CMC Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is radiofrequency ablation? What can it treat?

A

-electrical energy that creates heat and causes thermal injury and local tissue destruction

Treats: 
AV nodal Reentry Tachycardia (AVNRT)
WPW
AFib (AV node ablation)- insert perm pacemaker too
Atrial tachycardia (SVT)
AFlutter
AFib- pulmonary vein ablation, MAZE
Monomorphic VT (pt has to be able to tolerate the VT for the procedure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is hypokalemia identified on ECG?

A

-ST segment depression, flattened T waves, enlarged U waves, prolonged QT interval

  • sometimes the U wave merges with the T wave to create a “camel hump” appearance
  • increased risk of Tdp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Defibrillation vs Cardioversion

A

Defib:

  • unsynchronized, delivered any point in cardiac cycle
  • used for VF and [pulseless] VT
  • pads anterolateral (right chest, left lateral)
  • Biphasic: 120-200 joules

Cardioversion:

  • SYNCHRONIZED on QRS (avoid hitting T wave)
  • used for VT with pulse, unstable Afib/Aflutter/SVT
  • pads anterior-posterior (goes thru short axis) [same for pacing]
  • 50-200 joules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the pacemaker codes?

A
  1. Chamber paced (A, V, Dual)
  2. Chamber sensed (none, A, V, Dual)
  3. Response to sensing (none, trigger, inhibit, Dual)

Triggered means- when it senses chamber, triggers output (uncommon)
Inhibited- when it senses chamber, inhibits output (meaning the pt’s own intrinsic beat is seen w/o pacing spike)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pacemaker capture vs sensing?

A

CAPTURE- ability of the pacing stimulus to depolarize the chamber being paced
following the pacing spike would be a p wave or QRS complex If these do no correlate with the pacing spike, then loss of capture is present (emergency in pacemaker dependent pt)

SENSING- ability of the pacemaker to recognize and respond to intrinsic depolarizations
***if there is no intrinsic activity to sense, this can’t be evaluated (meaning every beat has pacing spike)

**so essential, capturing is present if spike followed by expected cardiac cycle; sensing present if intrinsic beat recognized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is done to correct complete loss of capture?

A

Increase the mA (output) and reposition the patient, the wire is no longer in contact with the myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is done to correct loss of sensing?

A

Increase the sensitivity (turn dial to smaller number)

-if there is an intrinsic beat and a pacing spike followed with paced beat, then it was not sensed

**the danger with loss of sensing is the potential for pacemaker spikes landing too close to the T wave and initiating VT or VF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens if pacemaker oversenses?

A

Oversensing occurs when a pacer incorrectly senses noncardiac electrical activity and is inhibited from pacing. This may result in a heart rate lower than the preset rate.

[magnet turns off sensing]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 4 states of pacing with DDD pacing?

A
  • AV sequential pacing (paces pike, pwave, pace spike QRS complex)
  • Atrial pace, ventricular sense (creates atrial impulse that then conducts in the ventricle)
  • Atrial sense, ventricular pace (Senses atrial impulse, creates QRS complex)
  • all inhibited, no pacing

In DDD mode, there is no such thing as straight ventricular pacing, there is either always an atrial sensed beat or an atrial paced beat before the ventricular paced beat unless it has mode switched

-with dual pacing, the maget will turn off the atrial sensing to disrupt pacemaker mediated tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

External defibrillation for pt with ICD pad caution? What does the magnet do?

A
  • Do not place over generator, Pads should be 4-6inches away from ICD
  • It may take 2min or more to deliver all programmed therapies, so don’t wait and externally defib
  • The magnet deactivates arrhythmia detection and treatment functions, but does not turn off the pacemaker function [removal returns the ICD to previous programmed parameters]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is brugada syndrome?

A

Individuals with Brugada syndrome may experience irregular heartbeats (ventricular arrhythmias) or may have no apparent symptoms (asymptomatic).

-Inherited channelopathy gene mutations that affect regulation of cardiac sodium channels

Irregular heartbeats may cause difficulty breathing, loss of consciousness or fainting (syncope), seizures, and SUDDEN CARDIAC DEATH (usually 1st symptom)

ECG: STE >2mm w/ inverted Twave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does a LHC evaluate? What are the access points?

A
  • coronary arteries
  • LV function
  • measure LV & aortic pressures
  • mitral & aortic vavles
  • done for PCI procedures and catheter based valve procedures

~ARTERIES: femoral, radial, brachial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does a RHC evaluate? What are the access points?

