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Human Anatomy & Physiology > cmezen Final Test Review csv file > Flashcards

cmezen Final Test Review csv file Flashcards

1
Q

List the levels of an organism, in order from smallest to largest

A

cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

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2
Q

Organs and organ systems are dependent/independent/interdependent?

A

interdependent

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3
Q

What are the ventral body cavities?

A

thoracic and abdominopelvic

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4
Q

What cavity is the heart located in?

A

in the mediastinum within the thoracic cavity

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5
Q

What cavity are the lungs located in?

A

in the pleural cavities within the thoracic cavity

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6
Q

Which part of the ANS is the main feedback system working toward homeostasis?

A

parasympathetic

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7
Q

If, as part of the feedback system to ensure homeostasis, the vagus nerve prompts an organ to respond, what is the term used for the organ with relation to the feedback loop?

A

the effector organ

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8
Q

Charges of protons, neutrons, and electrons

A

protons are positive, neutrons are neutral, electrons are negative

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9
Q

What are the valence charges for a cation and an anion?

A

cation has a + valence charge, and anion has a negative charge

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10
Q

Difference between covalent bond and ionic bond

A

covalent is a shared electron, ionic gives the electron away

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11
Q

The outer valence determines the stability/instability of an ion and whether it will give away or receive electrons. How many electrons are needed to fill level 1 and 2 of the valence shell?

A

2 and 8 respectively

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12
Q

H+ and OH- make what?

A

H+ (an acid) and OH- (a base) make metabolic water. An acid and base always make metabolic water

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13
Q

Where is ATP produced?

A

mitochondria

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14
Q

What are the names given for the outer shell of a cell?

A

plasma membrane or plasmalemma

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15
Q

What does the plasmalemma do?

A

provides isolation, regulates exchange, structural support, protects

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16
Q

What is the plasmalemma made of?

A

phospholipid bilayer

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17
Q

DNA inside nucleus during transcription synthesizes into what?

A

mRNA. DNA is too large to leave the nucleus, so mRNA takes code and leaves nucleus with instructions that will require protein synthesis to take place.

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18
Q

Example of body’s effort toward homeostatis

A

Na+ and K+ exchange pump

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19
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

the force of osmotic water movement. It is the pressure that must be applied to prevent water movement across a membrane (think of solutes and water moving from hypotonic to hypertonic area to equalize concentrations. That movement is osmotic pressure, so to stop it, there would have to be that much pressure coming the other way)

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20
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure?

A

the pressure that the fluid exerts on the walls of its container. In human body, the hydrostatic pressure refers to the pressure that the blood exerts on the walls of the arteries and veins.

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21
Q

What is the bottom layer of epithelial tissue and what does it do?

A

basil lamina, and it is the glue that sticks skin to underlying subcutaneous layers

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22
Q

Layers of the epidermis:

A

stratum Corneum, stratum Lucidum, stratum Granulosum, stratum Spinosum, stratum Basale.

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23
Q

Cranial vault has room for what?

A

tissue, csf, blood

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24
Q

What is the first bony structure at the base of the skull (disassociation would kill you)

A

atlas (aka atlanto/occipital structure)

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25
Q

When we are palping neck and back, what are we touching?

A

spinous process of the vertebrae

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26
Q

Number of vertebrae by section

A

cervical 7, thoracic, 12, lumbar 5, sacral 5, coccyx 3-5

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27
Q

Main part of a vertebrae (round part that is deepest in the body)

A

vertebral body

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28
Q

Where is the vertebral lamina?

A

the body part that connects the spinous process to the body. It creates the cavities that nerve roots exit through. With disc compression, lamina is removed

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29
Q

Where does the scapula and clavicle meet?

A

acromium-clavicular joint (or AC joint)

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30
Q

Sternum has how many bones?

A

3: manubrium, sternal body, xiphoid process

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31
Q

How many pairs of ribs?

A

12 pairs, pairs 8-12 are floating ribs and only attached on one side

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32
Q

What is the prominence on the cheeks (bone)

A

zygomatic process

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33
Q

Mandible vs maxilla

A

mandible is lower jaw, maxillae is upper jaw (upper teeth attached)

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34
Q

Largest bones in the pelvis

A

iliac bones (iliac crest is the prominent part you can palpate)

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35
Q

Parts of the femur

A

femoral head connects into acetabulum, femoral neck to body of femur, greater trochanter is opposite femoral head, epicondyle connects to patella surface

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36
Q

Parts of axial skeleton

A

skull, ribs, sternum, vertebrae (including sacrum and coccyx)

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37
Q

Directional descriptions for foot movement

A

plantar flexion (foot pushing down), dorsi flexion (foot pushing up)

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38
Q

Adduction vs abduction

A

adduction is turning inward, abduction is turning outward

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39
Q

What is the name of the soft tissue between joints

A

meniscus

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40
Q

Acetyl binds to and stimulates what in the motor end plate?

