CM heme/onc Flashcards

1
Q

what are four things that anemia can come from?

A
  1. excessive blood loss
  2. destruction (hemolysis) of RBC
  3. deficient RBC production because of nuitritional elements
  4. bone marrow failure
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2
Q

polycythemia

A

increase in red blood cell count

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3
Q

erythropoietin

A

hormone that increases production of RBC in response to decreases O2 levels in the tissues, released by the kidneys

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4
Q

erythrocyte characteristics

A

mature RBC, biconcave disk, no nucleus

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5
Q

what does sideroblastic anemia mean?

A

term for the failed synthesis of RBC (bone marrow not working correctly)

(thalessemia, sickle cell, idiopathic)

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6
Q

RBC count test

A

measures the total # of RBC in microliter of blood

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7
Q

percentage of reticulocytes (immature RBC)

A

an index of the rate of red blood cell production

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8
Q

hematocrit test

A

percent of RBC in blood by volume. (spin down the reb and divide volume by total volume plus serum)

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9
Q

mean corpuscular volume, MCV

A

size of RBC, average volume size of the RBC

microcytic, macrocytic, normocytic

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10
Q

mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration MCHC

A

concentration of hemoglobin in EACH cell

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11
Q

color of hemoglobin terms

A

normochromic, hypochromic, hyperchromic

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12
Q

mean cell hemoglobin (MCH)

A

average hemoglobin weight/mass in each cell

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13
Q

CBC test

A

includes:

counts: number of red blood cells
hemoglobin: measure of the functional portion of RBC, weight
hematocrit: percent of RBC in blood by volume

MVC: mean cell volume, average size of rbc

MCH: hem

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14
Q

what is anemia? what does this result in?

A

abnormall low number of circulating RBCs or low concentration of hemoglobin

results in tissue hypoxia

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15
Q

what two things account for half of the anemia found worldwide?

A

parsitic/infectious disease

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16
Q

what are 5 red blood cell functions?

A

1. transport oxygen

  1. transport CO2
  2. acid/base metabolism
  3. maintain viscosity/vascular tone
  4. plug clots in addition to platelets
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17
Q

what are three main things you do to increase O2 delivery by RBC?

A
  1. increase blood flow or Q (stands for blood flow)
  2. increase red cell mass or hemoglobin
  3. increase O2 extraction
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18
Q

if the body is trying to increase blood flow or Q in response to oxygen demand, what 2 things would you see?

A

1. increase cardiac output

(HR, pressure, murmers, bruits, tinnitis)

2. changes in tissue perforation

(shunt blood from skin and kidney to rain, heart, and muscle, this is why you get pale!, increases erthropoeitin)

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19
Q

if the body is trying to increase the red cell mass, what would you see?

what happens of the EPO is really high?

what happens to the viscosity of the blood?

A

Kidneys->EPO->marrow erythropoiesis->reticulocytosis and increase #RBC

this accound for growing pains

  • if EPO really high can stimulated maturity outside of the BM*
  • this increases viscosity of the blood*
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20
Q

explain what the body does in oxygen extraction to increase the oxygen profusion into the tissues? which way does the curve shift?

A

2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) binds to hemoglobin and decreases hgb affinity for oxygen, this causes it to be released into the tissues

“makes it harder for oxygen to stay attacked to hgb”

shifts dissociation curve to the right

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21
Q

what is the gold standard for anemia detection?

A

Red blood cell count

(difficult to do)

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22
Q

what is the definition of anemia according to the WHO?

A

hb<12.5 gm/dl

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23
Q

what concentration of hemoglobin are people typically symptomatic? what concentration is considered the be anemia?

A

anemic: 12.5 gm/dl
symptomatic: 10gm/dl

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24
Q

what is the first thing you should look at when addressing anemia? what percentage of these are normal in the blood? how much larger are these than regular RBC? what do you see in them that is different then regular RBC?

A

reticulocyte count

normal: .5-2.5% of RBC are reticulocytes (10% larger than red blood cells)

reticular network of RNA

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25
Q

explain the MCV values that are associated with microcytic, normocytic, and macrocytic RBC?

A

microcytic: <80
normocytic: 80-100
macrocytic: >100

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26
Q

what two anemias would you see microcytic RBC?

A

Fe deficiency

sideroblastic lead poisoning

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27
Q

in decreased RBC production you get:

low reticulocyte, normocytic RBC

low reticulocyte, macrocytic RBC

what 4 conditions would you see in the first? and what 3 conditions would you see in the second?

A

low reiculocyte count and normocytic

  1. anemia of chronic disease
  2. bone marrow failure
  3. RBC aplasia
  4. low erythropoeitin (renal failure)

low reticulocyte, macrocytic

  1. B12 deficiency
  2. folate deficiency
  3. hypothyroidism
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28
Q

if normal to elevated reticuloctye, and normocytic

…..

what two categories does this indicate? what are four conditions in the second category?

A
  1. hemmorage
  2. hemolysis

(G6PD, sepsis, ABO incompatability, spherocytosis)

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29
Q

if normal to increased reticulocyte, and microcytic this means…

A

hemoglobinopathies

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30
Q

what is iron essential for?

A

developing bactericidal free radicals in neutrophils

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31
Q

what is the most common anemia in the world? what causes it?

what about in america?

A

iron deficient anemia!!

MOSTLY FROM PARASITES!! GROSS

In america: menses

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32
Q

Iron Deficient Anemia

what size and color? what two unique characteristics about this cell type hint: shape? what are 3 main causes? what should you always suspect? what are 5 unique presentations you might see on PE? what is the treatment? for how long?

A

hypochromic, microcytic anemia (since no iron to give shape or color)

anisocytosis (unequal size) and piokilocytosis (tear drop shapped)

common causes: blood loss (menses, occult from colon, esophagus, stomach), pregnancy, vegan diet

**always suspect malignancy**

pica (eating dirt/paint), cheilosis, koilonchia “spoon nails”, glottitis “smooth tongue”, esophageal webs, pallor, tachycardia

treatment: Ferrous sulfate 325 mg 3x a day, vitamin C to make absorb better and uptitrate, OR GLUCONATE which is IM or IV

TREAT FOR 6 MONTHS!!