A
  • Right heart function
  • measure PA pressures and CO
  • detect left-to-right shunt
  • pulmonic & tricuspid valves
  • perform EPS

~VENOUS: femoral, internal jugular, subclavian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Signs of cardiac perforation or tamponade?

A

Beck’s Triad: hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds

  • tachycardia
  • pulsus paradoxus (a fall of SBP of >10 mmHg during the inspiratory phase.)
  • dyspnea
  • chest pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Signs of pneumothorax?

A

dyspnea
unequal breath sounds
chest discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How can a hematoma and pseudoaneurysm be differentiated?

A

A pseudoaneurysm will have a pulsatile mass (thrill) with a systolic bruit over the insertion site. The blood flows in/out of hematoma cavity. So auscultate!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment for symptomatic SVT?

A

-Valslva maneuver, if that doesn’t work then urgent cardioversion.

[if pt not symptomatic with hypotension, chest pressure, nausea and dizziness, then give ADENOSINE to convert the pt]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are pts at risk for with posterior wall MI?

A

Papillary Muscle rupture (most common with inferior posterior STEMI)

  • may hear new holosystolic murmur
  • results in severe mitral valve regurgitation and subsequent acute life-threatening cardiogenic shock and pulmonary edema (crackles, new holosystolic murmur, sudden onset of SOB, narrow pulse pressure, hypotensive)
  • requires IABP to reduce LV afterload until surgical intervention (meds for arterial vasodilation can’t be tolerated d/t already being hypotensive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do you determine if there is right or left axis deviation or normal?

A

LEFT: This is reflected by a QRS complex positive in lead I and negative in leads aVF and II.
RIGHT: This is reflected by a QRS complex negative in lead I and positive in leads aVF and II.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is early sign that CO is decreasing?

A
  • narrowing of pulse pressure d/t rise in DBP

* as CO ↓the SNS compensates by ↑HR and causing peripheral vasoconstriction. The vasoconstriction causes DBP to rise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are late signs that CO is decreasing?

A

-drop in SBP, decreased UOP, and hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which lead is best to monitor a patient following coronary artery intervention?

A

Lead III
-It will show STE if there is RCA reocclusion and it will usually show ST depression if there is LAD or circumflex artery reocclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are EKG changes with Hyperkalemia?

A

Mild 5.5-6.5
-peaked T waves, narrow at base

Moderate 6.5-8

  • PR interval prolonged
  • P wave flattens or disappears
  • STE
  • QRS begins to widen

Severe >8

  • further widening of QRS
  • VF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 6 Ps of acute arterial occlusion?

A
Pallor- pale, delayed cap refill
Polar - cold to touch
Pain - distal in extremity
Pulseless- compare both sides
Paresthesa- numbness, tingling d/t ischemic nerve dysfxn
Paralysis- ischemia nerve dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Virchow’s Triad?

A

the theory that venous thrombobembolism occurs as a result of:

  • alterations in blood flow (statsis from bedrest)
  • vascular endothelial injury
  • alterations in the constituents of the blood (inherited or acquired hypercoagulable state)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are systolic murmurs?

A

Heard when the ventricles are squeezing:

  • Aortic stenosis (valve open but narrow)
  • Pulmonic stenosis (valve open but narrow)
  • Mitral regurg (closed but backflow occurs)
  • Tricuspid regurg (closed but backflow occurs)
  • Mitral valve prolapse
  • ASD
  • VSD
  • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are diastolic murmurs?

A

Heard when ventricles are filling:

  • Aortic regurg (closed but backflow occurs)
  • Pulmonic regurg (closed but backflow occurs)
  • Mitral stenosis (open but narrowed)
  • Tricuspid stenosis (open but narrowed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How does CPAP help?

A

maintains positive airway pressure at the end of expiration, rather than letting it return to zero. It’s basically PEEP.

[no machine breaths delivered, pt controls rate and TV]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is BiPAP used?

A

for pts w/ evidence of inadequate ventilation like increased work of breathing or elevated PaCO2 on ABG.

It’s biphasic positive airway pressure: pressure support during inspiration combined with CPAP (pressure at end of expiration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What presents as widespread ST elevation?

A

Pericarditis

[note: the pain is often relieved by sitting up and leaning forward]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How are NSTEMI and unstable angina differentiated?