A

chemically gated channels

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41
Q

If ACH binds to chemically gated channels in the motor end plate, what is the effector and the effect?

A

effector is the muscle and the effect is that the muscle can fire

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42
Q

Body movement is controlled by what system?

A

somatic system

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43
Q

Where is the sternocloidomastoid?

A

it is a muscle in the neck. It is the prominent muscle on the front/side and it connects the sternum, clavicle, and mastoid. It is covered by a small sheath of muscle called the platysma

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44
Q

Name/locate the muscles of the quadricep group

A

rectus femoris (center), vastus lateralis (outside), vastus medialis (medial side), vastus intermedius (deep underneath rectus femoris)

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45
Q

Gluteus maximus and minimus locations

A

gluteus maximum is large muscle of butt and runs laterally and inferior. Minimum starts above maximus and runs inferiorly and underneath the maximus

46
Q

What is the long muscle in the leg on the side?

A

vastus lateralus (part of the quadricep group)

47
Q

Parasympathetic system neurotransmitter

A

ACH for both pre and post-synaptic junctions

48
Q

Sympathetic system neurotransmitter

A

ACH for pre-synaptic, and NE for post-synaptic

49
Q

Somatic system neuro-muscular transmitter

A

ACH

50
Q

With relation to the sympathetic system, what does the adrenal gland do?

A

it dumps epi and nor-epi into the bloodstream as hormones to be used for flight/flight efforts

51
Q

If alpha 1 receptors are activated, what happens?

A

vasoconstriction

52
Q

What do Beta 1 receptors do?

A

increase cardiac rate and contractility

53
Q

What do Beta 2 receptors do?

A

cause smooth muscle dilation (think bronchodilation)

54
Q

What is the corpus collosum?

A

connects the R and L hemispheres of the brain

55
Q

Whare are fine tune motor skills and cognitive awareness processed?

A

cerebellum

56
Q

When an impulse is traveling down a sensory pathway, it is traveling down a _________ pathway?

A

afferent (think SAME DAVE)

57
Q

The resting potential of a cell membrane is:

A

negative

58
Q

Briefly describe the steps of an action potential:

A

stimulation occurs, threshold is reached, sodium channels open, cell depolarizes, sodium channels close and K+ channels open, cell repolarizes

59
Q

EPSP and IPSP

A

excitatory post-synaptic potential (makes the cell fire) and inhibitory (inhibits cell from firing)

60
Q

What are the two main arterial flows to the brain?

A

internal carotid arteries and vertebral artery

61
Q

When a rapid succession of action potentials go thru a small number of synapses

A

temporal summation

62
Q

EPSPs from a large number of synapses

A

spatial summation

63
Q

What system is the main conduit for the vagus nerve (cranial nerve 10)

A

the parasympathetic system

64
Q

Cranial nerves

A

optic, olfactory, ocular motor, trochlear, trigeminal, abducens, facial, vestibularcocclear, glossalpharyngeal, vagus, spinal accessory, hypoglossal

65
Q

What causes Wernekes syndrome?

A

thiamin deficiency in the brain (usually from alcoholism)

66
Q

Signs of Wernikes syndrome

A

ataxic movements (cant coordinate voluntary movements), confabulation, blurred vision, eyeballs all over the place

67
Q

When a pt’s mental status is normally high functioning, but now is combative when stimulated, what is the term used to describe this?

A

delirium

68
Q

Purposeless jerky movements

A

chorea

69
Q

What are the things that affect GFR?

A

osmotic pressure, blood pressure, membrane surface area, and membrane permeability

70
Q

Angiotensin I converts to angiotensin II via what?

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

71
Q

ADH released from where?

A

posterior pituitary gland in the hypothalamus

72
Q

What is ADH role in water retention?

A

brain senses osmolarity of blood is too high so it sends ADH to kidneys to conserve water. Aldosterone is released to pull sodium from DCT and collecting tube and water follows so there is less urine production

73
Q

ADH is a vasoconstrictor or dilator?

A

potent vasoconstrictor (medication that is similar is vasopressin)

74
Q

Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor or dilator?

A

vasoconstrictor (remember that ACE inhibitors lower BP, so angiotensin II must raise BP)

75
Q

Aldosterone is a vasoconstrictor or dilator?