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33
Q

what can cause blood loss in iron deficient anemia? 4 things

A

GI blood loss from NSAIDS, PUD, cancer

blood donation

trauma

menses

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34
Q

where is iron absorbed? where is it stored? how is it transported?

A

absorbed: duodenum and jejunum bound as transferrin

stored: mostly in liver, spleen, and bone

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35
Q

what would you see on the labs for iron deficient anemia?

5 things!

A
  1. Low Iron <50
  2. High TIBC (since none to bind, very avaliable)
  3. low ferritin (since none to store)
  4. low reticulocyte
  5. hypochromic, microcytic cells
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36
Q

if a woman is pregnant….does iron deficient anemia effect the baby?

A

YES!!

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37
Q

what is the number one cause of iron deficient anemia? what are 3 other causes?

A
  1. blood loss! need to find the cause!!

2. malignancy! need to think about this

  1. dietary, vegan!! less common
  2. poor iron absorption/ trauma
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38
Q

sideroblastic anemia (lead poisoning)

what are the size of the cells? reticulocyte count? platelets? what are three unique lab results you will see with lab testing? what will the patient present with for symptoms? what do you do for treatment depending on the levels of lead in the blood? what does the location of the lead tell you about how long it has been in the body? what does the bone marrow produce?

A

microcytic, decreased reticulocytes, low platelets

basophilic stippling, elevated lead, erythrocyte protoporphyrin, bone produces ringed sideroblasts instead of health RBC

PE: lead on the gum lines, vomiting, abdominal pain

high serum levels: acute attack

if in the bone: hard to tell how long its been there

BLL>20, medical and environmental intervention

BLL>45, chelation

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39
Q

what do you need to caution for in children with lead poisoning aka sideroblast anemia? what happens in this?

A

reduced hemoglobin synthesis cause iron accumulation esp in mitochondria

watch for neurological symptoms in children

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40
Q

Vitamin B12 deficient anemia

what size and color at these RBC? what factor sets this appart from folate deficient anemia and what are the 5 presentations? what are the 6 things that can cause this and where are the two general sections of the GI system that are effected? what are the 4 important lab results that point to this?

A

macrocytic/megloblastic anemia, normochromic

can occur from vegan diet, bariatric gastric surgery (MOST COMMON WAY TODAY), ilium resection, chrons disease, pernicious anemia (no intrinsic factor), gastritics

neurologic symptoms, stocking glove paresthesia, loss of position, vibratory sense, balance, glottitis

On lab exams find:

1. antibodies for intrinsic factor

2. MCV >103

2. serum b12 low

4. multinucleated neutrophils!!! 5-6 lobes

Tx: oral supplement or cyanocobalamin nasal spray

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41
Q

explain how B12 is absorbed and which conditions effect these stages?

A

B12 is bound to intrinsic factor that prevents it from being absorbed until it reached the ilieum

chrons disease, ilium ressection effect: where it is absorbed

gastric surgery, pernicious anemia, gastritis effect: where intrinsic factor is made

***both of these cause B12 deficiency either in its protection or its absorption!***

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42
Q

what cells produce intrinsic factor that are important for the absorption of B12? where are they located?

A

parietal cells in the stomach

gastritis PUD can prevent this from working

no intrinsic factor, no absorption

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43
Q

what are three things can cause poor absorption of B12 for anemia?

A

alcoholism

fish tapeworm

elevated LDH

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44
Q

what are the 3 treatment options for B12 deficient anemia?

A
  1. life long vitamin B supplement IM monthly (1000 ug)

2. cyanocobalasmin nasal spray

***neuro symptoms are reversible if treated within 6 months***

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45
Q

explain the schillings test and what it tells you?

A

tells you which there is a B12 deficiency

if pernicious anemia where no intrinsic factor: no b12 in blood

if give intrinsic factor and see B12 in the urine then: pernicious anemia

if no B12 in the uring after intrinsic factor then: problem with absorption in illium, not intrinsic factor

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46
Q

G6PD deficient anemia

what genetic link is this connected with? what two populations of people is this common in? what size are the cells? what is one unique presentation do you see? exposure to what 3 things can cause this? what are the 5 things you will see on the lab results? how is it treated?

A

x-linked recessive, african america males (12%), or greeks/mediteranean (20-30%)

normocytic anemia, increased risk of HEMOLYSIS UNDER STRESS,jaundice

G6PD protects RBC agains oxidative stress that can damage the RBC beyond repair

fava beans

infection

oxidative drugs

heinz bodies, low G6PD, bite cells, increased reticulocytes and serum bilirubin

Tx: self limiting, when the the stressor is resolved then normal RBC produced again

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47
Q

what are the 5 drugs and 1 infection that can cause oxidative stress for someone with a G6PD deficiency?

A
  1. aspirin
  2. FAVA BEANS
  3. sulfa drugs
  4. quinidine
  5. antimalarials
    condition: hepatitis
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48
Q

what are people with G6PD deficient anemia at increased risk to get?

A

DMT2 since buildup of unused glucose

IDK WHY! just does?!

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49
Q

hemmoragic anemia

what do you see initially? after 1 week? and in extreme cases or long bleeding what would you see in iron panel?

A

initially: normochromic normocytic

1 week: increase in young RBC and reticulocytes

if significant hemmorage or decreased iron stores: decreased Fe, increased TIBC, decreased ferritin

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50
Q

hemoglobin synthesis is critcally dependent on….

A

IRON!! needed to make it in the bone marrow

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51
Q

sickle cell anemia

what is the inhertiance pattern? what is the difference between heterozygous/homozygous? when do the problems first occur? where is the mutation? what are 8 things that can prompt sickeling? what are 7 presentations you can see with this disorder?