A

by troponin I.

  • Unstable angina is pain at rest, or worsening of previously stable angina pattern
  • Best to test troponin 4hrs from onset of symptoms, rise is 4-6hrs.
  • There is no difference in ECG, since no STE.
  • Both have less stable platelet plug.
32
Q

STEMI management.

What is the goal for reperfusion?

A

PCI if within 90minutes from 1st medical contact

-If PCI can’t be done, then fibrinolytics s/b used within 30min of hospital presentation or EMS arrival

33
Q

When a pulmonary artery catheter is properly positioned, where are the proximal and distal ports?

A

Distal in branch of PA

Proximal in RA

34
Q

Signs of HIT? Treatment?

A

When Platelets drop by more than 50% from baseline, w/in 4-10 days after heparin started.

Can lead to HITT (thrombocytopenia + thrombus): can cause DVT, PE, limb gangrene, stroke, MI and other organ failure

—Pt can’t have any heparin products for life; alternatives are Factor Xa inhibitors: Fondaparinux (Arixtra), Rivaroxaban (Xarelto), Apixaban (Eliquis); and direct thrombin inhibitors: argatroban and bivalirudin (Angiomax)

35
Q

How much SL Nitro can be taken?

A

1 dose every 5 min, up to 3 doses.

If not relieved after 1st dose, pt should call 911 before taking 2nd dose

36
Q

What is the therapeutic purpose of TTM (targeted temperature management)?

A

-reduction in secondary brain injury by decreasing cerebral metabolic demand and decreasing cerebral edema

  • -this is in select pt following cardiac arrest; if pt unresponsive or unable to follow commands after ROSC
  • reduces free radical production, thus lowering risk of cerebral edema
37
Q

What are contraindications for fibrinolytic therapy in acute ischemic stroke?

A
  • blood glucose <50 (may be cause of neuro deficit)
  • severe HTN >185/>110
  • uncontrolled chronic severe HTN
  • recent oral anticoagulation with elevated aPTT, PT >15sec, INR > 1.7
  • arterial puncture at a non-compressible site w/in last 7 days (cardiac cath ok b/c it’s radial or femoral)
38
Q

Which valve is often affected from IV drug use?

A

Tricuspid b/c it is the first to receive venous blood
[causes endocarditis (inside) and results in regurgent valve]

  • **a complication associated with infective endocarditis is embolization of vegetation
  • -usually staph aureus (Heathcare Aquired) or streptococcal (Community acquired)
  • Janeway lesion (nontender hands/feet), Osler nodes (tender fingers/toes)
39
Q

What physiologic changes occur with the cooling phase of TTM?

A
  • K, Mg, Ca, Phos go into cells, reduce serum levels
  • vasoconstriction results in decreased perfusion, decr ADH and tubular dysfxn, and can cause 1-2L diurese in an hour (replace with fluids to maintain CVP 12-14)
  • elevated blood sugar d/t decrease in insulin production and results in insulin resistance

The opposite occurs with rewarming!

40
Q

What is the treatment for Afib RVR?

A

If pt stable, rate control with CCB or BB. First line drug is diltiazem.

If unstable, sync cardioversion.

41
Q

What is definition of metabolic syndrome?

A

Presence of 3 or more:

  • fasting glucose >100 or drug tx for elevated BG
  • HDL <40 in men, <50 in women or drug tx for it
  • Triglycerides >150 or drug tx for it
  • BP >135/>85 or drug tx for HTN
  • waist circumference equal or 40+ in men, 35+ in women
42
Q

What antiarrhythmic is used to treat wide QRS tachycardia?

A

Amiodarone if pt stable.

[If unstable immediate sync cardioversion]

43
Q

What does blood in IABP tubing indicate?

A

Balloon rupture.
-need to put on standby or disconnect the balloon from the console to stop the movement of helium (which can cause gas embolus).

44
Q

How is an acute aortic aneurysm managed?

A
  • important to control BP and HR, low as possible while maintain organ function
  • goal is SBP 100-120 and HR <60 to reduce pressure on aneurysm, and decrease contractility to reduce stress on aortic wall
  • BB 1st line drug for HR and contractilty, can add nitroprusside as arterial dilator; and morphine for pain
45
Q

The four main classes of drugs for HTN tx are?

A

Thiazide diuretic, CCB, ACEI, ARB

46
Q

Criteria for receiving r-tPA for acute ischemic stroke?

