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CMD ALL Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of explosive effects?

A

Blast
Fragmentation
Earth shock
Incendiary

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2
Q

Explain how an ISFE is attached to safety fuse?

A

Crimped twice, 90 degrees apart from the flat edge

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3
Q

Explain how a detonator is attached to safety fuse?

A

Crimped 5-10mm from the open end.

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4
Q

What are the 4 hazards associated with homing guidance?

A

RF emissions
High voltages
High pressure coolants
Toxins & carcinogens

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5
Q

What are the 3 identifying features of a Time Combustion Fuze (PTTF)?

A

Multi part body
Vent holes
Graduated Time scales

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6
Q

What are the 3 main purposes of driving band?

A
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7
Q

What do the following NATO colour codes indicate;
White –
Dark violet –
Black –
Grey –
Light green – Smoke
Silver –

A

White – Illuminating
Dark violet – Incapacitating
Black – Armour defeating
Grey – Riot control/toxic chemical
Light green – Smoke
Silver – Countermeasures

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8
Q

What are the two methods of firing naval mines?

A

Contact & Influence

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9
Q

A depth charge most common firing method is?

A

Hydrostatic pressure

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10
Q

What are the four sections of Torpedo?

A

Guidance
Warhead
Energy
Propulsion

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11
Q

What is the maximum time setting for fuzes known to function on short delay?

A

35 seconds

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12
Q

Name two ways of all ways acting fuzes?

A

Multi way & Universal

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13
Q

When should a detonator not be removed from a fuze pocket of a HE bomb?

A

After 14 days

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14
Q

What are the expected combinations of functioning actions likely to be present in a modular/smart fuze?

A

Anti-disturbance
Long delay
Influence
Impact (short delay)

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15
Q

Assuming a Crackbarrel LOT has been successful what result would you expect?

A

Fuze removed leaving the body of the munition with the main fill exposed.

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16
Q

What is the rearward safety distance of the De-Armer?

A

50m

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17
Q

In what position in store would an indirect action Fuze be fitted?

A

Tail

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18
Q

What 3 attachments can be added to ADW to reduce penetration/skipping?

A

Kopfring, anti-skipping plate, stabo

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19
Q

What is the purpose of retarded tail?

A

Slown down ADW inflight to orientate towards target allow and allow for separation from A/C.

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20
Q

Define the term ID?

A

Positive identification of an item EO.

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21
Q

Define the term diagnosis?

A

Determining the arming state of an item of EO.

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22
Q

When is a munition deemed as buried?

A

When it is 2.5x of its length deep.

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23
Q

When conducting s sub-munition search, what are the 6 key points of information that should be briefed to the team prior?

A

Threat
Hazards
Actions of find
Spacings
Baseline command
Area of search

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24
Q

What is the expected failure rate of submunitions?

A

10%, 30% operational

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25
Q

What standoff is required when using the De-armer in disruptor mode?

A

150mm

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26
Q

After how many firings are a Rocket Wrenches venturi’s replaced?

A

150

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27
Q

List five materials that a mine body can be constructed off?

A

Metal
Plastic
Wood
Explosive
Concrete

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28
Q

Who is responsible for the disposal of OME found on RAF property?

A

RAF

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29
Q

Who is responsible for the disposal of OME below the high water mark?

A

Royal Navy

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30
Q

Who is responsible for the disposal of German DW found on civilian property in the UK?

A

British Army

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31
Q

What is the explosive effect of an underwater ground/bottom line?

A

Bubble pulse

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32
Q

What are the four forms of detonation?

A

High order
Low order
Sympathetic
Burn to detonation

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33
Q

What are the four main characteristics of an explosion?

A

Heat
Light
Sound
Pressure

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34
Q

When disposing of rocket, generically where are the donor charges placed?

A

Warhead
Motor / Propellent
Venturi

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35
Q

When prodding what angle should be prodder be used at?

A

30 degrees

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36
Q

What are the three situations (uses) a booby trap could be used for?

A

Anti-personnel
Anti-vehicle
Runway cratering
Area denial

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37
Q

What are the two-key identifying feature of an anti-vehicle submunition?

A

Multi part construction
Requires stand off

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38
Q

When using D2, what is the minimum burn time of safety fuze that can be used?

A

4 minutes

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39
Q

What length of safety fuse is to be tested in accordance with JSP 364 and what time tolerance is applied?

A

300mm, 35-43 seconds

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40
Q
  1. What is the minimum contact required when connecting det cord with tape?
A

100mm

41
Q

From which organisation is UK EOD policy and Doctrine derived from?

A

NATO

42
Q

What are the two main hazards associated with armour penetrating shot projectiles?

A

DU, tracer pockets

43
Q
  1. At what distance do you start 1 in 3s procedures when dealing with influence fuzes/munitions?
A

10m

44
Q

What key information should the operator aim to identify during a long range recce?

A

Safe access route
Potential hazards
Secondary hazards
Confirm the target
Is there multiple targets
Possible reasons for failure

45
Q

List the options for dealing with access denial devices?

A

High order Deflagration Disruption Remote
Weight dropper Semi remote Manual

46
Q

What can be fitted to increase the accuracy of a GP bomb?

A

GPS, INS, Laser homing

47
Q

State the difference between an inline booster and a wrap around booster for a guided weapon?

A

After burn out inline boosters remain on the weapon
After burn out wrap around boosters are discarded from the weapon

48
Q

Explain the three stages or process for shielding a wire or plug?

A

3 layers of tape, 1 layer of aluminium foil and 1 layer of tape

49
Q

What are the three types of additional booster that are associated with guided weapon?

A

Inline booster
Strap on booster
Wrap around booster

50
Q

What are the four roles and categories of guided weapons?