A

autosomal recessive
heterozygous 1 Hb S gene: 40%

homozygous 2 Hb SS gene: 80-95%

problems start about 6 months after birth during transition from Hb-F to Hb

mutation in B chain, cause it to sickle under/from:

dehydration, hypoxia, acidosis, infection, temp changes, exertion, alcohol, medical procedures

causes acute painful syndrome, acute chest syndrome, splenic sequestration, aplastic crisis, hemolytic crisis, hand foot disease, “silent” cerebral infarction (35%, subtle but permanent)

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52
Q

what is this and what condition do you commonly see this with?

A

hand and foot syndrome seen with sickle cell

commonly the first presentation

soft tissue swelling with new bone formation and moth eaten lytic process at proximal aspect of fourth phalanx

no leukocytosis or erythema with the swelling

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53
Q

what is the goal for the Hb and HbSS for patients with sickle cell?

A

Hb>10%

HbSS <30%

helps to determine when transfusion or intervention are required

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54
Q

explain the pathphys of sickle cell

A

increased RBC destruction

inability to maintain hemoglobin

sickling of cells=increased blood viscosity and ostruction

MORE FRAGIL=hemolysis!

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55
Q

what is the life expectancy for a pt with sickle cell?

A

40-50 years

die young from infections

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56
Q

Explain actute painful crisis and acute chest syndrome seen in sickle cell pts

A

acute painful crisis:

excrutiating, can occur anywhere

acute causes vasco occlusion and ishchemia

acute chest syndrome

25% of deaths!

respiratory distress

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57
Q

explain aplastic crisis seen in sickle cell and the five things that can cause it?

A

stop of RBC production, and since their RBC live so much short ~20 days, they get EXTREME drop in hemoglobin causing aplastic crisis

parvarovirus B19, infection, bone marrow toxins HPV, folic acid deficiency

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58
Q

explain the hemolytic crisis seen in sickle cell and what patients with another disease is this commongly seen with? what two things can prompt this?

A

higher rate of hemolysis than normal

frequently in patient with G6PD deficient

actute bacterial infection/oxidatative drugs

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59
Q

what do sickle cell patients need to avoid?

A

altitiudes over 7,000 feet and deep sea diving!

induces sickling

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60
Q

what do you see for lab results for a patient with sickle cell? 6 things!!

A
  1. howell jolly bodies

2. Hgb S >50%

3. hb 6-8

4. RBC last 10-20 days

  1. high reticulocytes
  2. high ferritin/serum bilirubin
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61
Q

what treatment options are avaliable for someone with sickle cell?

A
  • hydration
  • pain meds!!
  • transfusion
  • folate supplementation
  • iron chelation if Fe overload
  • preventative vaccines for S. pneumonia, H. influenzae

-prophylatic penicillin from birth to 6 years

hydroxyurea

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62
Q

explain hydroxyurea for sickle cell patients 3 things

A
  1. Decrease DNA synthesis
  2. Inhibit sickling
  3. Increase Hb F inhibits Hb sickling

**prevents complications and increases life span**

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63
Q

what are sickle cell patients are increased risk for?

(6 things)

A
  • infection with encapsulated organisms
  • aseptic necrosis
  • CVA
  • chronic leg ulcers
  • splenic infarc THESE PATIENTS ARE ASPLENIC (DON’T HAVE A SPLEEN THAT WORKS WELL SO NEED TO MAKE SURE THEY ARE VACCINATED ESP AGAINST STREP PNEUMONIA
  • retinopathy
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64
Q

explain HbSC and HbSS in sickle cell

A

Hb SC is the trait for sickle cell, heterozygous and range of symptoms vary

Hb SS the disease for sickle cell, homozygous, severe disease

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65
Q

anemia of chronic disease

what three cytokines are released? this causes what 3 things to decrease? what 2 things to increase? what 8 things can cause it? what 3 lab results are important? what do you do to treat it?

A

chronic inflammation and activation of IL1, IL6 and TNF

leads to decrease of EPO, transferrin synthesis, GI absorption

increased iron storage/ferritin, increase iron storage in macrophages

osteomyelitis, endocarditis, TB, HIV, malignancy, autoimmune (RA, SLE), IBS, Renal failure

ferritin elevated (since body storing it), TIBC decreased (since stored not circulating), low iron

Tx: treat underlying condition, it will go away

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66
Q

beta thalaseemia

what chain is effected in this? what parts of the world is this common in? what unique cell do you see in the lab results? what are the two main classifications of B thalaseemia? when is the more severe on diagnosed? what are four clincial presentations of this? what are 3 treatment options? what do you want to keep [hb] at? what test do you use to tell the difference between Fe and thallessemia?

A

deficient synthesis of B-globin chain of hemeoglobin
(results in increase A) African/mediteranneans

HEINZ BODY CELLS!! “Target cells” “HAIR ON END APPEARANCE ON XRAY”, FRONTAL BOSSING

minor: heterozygous, sufficient Hb sythesis

major: homozygous! SEVERE transfusion dependent anemia, diagnosed 1st year of life when hb F turns to Hb A (adult) “cooleys anemia”

growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, abnormal facial formation, fractures/osteopenia, delayed or absent puberty, hypogonadism

Tx: regular blood transfusions to keep hemoglobin at 12 mg/dl, avoid Fe supplements, bone marrow transplant/splenectomy

MENTZER INDEX

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67
Q

which one is more severe B thalmassemia or A thalmessmia?

A

B thalmassemia because the accumulation of A chains is more toxic

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68
Q

how are the thalassemias named?

what are the general treatments listed by professor? (4 treatments)

A

FOR WHAT THEY ARE DEFICIENT IN!!!

1. blood transfusion with chelation

2. hydroxyurea (increases HbF)

3. bone marrow transplant

4. splenectomy

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69
Q

xalpha thalessemia

what are the deficient in? what type of cells can be present? what nationality of people are most common? explain the four stages? size and color? what lab results remain normal? what do you treat with? what should you avoid?

A

deficient a-globin chain, 4 stages target cells Heinz bodies!!