A
  • age 18-80, present w/in 3hrs of symptoms onset or last time known to be normal, and no hemorrhage present; a NIHSS score >4 with two coming from motor deficit
  • Excluded from this window are age >80, takes oral anticoagulants regardless of INR, baseline NIHSS >25, imaging showing ischemia in more than 1/3 of middle cerebral artery territory, hx of stroke and diabetes

**before starting r-tPA, BP must be <185/110, and maintained at <180/105 (IV labetalol, or nicardipine)

47
Q

Which condition shows shortened PR interval and delta waves on the ECG?

A

WPW syndrome

-conduction of a supraventricular impulse into the ventricle via and accessory pathway causes a short PR interval and initial slurring of the QRS complex due to ventricular preexcitation.

48
Q

Ventilator settings: which affects ventilation vs oxygenation?

A

TV and RR affect ventilation (look at HCO3 on ABG)- work of breathing (compliance & resistance)

FiO2 and PEEP affect diffusion/oxygenation (PaO2 on ABG)- CO2 into lungs to be blown off, and O2 into RBC

-if FiO2 already high, consider adjusting PEEP if pt not hypotensive (PEEP decreases venous return to heart)

49
Q

What are the Early Goal Directed Therapy for Resuscitation of Sepsis-Induced Hypoperfusion?

A

During the first 6hrs:

  • CVP 8-12mmHg; if intubated or has reduced LV compliance then CVP 12-15
  • MAP >65
  • UOP >0.5ml/kg/hr
  • SVO2 65% or ScVO2 70%

[normal values: CVP 2-6; SvO2 60-80%, ScVO2 70%]

50
Q

What are normal values for:

CO, CVP, PAOP, SVR, SvO2, ScVO2

A
CO, 4-8L
CVP, 2-6mmHg (right ventricle)
PAOP, 8-12 mmHg (left ventricle)
SVR, 800-1200 dynes (elevated with vasoconstriction)
PVR, 150-250 dyne
SvO2, 60-80%
ScVO2 70%
51
Q

What Hemoglobin A1C level diagnosis diabetes?

A

A1C > 6.5
levels b/w 5.7-6.4% indicated increased risk of DM
normal range is 4-5.6%

52
Q

When using PA catheter, waveforms should be evaluated when?

A

at the end of expiration; that’s when intrathoracic pressures are not being affected by breathing

53
Q

What medications are prescribed following a STEMI?

A
  1. BB indicated for all pts following ACS to ↓ventricular remodeling and reduce risk of future events.
    2+3. DAPT: ASA + P2Y12 inhibitor (clopidogrel, prasugrel, or ticagrelor) to prevent in-stent thrombosis
  2. High intensity stain for all ACS pts who can tolerate

If pt had anterior MI with EF <40%, also ACEI or ARB

54
Q

Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy, what medications worsen the condition?

A

LV outflow obstruction is worsened with increased contractility and decreased LV filling (preload).

  • do NOT give vasodilators, positive inotropes, diuretics.
  • **GIVE BB/CCB to slow HR and contractility, which allow more filling time
55
Q

A complication of fibrinolytic therapy is cerebral bleed. What are signs this is occurring with r-tPA administration?

A

a severe h/a, N or V, acute HTN, or a new deficit in neuro exam

56
Q

What is the difference b/w a P2Y12 inhibitor and a GP IIb/IIIa Inhibitor?

A

P2Y12 inhibitor: prevent platelet activation
-(clopidogrel, prasugrel, or ticagrelor)

GP IIb/IIIa inihibitor: prevent platelet aggregation
-(abciximab [Reopro], eptifibatide [Integrilin], itrofiban [Aggrastat])

57
Q

What is happening when HIT occurs? (heparin induced thrombocytopenia)

A

Heparin binds w/ platelet factor 4, forming a Heparin-PF4 complex that stimulates an immune rxn involving formation of antibodies against the complex. The complex binds to platelets, causing platelet activation and thrombin generation –> lead to intravascular thrombosis. Platelets are removed from circulation and leads to thrombocytopenia.

58
Q

What should be considered when there is profound HTN and high pressure alarm for a ventilated patient?

A

pneumothorax, results in a sudden increase in peak inspiratory pressure.

59
Q

What are 2 of the most common causes of Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN)?