A

AAM – short range, long range
ASM – tactical, strategic
SAM – Handheld, short range, long range
SSM – anti armour, tactical, strategic

51
Q

What type of fuze is expected as either primary or secondary means of initiation for all guided weapons?

A

Contact

52
Q

Explain the difference between a fuze and a pistol?

A

Pistols contain no explosives, fuzes contain explosives

53
Q

What are the six W’s?

A

What where when
Why who whether

54
Q

Generically what are the different types of protection/mitigation that can be used to reduce potential damage from OME?

A

Walls Surrounds Mounds
Trenches Vents Abutments

55
Q

Given an item weighing up to 2.5kg how many sandbags will give reasonable protection against splinters only?

A

32 sandbags

56
Q

What are the four categories of RSPs?

A

Component isolation/removal
Power interruption/removal
Mechanical incapacitation
Explosive neutralization

57
Q

What two options are available when considering access to a deep buried bomb?

A

Open cast & shafting

58
Q

When initiating by combination, what is the minimum length of safety fuse allowed?

A

150mm

59
Q

What stand off is required when using Baldrick?

A

200mm

60
Q

What is the waiting period after an Electrical misfire?

A

10 mins

61
Q

What is the waiting period after a combination (initiation) misfire?

A

30 mins

62
Q

What is the waiting period after a non-electrical misfire?

A

30 mins

63
Q

6 Once fuze removal has been successful, what is the preferred method of initiation used to destroy the body of the munition?

A

D4 stores own

64
Q

How long must the spare ends fo detonating cord be;

A

a. Without a sleeve – 300mm
b. With sealing sleeve – 100mm

65
Q

What is the VoD range of Primary high exlosives?

A

3500-5500 m/s

66
Q

What are the three groups that projectiles are divided into?

A

HE Carrier
Shot

67
Q

What does the symbol CCC represent on a munition?

A

The colour Effect

68
Q

What do the following NATO colour codes represent?

A

Silver – countermeasure
Violet – incapacitating
White – Illuminating

69
Q

What are the influence firing systems of naval weapons?

A

Magnetic
Acoustic
Seismic
Pressure

70
Q

At what distance should an EOD operator start magnetic influence precautions?

A

25m

71
Q

What are three effects of a booby trap?

A

Lower morale
Raise a sense of uncertainty Frustrate & delay military activity

72
Q

What are the three classifications of a booby trap?

A

Anti-personnel AV
Delayed action

73
Q

Name four of the in-service explosives?

A

PE8
SX4 FLCC
Det Cord

74
Q

When configuring the mini DRFD what is the recommended distance between the transmitter and the receiver?

A

2m

75
Q

During peacetime numerous items of LSA have been recovered from an area, which has had no previous military occupiers; who is responsible for ensuring the area is cleared?

A

British army – RLC

76
Q

What are the three methods of fuze immunisation?

A

Methods A, C, J

77
Q

What type of fuze is method A used against?

A

ECR – electro capacitor resistance

78
Q

State the makeup of method C?

A

1400170g salt HTH/HTB
0.5 litres luke warm water House hold bleach
Red dye Super tropical bleach

79
Q

What are the three temperature gradients used during a chemical task?

A

Inverse
Neutral
Lapse

80
Q

What chemical agents will turn three colour detector paper?

A

Red – H
Amber/Yellow – G
Green – V

81
Q

In quantities less than 12kg what 3 agents are best suited to control venting by agent code?

A

AC
CK
CG

82
Q

What are the ideal weather conditions when dealing with a chemical munition?

A

75 degree Fahrenheit
Strong lapse (-3)
5-25kph wind
1000-1600hrs

83
Q

What chemical agents can cam detect?

A

G – Nerve agents
H – Blister agents

84
Q

What is the maximum net quantity of propellant a DEOD Op can burn?

A

100kg

85
Q

What are the ten phases of an EOD task?

A

Tasking Arrival Location
Access Recce Identification/diagnosis
Damage limitation RSP Site remediation
Recovery/reporting

86
Q

Which protective works are the most appropriate to protect underground services outside the crater distance?

A

Trenching

87
Q

Earth shock is dependant on what three factors?

A

Size of the munition
Depth of the munition
NEQ of the munition

88
Q

What is an EOD operators responsibility during a tasking?

A

Execution of a safe and timely RSP
Safety of the team
Command of the team
Explosive safety
Restore situation to normal

89
Q

To what depth will vallon detect LMC and HMC items?

A

LMC – 150mm
HMC – 300mm

90
Q

List agencies that are available upon request to provide information during an EOD task?

A

DSTL, EODTIC, DEODTIS

91
Q

Which NATO EOD form is used to task an EOD/EOR?

A

EOD 200

92
Q

What are the four components of EOD/S policy?

A

Freedom of action
Preservation of life and assets
Restoration of life and assets
Restoration of normality
Gathering information

93
Q

What are the four EOD tasking categories and associated threat?

A

A – Grave and immediate threat to life
B – Indirect threat to life
C – Little threat
D – No threat at present

94
Q

What are the four different types of command guidance?

A

Wire
Radio
Beam rider
Electro optical

95
Q

What are the four different types of guidance section?

A

Homing
Command
Pre-set

96
Q

Name three identifying feature of a mechanical time fuze?

A

Multi part body Graduated time scale
No blow out holes

97
Q

What are the four main parts of a booby trap?

A

Firing mechanism
Explosive charge
Means of connecting mechanism to the charge
Means of concealment and operating the trap

98
Q

What are the five main methods of operation for M+BT?

A

Pull Pressure Tension release Pressure release Delay

99
Q
A

CMD (1 decks)

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