ASIANS

usually diagnosed if iron supplemets for suspected iron deficient don’t work

  1. silent carrier, 1 gene deleted
  2. trait, 2 gene deleted leading to mild hemolytic anemia
  3. Hb “H”, 3 genes deleted, hemolytic anemia without transfusion need
  4. lethal at birth, hydrops (seen in pic)

microcytic hypchromic but not very anemia, normal iron, TIBC, ferritin

Tx: folic acid supplement, avoid iron, if that doesn’t work then transfusion but not dependent like B thalassemia

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70
Q

aplastic anemia

what is this? exposure to what 6 things can cause this? what are the two age groups? what are the symptoms? what are the two treatments?

A

hypoproliferative anemia, low marrow activity decreased RBC, WBC, and platelets
“panocytopenia”

unknown cause but can be from radiation, chemo, toxins, meds, autoimmune, tumors of thymus

Biphasic: 12-25 and 60+

PE: insidious onset, mucosal hemmorage, mennorhasia, epitaxis (lots of bleeding since less RBC), palpations, systolic ejection

TX: stem cell replacement bone marrow 75% survive

in those that don’t qualify chemo therapy remission in 50% of people

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71
Q

folate deficiency

what is the most common cause of this? what are four things that can cause this? what size are the cells? what two things do you see on the labs? what 5 drugs can cause this? what is the treatment?

A

most often caused by poor dietary intake, low fruits and veggies

absorbed in the ileum

macrocytic, hypersegmented PMN, folate <150

alcoholics, defective absorption (chrons, ulcerative collitis), pregnancy, folic acid antagonist drugs

drugs: methotrexate, alcohol, phenytoin, trimethoprim-sulfamethozole, sulfasalazine

tx: 1 mg folic acid a day

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72
Q

spherocytosis

who is it common in? what test should you do? what can you often get with this? what is the treatment?

A

congenital, Northern europeans

RBC shaped like spheres, causing premature hemolysis

COOMBS test! it is autoimmune, checks for these antibodies

gallstones

splenectomy cures it but doesn’t help abnormal shape since the spleen gets rid of the abnormally shapped cells. taking this out allows the cells to live longer.

osmosity fragility test gold standard?! (wikki)

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73
Q

what are the 5 stages of hemostasis? (stoppage of blow flow)

A
  1. vessel spasm
  2. formation of platelet plug
  3. blood coagulation and development of insoluable fibrin clot
  4. clot retraction
  5. clot dissolution
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74
Q

prothrombin time (PT) test

A

used to monitor warfarin, test liver funciton, and vitamin k definiceny

TESTS extrinsic pathway

factor VII first to drop

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75
Q

partial prothrombin time (PTT) tests

A

how long it take the blood to clot from the intrinsic pathway

used to monitor the effectivness of heparin!!

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76
Q

explain why PT and PTT are usually run together?

A

they both share the same final pathway so by only running one you can’t tell which one it is, if its before or at the shared part

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77
Q

when is the intrinsic clotting pathway initiated

A

damage to the inside of the blood vessel

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78
Q

when is the extrinsic pathway activated for clotting?

A

tissue damage

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79
Q

PT-INR test, when do you start to worry about bleeding?

A

standardizes the PT across different labs

1= normal

4.5=worry about bleeding

used to monitor bleeding

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80
Q

thrombin time test

A

thrombin is the enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin in the last step of coagulation, estimates the rate of formation of fibrin

mix patient plasma with commercially supplied thrombin and measures clot time

also tests presence of heparin/fibrinolysis

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81
Q

what are normal levels of platelets?

what level do you worry about bleeding?

what level do you worry about spontaneous bleeding?

A

normal platelets: 150,000-450,000

risk of bleeding <50,000

danger zone, risk of spontaneous hemmorage <10,000

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82
Q

what/when do thrombocytopenia purpuras develope?

A

big bruising from low platelets

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83
Q

what are three important parts that help prevent agains abnormal clotting?

A

protein C, S, antithrombin II

these make the fibrolytic system

if one of these aren’t there you get abnormal clotting!

breaks down clot after formation and prevents abnormal clotting, allows for wound repair and healing

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84
Q

coumadin

A

anticoagulant that interferes with vitamin k dependent factors

extrinsic=VII=PT=coumadin

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85
Q

heparin

A

increases antithrombin III

intrinsic=PTT= 12, 11, 9,8=heparin

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86
Q

what five drugs can cause thrombocytopenia?

A

sulfa, quinine, NSAIDS, heparin, penicillin

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87
Q

idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)

what happens in this? what are the two types and the characteristics of each (who, platelet #)? what are the two main causes of this? what is the treatment?

A

immune system destroys platelets

acute: self limited, autoimmune IgG diorder children 10,000-20,000, eosinphilia

chronic: any age, coexists with other autoimmune disease 25,000-75,000

autoimmune or VIRAL CAUSE IN CHILDREN!

post infection, HIV, Lupus, malignancies (MUST RULE THIS OUT!!!)

TX: glucocorticoids (steroids), IV Ig. splenectomy

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88
Q

thrombolic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)

what happens in this? what are four presentations this can take? two pain concepts behind this that it causes? what are four test results? what are thet two treatment options?

A

development of clots in microcirculation because of microvascular damage (this caused by pregnancy/autoimmune)

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (intravascular hemolysis with consumptive thrombocytopenia)

microvascular occlusions cause widespread ischemia causing purpura, abdominal pain, neurologic symptoms because of hypoxia, and renal dysfunction

intravascular hemolysis (RBC get damanged trying to move through the clots and rupture) and consumptive thrombocytopena (all platelets used up in clotting)

testing: decreased platelets, hemoglobin, reticulocyte. increas in bilirubin (shows RBC lysis)

TX: plasma exchange transfusion, glucocorticoids

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89
Q

von willebrand thrombocyte

what type of genetic inheritance does this show? what happens in this? explain the 3 types? where do you see the bleeding? what are 4 lab findings (3 abnormal)? what pathway does this effect? what are the 2 treatment options?