A
  1. prolonged ischemic injury
  2. nephrotoxic agents

i.e. cardiogenic shock with coexisiting contrast induced nephropathy after an emergent interventional procedure

60
Q

What medications are prescribed for vasospasms?

A

CCB- verapamil and diltiazem

61
Q

Why is epinephrine a 1st line drug for any pulseless condition?

A

It has positive inotropic effects and selectively shunts blood to heart and brain.

It has both alpha and beta stimulating effects.
Beta increases contractility.
Alpha causes vasoconstriction, but it’s selective–it causes constriction in all vascular beds EXCEPT HEART, BRAIN, AND SKELETAL MUSCLES.

Therefore, CO from CPR goes to heart and brain. Once perfusing rhythm restored, helps improve contractility.

62
Q

Which medications are used for chemical stress testing?

A
  1. Dobutamine
  2. Dipyridamole [Antiplatelet + vasodilator]
  3. Adenosine
  4. Regadenoson (Lexiscan) [A2A adenosine receptor agonist- coronary vasodilator]
63
Q

S&S of Pericarditis

A
  • pleuritic sharp/stabbing CP
  • aggravated by inspiration, cough, and supine position
  • relieved by sitting up and leaning forward
  • pericardial friction rub (can be heard when pt holds breath as well)
  • global STE (except V1)
64
Q

What is the most common cause of SCD in young athletes?

A

hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy,

  • *primarily genetic, DISARRAY OF MYOFIBRILS –> this is hypertrophy of ventricle mass w/o the increased ventricular afterload (THE OUTFLOW TRACT VERY NARROW d/t to the hypertrophy)
  • -really rely on atrial kick for filling

Most SCD occurs d/t structural heart dz (CAD, myocarditis, cardiomyopathies)

Others LQTS, SQTS, Brugada, WPW

65
Q

What is dosing of r-tPA?

A
  1. 9mg/kg (max dose 90mg)
    - first 10% given as bolus in 1 min
    - remainder over 59min
66
Q

Most common cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

amyloidosis

  • this is a diastolic filling issue, normal systolic fxn
  • the ventricles are stiff, atrium are enlarged d/t non compliant ventricles
  • s/s related to ↓ volume ejected, leading to HALLMARK SIGN of restrictive CM–ELEVATED RA PRESSURE
67
Q

How is Tako-Tsubo CM diagnosed?

A

STE w/o CAD, can see ballooning of LV

68
Q

What does the PaO2/FiO2 ratio tell us?

A

Normal is well above 300
ALI <300
ARDS < or = 200

intrapulmonary shunting is occuring, alveoli Co2 rise and O2 fall

PaO2 60/FiO2 0.50 = 120

69
Q

What infusions can cause a falsely high SpO2?

A

high fat content like propofol or TPN

70
Q

What does a COPD pt ABG look like?

A

COPDers are chronic CO2 retainers that live in a compensated state.

Compensated Respiratory acidosis w/ hypoxemia

71
Q

What are FiO2 limitations to prevent oxygen toxicity?

A

100% no more than 24hrs
60% nor more than 2-3 days
40% for longer term therapy

72
Q

What is ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome) and its causes?

A

acute respiratory failure, with pulmonary edema (non-cardiac related) with refractory hypoxemia.

–severe and diffused lung injury
Pathophys: inflammatory response causing micro vascular injury with increase capillary permeability, pulm edema, hypoxic vasoconstriction (compensatory), alveolar collapse, intrapulmonary shunting, decreased lung compliance

CAUSES: 
Sepsis is most common, shock
Aspiration
Trauma
Pancreatitis
Massive transfusion
73
Q

Chest tubes assessment

A

Water seal chamber should have slight fluctuation (tidaling)- rise with inspiration and fall with expiration

continuous Bubbles represents air leak

74
Q

What medication can cause a false positive ECG changes during stress testing?

A

Digitalis (Digoxin)
-ST segment depression.
For a planned stress test, withhold b/c it has negative chronotropic effects

75
Q

Cor Pulmonale on ECG shows what? Echo?

A

ECG: an increase in electrical forces and Right axis deviation with predominant R waves in V1

ECHO: tricuspid regurgitation d/t high pulmonary pressures and resistance to forward flow of fluid outside of the pulmonary system. Over time, this pressure will enlarge the RA and RV chamber size and muscle causing RV hypertrophy

76
Q

Septic shock

A

decreased CO and SVR
high lactate, not responsive to IVF
hyperglycemia