A

vasoconstrictor (it pulls sodium from DCT to get water to follow in order to conserve water)

76
Q

CO2 and HCO3, which is the acid or base?

A

CO2 is a weak acid and HCO3 is the base

77
Q

What stimulates Tcells and Bcells?

A

antigens

78
Q

What is an APC?

A

antigen presenting cell. This cell eats and destroys and antigen and presents fragments on the outside of the cell for Tcells to find. Tcells find it, activate to form Tcytotoxic and Tmemory cells, and start Bcell production

79
Q

Which cells produce antibodies?

A

B cells differentiate into Plasma and Bmemory cells. Plasma are the antibody cells.

80
Q

When we have created antibodies to combat an antigen, our bodies are said to have ___?

A

seroconverted

81
Q

What cell degranulates when it comes in contact with an antigen? This degranulation creates a localized hyper-reaction (aka Allergic reaction)

A

a IGE cell

82
Q

What cavity of the bone contains RBCs, stem cells, fat cells?

A

medullary cavity

83
Q

What is the name of the top/bottom of a long bone?

A

epiphysis

84
Q

What is the shaft of a long bone

A

diaphysis

85
Q

When the Vagus nerve stimulates an effector organ to slow down for efficiency (think marathon runner can have a resting HR of 50), what is the term used to describe it?

A

vagatonia

86
Q

The heart is innervated by which system?

A

parasympathetic system

87
Q

The goal of the automatic regulation of the cardiovascular system is what?

A

meet metabolic demand for O2

88
Q

What is the initial stage for hypoperfusion?

A

increase the HR (this is a sympathetic response)

89
Q

Describe why we get cold/clammy with shock

A

10% of blood near skin. If volume decreases, we mobilize reserves of blood/fluid to core and skin gets cold/clammy. Body releases ADH, Angiotensin I/II and Aldosterone to retain water and vasoconstrict in order to increase BP

90
Q

Cardiac output calculation

A

SV x HR = CO

91
Q

What is corpulmonoly?

A

increased vascular resistance leading to R-sided heart hypertrophy and failure

92
Q

What does a positive chronotrope do?

A

increases HR

93
Q

What does a positive inotrope do?

A

increases the strength of contraction

94
Q

A calcium channel blocker, such diltiazem, does what?

A

decreases the strength of contraction and is therefore a negative inotrope

95
Q

What is lidocaine?

A

a sodium channel blocker

96
Q

Two types of cells in heart

A

contractile and electrical (conducting) cells

97
Q

What is the primary pacemaker of the heart

A

SA node

98
Q

Electrical pathway through the heart

A

SA node to AV node, to bundle of His, R/L bundle branches, perkinje fibers

99
Q

Part of heart that, as a fetus, allowed blood to move from R to L atria. Closed as an adult

A

foramen ovalis. Becomes fossa ovalis once closed

100
Q

Body part that connects venous and arterial systems as a fetus. It then closes and becomes a ligament that helps to suspend the heart and provide connection to the aorta

A

ductis arteriosis is the connection as a fetus. It becomes the ligamentum arteriosum. If disconnection with force, aorta dissection likely

101
Q

In myocardial cells, what gets epi ‘s neurotransmitter message into the cell?

A

a CaMP, or secondary messenger (adenosine blocks CaMP)

102
Q

Epi in blood stream is a ________, epi in cell is _________

A

hormone, neurotransmitter

103
Q

What is released to stimulate production of RBCs?

A

epo

104
Q

When is Epo released?

A

when there is decreased blood flow to the kidneys or a decrease in systemic O2 levels

105
Q

Where in the pancreas is insulin and glucagon produced?

A

insulin is produced in beta cells, glucagon is produced in alpha cells

106
Q

Does an RBC have a nucleus?

A

when it is in formation, yes. But to become a mature RBC, it ejects the nucleus.

107
Q

How much of an RBC is hemoglobin?

A

95%

108
Q

Thrombus vs. embolis

A

thrombus is a stationary clot, an embolis is a thrombus that has broken off and creates a blockage somewhere else

109
Q

Parts of upper airway:

A

nose, nasopharynx,mouth, oropharynx, pharynx

110
Q

Parts of lower airway:

A

larynx, trachea, bronchus, bronchioles, alveoli

111
Q

From trachea to alveoli:

A

trachea, carina, primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, alveoli

112
Q

Parts of the trachea from the larynx to the carina:

A

epiglottis covers trachea, hyoid bone, thyroid cartilage, cricothyroid ligament, cricoid cartilage, tracheal cartilages (c-shaped), carina

Human Anatomy & Physiology (1 decks)

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