A

deficient/defect in vWF, autosomal dominant

deficiency vWF: doesn’t stabalize factor VIII or allow platelets to stick to the vessel wall for clotting

prolongs bleeding time! RISTOCETIN ACTIVITY IS THE GOLD STANDARD TO TEST (ABX that tests coagulation in vitro)

type 1: most common, mild bleeding 75-80%

type 2: vWF abnormal

type 3: rare, most severe, low vWF and factor VIII

bleeding: nasal, sinus, vagina, GI, menses

LABS: LOW vWF, PT NORMAL, PFA (PLATELET FUNCTION ABNORMAL), PTT ABNORMAL SINCE EFFECTS THE INTRINSIC PATHWAY WITH FACTOR VIII

TX:

  1. Cryoprecipitate (plasma with vWF and VIII)-surgery/complications
  2. vaspressin DDAVP/vasopressin (stimulates release of vWF from endothelia cells)
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90
Q

in von willebrand thrombocyte, what can the decreased levels of Factor VIII lead to?

A

pseudohemophilia A

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91
Q

hemophilia A “classic”

what genetic heredity type is this? what happens in this? what do you need to differentiat it from and how do you do that? what are four clincial presentations and what is the key one? what 3 tests are improtant? what are the two treatment options?

A

deficiency of Factor VIII which is needed for clotting, x-linked recessive males

excessively long clotting time, most severe bleeding disorder

hemarthrosis (KEY!!), bleeding after circumcision, intracranial bleeding, compartment syndrome (increased pressure in arm/leg/confined space) epitaxis, bleeding into small tissues,

**include neuro bleeding and hemarthrosis/compartment syndrome**serious bleeding

factor VIII low, PTT prolonged, vWF normal(differentiates with von wilebrand), normal PT, PFA, fibrinogen, platelet count!!

TX: fresh prozen plasma, recombinant factors, prophylaxis with recombinant factor VIII, desmopression (increases VIII)

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92
Q

hemophilia B

“xmas disease”

what is the deficency here? what is the genetic hereditary? males or females? where are 3 common places to have bleeding? what are two important lab results? what are two treatment options?

A

deficiency of factor IX, x-linked recessive

MALES

hematomas, hemarthrosis, compartment syndrome but different factor than A!!

Factor IX low, PTT increased (since intrinsic pathway deficiency), platelet count normal

Tx: fresh frozen plasma, recombinant factors, prophylaxis with Factor IX, on demand factor replacement

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93
Q

disseminiated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

What generally happens in this? what are 6 things that can cause this? what are 3 important presentations of this? what are four important lab results you would see with this? what is the treatment and why is this so complicated?

A

widespread microthrombi, severe thrombocytopenia

clot then bleed to death, trigger usually surgical castastrophe or sepsis

thrombotic followed by consumptive and fibrinolytic process, everything is consumed, all the platelets and coagulation factors, clogs everything with fibrin deposition and clotting uses all the resources which makes you more apt to bleed in other places. this compromises tissue blood flow and leads to organ death

clotting and bleeding

occurs in: infection with gram negative sepsis endotoxins malaria, rocky mountain spotted fever, malignancies, trauma, pregancy and birth

Presentation: WIDESPREAD HEMMORAGE, RENAL FAILURE, GANGRENE, shock

LAB RESULTS: PROLONGED PT/PTT/INR SINCE EVERYTHING IS CONSUMED, ELEVATED D DIMER FROM INCREASED FIBRINOGEN DEGREDATION, DECREASED FIBRINOGEN, SCISTOCYTES SINCE RBC TRY TO SQUEEZE THROUGH THE CLOTS AND GET DAMAGED

Tx: treat underlying cause, Fresh frozen platelets if severe bleeding, **also need to treat the clots so this is VERY complicated!!!!***

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94
Q

what is the mortality from diffuse intravascular coagulation?

A

10-50%

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95
Q

how long can it take to detech a tumor clinically?

A

10 years or 30 doubling times

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96
Q

explain 6 characterists of malignant tumor cells

A
  1. little resemblance to original tissue and undifferentiated anaplasia
  2. lost ability to supress proliferation, mutate quickly
  3. do not do normal function
  4. no clear boundaries and infiltrate surround tissues
  5. metastasize by blood or lymph
  6. comrpess or destroy other tissue
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97
Q

explain the 3 order of events for a malignant tumor to form?

what four characteristics are under the last step?

A

1. metaplasia

2. dyplasia

3. ANAPLASIA

loss of morphological characteristics of mature cells

  • nuclear pleomorphism
  • nucleoli enlarged
  • high proliferation index
  • atypical mitosis
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98
Q

what are the four differences between malignant and benign neoplasms?

A
  1. characteristics of cells
  2. rate of growth
  3. local invasion
  4. ability to metastasize
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99
Q

tertoma

when do these usually occur? what does it resemble? what 3 things can it contain? is it benign..exception? where are the three locations typically to get them?

A

usually congenital

encapsulated tumor with tissue resembling normal derivates

can contain rudimentary organs, teeth, hair, bone

typically benign, except testicular teratomas in men

ovarian: pelvic pain, torsion

mediastinal: compression airways

sacrococcygeal: newborn (in pic)

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100
Q

what is the major cause of death in cancer? what are the three fashions this can take place?

A

metastasis by

  1. lymphatic-carcinomas, melanomas, can get to blood vasculature from thoracic duct
  2. hematogenous, typically follows venous drainage pattern
  3. transoelomic (peritoneal, pericardial, transthoracic, subarachnoid)
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101
Q

what are the four most common sites for metastasis?

A

lung, liver, bone, brain

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102
Q

what are the two cancer associated genes?

A
  1. protooncogenese: mutates normal gene that becomes an oncogene and has increased expression of growth factors, transcription factors ect… literally gene for cancer

2. tumor suppressor gene- genese that normally inhibit cell proliferation and protect against oncogenes

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103
Q

what are the three stages of tumor cell transformation?

A
  1. initiation- exposure of cells to carcinogenic agent and initial mutation occurs

2. promotion- mutated cells are stimulated to divide causing unregulated accelerated growth

3. progression tumor cells develop more mutations which make them more aggressive

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104
Q

helicobacter pylori can cause what type of cancer?

A

gastric carcinoma

105
Q

schistosoma haematobium can cause what type of cancer?

