

d

20
Q

Diarrhea can result from all of the following except:
A. Addition of pathogenic organisms to the normal
intestinal flora
B. Disruption of the normal intestinal bacterial flora
C. Increased concentration of fecal electrolytes
D. Increased reabsorption of intestinal water and electrolytes

A

d

21
Q

Stools from persons with steatorrhea will contain excess amounts of:
A. Barium sulfate B. Blood
C. Fat
D. Mucus

A

c

22
Q

Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does not match?
A. Black, tarry: blood
B. Pale, frothy: steatorrhea
C. Yellow-gray: bile duct obstruction
D. Yellow-green: barium sulfate

A

d

23
Q

Stool specimens that appear ribbon-like are indicative of which condition?
A. Bile-duct obstruction
B. Colitis
C. Intestinal constriction
D. Malignancy

A

c

24
Q

A black tarry stool is indicative of:
A. Upper GI bleeding
B. Lower GI bleeding
C. Excess fat
D. Excess carbohydrates

A

a

25
Q

Chemical screening tests performed on feces include all
of the following except:
A. APT test
B. Clinitest
C. Pilocarpine iontophoresis
D. Quantitative fecal fats

A

c

26
Q

Secretory diarrhea is caused by:
A. Antibiotic administration
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Celiac sprue
D. Vibrio cholerae

A

d

27
Q

The fecal osmotic gap is elevated in which disorder?
A. Dumping syndrome
B. Osmotic diarrhea
C. Secretory diarrhea
D. Steatorrhea

A

b

28
Q

Microscopic examination of stools provides preliminary information as to the cause of diarrhea because:
A. Neutrophils are present in conditions caused by toxin-producing bacteria
B. Neutrophils are present in conditions that affect the intestinal wall
C. Red and white blood cells are present if the cause is bacterial
D. Neutrophils are present if the condition is of nonbac- terial etiology

A

b

29
Q

True or False: The presence of fecal neutrophils would be expected with diarrhea caused by a rotavirus.

A

f

30
Q

Large orange-red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III represent:
A. Cholesterol
B. Fatty acids
C. Neutral fats
D. Soaps

A

c

31
Q

Microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III and glacial acetic acid and then heated will show small orange-red droplets that represent:
A. Fatty acids and soaps
B. Fatty acids and neutral fats
C. Fatty acids, soaps, and neutral fats
D. Soaps

A

c

32
Q

When performing a microscopic stool examination for muscle fibers, the structures that should be counted:
A. Are coiled and stain blue
B. Contain no visible striations
C. Have two-dimensional striations
D. Have vertical striations and stain red

A

c

33
Q

.
A value of 85% fat retention would indicate: A. Dumping syndrome
B. Osmotic diarrhea
C. Secretory diarrhea
D. Steatorrhea

A

d

34
Q

Which of the following tests would not be indicative of steatorrhea?
A. Fecal elastase-I
B. Fecal occult blood
C. Sudan III
D. Van de Kamer

A

b

35
Q

The term “occult” blood describes blood that: A. Is produced in the lower GI tract
B. Is produced in the upper GI tract
C. Is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen D. Produces a black, tarry stool

A

c

36
Q

What is the recommended number of samples that should
be tested to confirm a negative occult blood result?
A. One random specimen
B. Two samples taken from different parts of three stools
C. Three samples taken from the outermost portion of the stool
D. Three samples taken from different parts of two stools

A

b

37
Q

The immunochemical tests for occult blood:
A. Test for human globulin
B. Give false-positive reactions with meat hemoglobin
C. Can give false-positive reactions with aspirin
D. Are inhibited by porphyrin

A

a

38
Q

Guaiac tests for detecting occult blood rely on the: A. Reaction of hemoglobin with hydrogen peroxide
B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
C. Reaction of hemoglobin with ortho-toluidine
D. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hydrogen peroxide

A

b

39
Q

What is the significance of an APT test that remains pink after addition of sodium hydroxide?
A. Fecal fat is present.
B. Fetal hemoglobin is present.
C. Fecal trypsin is present.
D. Vitamin C is present.

A

b

40
Q

In the Van de Kamer method for quantitative fecal fat determinations, fecal lipids are:
A. Converted to fatty acids prior to titrating with sodium hydroxide
B. Homogenized and titrated to a neutral endpoint with sodium hydroxide
C. Measured gravimetrically after washing
D. Measured by spectrophotometer after addition of Sudan III

A

a

41
Q

Apatientwhosestoolexhibitsincreasedfats,undigested muscle fibers, and the inability to digest gelatin may have:
A. Bacterial dysentery B. A duodenal ulcer
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Lactose intolerance

A

c

42
Q

A stool specimen collected from an infant with diarrhea
has a pH of 5.0. This result correlates with a: A. Positive APT test
B. Negative trypsin test
C. Positive Clinitest
D. Negative occult blood test

A

c

43
Q

Which of the following tests differentiates a malabsorp- tion cause from a maldigestion cause in steatorrhea?

A. APT test
B. D-xylose test
C. Lactose tolerance test D.
Occult blood test

A

b