A

bladder squamous cell carcinoma

106
Q

what is a carcinoma in situ

A

early form of cancer

absence of invasion. not through basement membrane

not invading surrounding tissue

no potential for metastacies

107
Q

radiation therapy

what type of cells are most injured with radiation? what parts of the body are sensitive to this? what are 3 long term complications?

A

rapidly proliferating and poorly differentiated cells

bad for bone marrow and GI mucosal cells since rapid proliferation

oral mucosa and salivary glands very sensitive

injury to stem cells, damage to microvasculature

108
Q

chemotherapy

A

toxix to rapidly porliferating cels

most effective against tumors with high growth fraction

as growth fraction increases, doubling time decreases because of limited nuitrients and blood supply

109
Q

what is a risk of debulking or radiating tumor? (causing it to shrink) what two typs of cancer is debulking beneificial?

A

it may cause cancer cells in G0 phase (rest) to reenter the cell cycle since there are less and can then once again compete for resources

beneficial in ovarian and brain

110
Q

tumor markers

what are they? who makes them? when might they be elevated?

A
  • made in normal cells but over expressed in cancer cells
  • released by normal cells in response to presence of tumor
  • may be elevated in benign
  • may not be elevated early on
111
Q

what are 3 tumor marker examples?

A

prostate specific antigen (PSA)- prostate prostatic carcinoma

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)- placenta gestational trophoblastic tumors

calcitonin- produced by thyroid parafollicular cells in thyroid cancer

112
Q

paraneoplastic syndromes

what happens in this? what are the four main categories and the thing that is associated with each? what are the 3 theories about what causes this?

A

symptoms that occur at sites distant from a tumor or its metastasis

causes:

elaboration of hormones, proteins produced by tumor cells, immune response against tumor

can be:

hematologic (antidiuretic hormone, hyponaturemia)

endocrine (polycythemia, 2* to EPO secretion)

dermatologic,

neurologic (anti NMDA receptor encephalitis)

113
Q

eaton-lambery syndrome

A

antibodies against the presynaptic voltage gated calcium channels at neuromuscular junction

60% of E-LS associated with small cell carcinoma of the lungs!!

*This can be the presenting symptom*

example of paraneoplastic syndrome because where it attacks isn’t where the cancer appears!

114
Q

in lymphocytic anemias, what percent are B cell and T cell derived?

A

90% B cells

10% T cells

115
Q

what are lymphomas? where are they?

A

localized to lymphnodes

malignancy of matured lymphcytes not precursor cells

arises in the PERIPHERY, then can spread to bone marrow

116
Q

what percent of lymphomas are non hodgkins lymphoma?

A

90%

117
Q

burkitt’s lymphoma

(non hodgkins)

where is this an endemic? what type of cell is imporant to see here? what virus does this have a strong association with?

A

endemic in Africa

“starry sky”, abdominal fullness-cells contain lipid vacuoles!! KEY
EBV association

Type 1: African Jaw/face-100% with EBV associated with malaria

Type 2: sporadic abdomen/bone marrow; 20% EBV

Type 3: HIV associated 40% EBV lymph node/bone marrow

118
Q

burkitt’s lymphoma

(non hodgkins)

what is the genetic explaination for this and what gene has increased expression?

A

translocation of chromosome 8 and 14 leading to disregulated c-MYc genes which become protooncogenes and increase expression of Myc

119
Q

what are two risk factors for non hodgkins lymphoma?

A

immunosuppression

HIV

120
Q

what is the classification used to determine lymphoma?

A

ann arbor classification system

121
Q

MALT is caused by what organism? what type of cancer is this?

A

nonhodgkin’s lymphoma

helicobacter pylori

122
Q

non hodgkins lymphoma

what are four major findings with this cancer? what is there a strong association with? what are the four important tests you need to do? what are the four treatment options?

A

nontender lymphadnopathy, hetagenous spread (by blood so seen in periphreal lymphnodes and sporatic), extranodal involvement in GI, skin, bone (back, bone, chest pain), IIb staging or worse,

HIV ASSOCIATION!!

DX: xray, CT abdomen, pelvis, chest or PET CT, BM biopsy

TX: CHOP-R, PP x CNS, immunotherapy, stem cell transmplant

123
Q

hodgkin’s lymphoma

what are four characteristic findings of this? what is this closely associated with? what two tests can you do? what are the two treatment options? what is the age group?

A
  • reed sternburg cells “owl eyed”
  • contigious spread, typically cervical, mediastinal, and supraclavicular first effected (moves to neighboring lymphnodes)
  • pain after alcohol consumption
  • pelbestein fevers (fluctuate over extended periods of time)

EBV association inf 50%

bimodal age group, peaks in 20s then again in 50s

DX: Ct abdomen/pelvix/chest or PET CT, BM biopsy

TX: radiation or chemo depending on the stage (described later)

124
Q

explain the ANN arbor staging for lymphoma? how does this impact the treatment for hodgkins lymphoma?

A

if the staging for hodgkins lymphoma is 2a or above RADIATION!!!

2b and worse=ABVD CHEMO/ BEACOPP chemo!!!

(just FYI, this isn’t effected in non-hogkins lymphoma)

125
Q

when confirming/diagnosis lymphoma what is it nessacary that you do?

A

CUT OUT THE LYMPHNODE, not aspirate!!!

126
Q

what 3 things do you need to rule out when considering hodgkins lymphoma?

**hint: think about the location of the lymphadenopathy**

A

EBV

HIV

syphilis

(since upper lymphadnadopathy)

127
Q

what are the four drugs included in ABVD chemotherapy for Hodgkins lymphoma? what side effects do you need to worry about?

A

Adriamycin

bleomycin

vinablastine

dacarbazine

128
Q

which would you want to get….non hodgkins lymphoma or hodgkins lymphoma? why??

A

hodgkins lymphoma

cure rate is 90%!!

***this only accounts for 10% of lymphomas though.

129
Q

mutiple myeloma

what is the pnuemonic associated with this cancer and what does each part mean? what cell is affected here? what are two important test results you will see? what are the two treatment options for this? what group of people is this most common in?

A

BREAK ACRONYM-malignany of plasma cell, more common in african american men

B: bone pain-lytic bone lesions, increased bone fractures particullary in back, spine, ribs

R: reccurent infections strep pneumoniae, gram neg encapsulated, non function Ig

E: elevated calcium since bone being destroyed

A: anemia (crowding out of bone marrow, overgrows RBC/platelets=less RBC)

K: kidney failure (increased Ig deposit in kidney, increased viscosity=kidney failure)

monoclonal Ig Spike, “M” protein spike, bence jones proteins in the urine,

TX:chemo, BM transplant (not commonly done since many patients elderly)

130
Q

what are the two most common antibodies produced in multiple myeloma?

A

IgG and IgA

131
Q

what puts people at EXTREME risk for multiple myeloma? how many more times?

A

HIV!!

4.5x fold increase in development with people with HIV

132
Q

what is important to do for a lab test before BM biopsy in chronic vs acute leukemia?

A

Chronic: CBC with diff, want to see what type of cell

Acute: smear to cell BLASTS!

133
Q

what are typically characteristics of chronic leukemias

A

look more “normal” than acute but still immature overall “almost normal”

pt usually asymptomatic and older

slower progressing

increased WBC in nodes

since these cells are somewhat normal, they still are able to function a little which is why many patients are asymptomatic

134
Q

Acute lymphacitic leukemia (ALL)

what is this the most common of? what subsets of cells does it involve? what will you see on the smear? what condition is it associated with? what is one caution you NEED to address when treating this? what is used for diagnosis and what is the treatment?

A

1 cause of cancer in children!!

very young: 3-7 yrs

associated with down syndrome

T or B lymphblasts subsets

**hides in CNS so must treat with prophylaxis!

bone pain since ramped up

DX: smear, BM biopsy

TX: 3 phases of chemo!! prophylaxis chemo Ara-c for cancer hiding in CNS, LUMBAR PUNCTURE FOR CNS INVOLVEMENT!!!

135
Q

what is the most common pediatric cancer?

A

acute lymphocytic leukemia!!

136
Q

explain the two T and B cell subsets of acute lymphocytic leukemia!!

what are the chromosomes that are effected in B cell ALL? what are the symptoms associated with T cell ALL?

A

This was from khan academy and meded

137
Q

what is a patient with Acute lymphocytic leukemia at risk for developing later on in life?

A

Acute myeloid leukemia beause they were exposed to chemo so their myeloid line can be effected later on

138
Q

Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

who do you see this in? what are two important things you will see on the SMEAR? what percent achieve remission? what are the three treatment options? what exposure do you usually have to get this?

A

adults, acute picture

>20% blasts, AUER ROD CELLS, bone pain since ramping up cells

WBC>100,00

70% achieve remission

EXPOSURE: BENZO, CHEMO, RADIATION

TX: combination chemo, bone marrow transplant vit A

139
Q

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

who is this most common in? what type of cells are most common? what is important cell seen on slide? what are three other presentations of this? what do you do for treament of this for the 3 different pt groups? what do the symptoms come from? what is a halmark here?

A

elderly, asymptomic, die with it not from (3-10 years LE)

95% B cell derived!

B cell “smudge cells” (not structually strong since immature)

hypgammaglobinemia (don’t make as many since B cells messed up)

affects the bone marrow, liver, spleen, lymphnodes! gets bigger

in the lymph node starts a small lymphocytic lymphoma the transfors by richter transformation to diffuse B cell lymphoma (SOLID MASS)

causes autoimmune hemolytic anemia (nonfunctioing antibodies attack RBC, random, but imporant!)

acceptable to wait and watch in asymptomatic

usually come to the office for something else and are diagnosed on accidental findings

symptoms come from overcrowding->thrombocytopenia/anemia->beeding

>65 asymptomic: wait and watch

>65 symptomatic: chem

<65: stem cell treatment

TX: chlorambucil/fludarabine if chemo

140
Q

what is the most common leukemia in adults?

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

141
Q

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

what two genes are associated wit this and which one is more specific? which line of cells can this be in and which is the most common? what are the three stages for this? what are the two treatment options? what kills these patients?

A

Adults

  • philidelphia chromosome (95) 9/22
  • BCR-ABL gene
  • relies on tyrosine kinase inhibitor
  • most common in neutrophils, but can be in ANY of the myeloid cell lines
  • blast crisis which transforms it to acute myelogenous leukemia **this is what kills these patients**

WBC>100,000

Three stages:

  1. chronic: asymptomatic
  2. accelerated: start to see symtoms
  3. acute: blast crisis! >30% blast in the BM, then transforms to AML

TX: TYROSINE KINASE INHIBITOR IMATNIB (works on BCR-ABL), ALLOGENIC BONE MARROW OR STEM CELL TRANSPLANT

142
Q

polycyTHEMIA Vera

what type of disorder is this? what gene plays an important role? what population of people are particulary effected by this? what are 6 presentations you see with this? what are the 3 treatment options?

A

RBC disorder

JAK2 kinase regulates cell division, in mutation it gets stuck in the “on position” and makes A TON more RBC

Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry more common

increase HCT/RBC in absence of hypoxia (KEY! NORMAL O2 level!)

>54% males, 51% in females

increase basophils/eosinophils

low EPO since don’t want to stimulate more

hepatosplenomegaly

puritis from degranulation of Mast cells

Increase in UA and gout risk, since this is a product of DNA breakdown, which occurs more since trying to degrade RBC

Tx: phlebotamy until Hct <45

hydroxyurea (interferes with cells with high growth rate)

low dose asprin to prevent clotting

143
Q

thrombocytoTHEMIA

what increases in this? how are these made and which gene is mutated? how many do you have in this? what are the three main symptoms you see with this? what are some interesting symptoms seen with this and why its important to catch this quick? what are the two treatment options for this?

A

increase in PLATELETS

megokaryoctyes degrade into platelets in the BONE MARROW.

JAK2 gene when mutated is stuck on the “on” position cause a HUGE increase in number of platelets!!

450,000x10^9

since platelets everywhere in circulation you get:

  1. Thrombosis
    - esp in head (goes here first), leading to dizziness, headache, seizure, stroke symptoms
    - hand and feet!! leading to pain, numbness, and burning of hands and feet!
  2. bleeding (since all resources used up) and splenomegaly (trying to filter out platelets)

TX: low dose aspirin to prevent clots, hydroxyurea decreases megokaryoblasts in BM and therefore platet formation

144
Q

when do you see spurr cells?

A

cirrhosis

145
Q

what is one ananomoly when the WBC are effected in an anemia

A

B12 deficiency

see hypersegmented neutrophils

146
Q

what is the red cell distribution width

(RDW)

A

reflects the variety of RBC by size, shows there is more than one population of cell

147
Q

what are immature WBC’s called? if there is an increased number of these what does this cause? what three things should you think of when you see this?

A

“Band cells”

causes a shift left

infection, inflammation, leukemia

matured ones are called segs

148
Q

what is a realy important aspect to consider before sending a patient to surgery? what ranges are important in this determination?

A

PLATELETS!!!

>50,000 OK for surgery

<10,000 bleeding risk!

<5,000 risk for spontanous bleeding, particullarly cerebral

149
Q

what is the general rule between hematocrit and hemoglobin?

A

hematocrit is 3x the hemoglobin

150
Q

what is the best iron test to look at? (accoding to professor)

why?

A

ferritin!

reflective of iron stores

also reflects increase in phase reactant proteins, meaning that it goes up with acute illness as well

151
Q

where do you perform a bone marrow biopsy?

A

posterior superior iliac crest!

slides prepped at bedside

152
Q

sideroblastic anemias occur when there is…

(four examples)

A

failed synthesis, get abnormal RBC

  1. sickle cell
  2. thalassemia
  3. alcohol
  4. lead

etc

see “ring” sideroblast cells

153
Q

where do you see the mutation for sickle cell? what do you need to have to get the disease?

A

6th AA in beta chain

you get the disease if both beta globins effected

154
Q

many sickle cell patients are…..

so its important to do what???

A

ASPLENIC

vaccinate against s. pneumoniae, and haemophils influenzae

CAPSULATED ORGANISMS!!!

155
Q

what is a key characteristic of thalassemias?? Need to know!!

A

very, profoundly microcytic, but not very anemic

156
Q

if someone is missing all the alpha chains in alpha thalassemia then you get….

A

hydrops fetalis

fetus dies because can’t live like this!!

157
Q

what is the most common cause of blood loss in normocytic anemias?

A

acute blood loss! (KNOW IT!)

158
Q

What three tests do you use to identify hemolytic anemia? what is the test you can do to check for antibodies to the RBC?

A
  • elevated LDH
  • serum and urinary bilirubin
  • haptoglobin low

identify with COOMBs test (checks for circulating antibodies against RBC)

159
Q

what are three things that can cause hypersplenism?

A

infiltrative

malignancies

cirrhosis

160
Q

pernicious anemia

(b12 deficiency)

A

this is caused when the parietly cells in the stomach don’t produce intrinsic factor or it isn’t able to be absorbed in the stomache

use a schillings test to determine the location or reason it isn’t being absorbed

if issue with intrinsic factor then pernicious anemia!

161
Q

what are the four major reasons a person may have malabsorption of B12?

A

1 most common- bariatric surgery (gastric bypass etc)

  • alocholism
  • fish tapeworm diphyllobothrium latum
162
Q

what is alcohols effect on the blood?

A

MACROCYTOSIS

causes deacreased synthesis in the marrow so you get pancytopenia (anemia, leukocytopenia, thrombocytopenia)

163
Q

what are 6 things that can cause pancytopenia?

A
  • B12/folate deficiencies
  • aplastic anemia
  • alcohol
  • lupus
  • myelophthesis (stuff occupying BM)
  • myelodysplasia (aged bone marrow)
164
Q

myelodysplasia

what happens in this? who does it happen in? what are the two approved drugs?

A

aged bone marrow, can’t produce stuff since hypoproliferative

-old people/pre-malignant state

decitabine, azacitidine

165
Q

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)

What would a patient compain of as a sympton of this? what is the defect in this pt? what type of condition is this? what are 3 important tests to do for diagnosis?

A

RARE

defect in production of glycosyl-phosphatidyl-inositol (anchor protein)

get up in the middle of the night a lot and pee blood, worst in the AM, dark urine

pancytopenia, increased reticulocyte count, hemolytic condition, thrombosis in strange places like liver and mesenteric

HAMS TEST TO DIAGNOSE: flow cytometry, SUGAR WATER TEST, GENETIC TEST

166
Q

hemachromatosis

what is this caused by? how is this tyically found out? where does it deposit and what symptoms does it cause? what are the four tests you would want to see? diagnosis gold standard? what is the treatment?

A

excess iron, C282Y

often found in family setting, need genetic testing,

elevated iron

elevated ferritin

elevated transferrin

TIBC low

if there is too much iron…GETS DEPOSITED IN THE PARENCHYMALCELLLS OF HEART, LIVER, PANCREUX, AND ENDOCRINE ORGANS and eventually toxic leading to liver dysfunction, heart failure, hypogonadism, and pancreatic insufficiency “Bronze diabetes bronze skin!”

TX: phlebotamy, liver biopsy gold standard

167
Q

what is the benefit of fresh frozen plasma? what does it contain?

A

long storage

used for coagulopathies with factor deficiencies

168
Q

what does cyroprecipitate contain?

A

extra factor VIII and vWF!

169
Q

what is the most dangerous reaction you can get from recieveing a transfusion?

A

IMMEDIATE TYPE IMMUNE MEDIATED HEMOLYSIS

introduction of other blood prompts immune system, shocks it and sends it into hyper drive where hemolysis occurs!

170
Q

what do you use a LAVANDER/PURPLE top for?

(2)

A

EDTA (anticoagulant)

CBC

171
Q

what do you use a red or tiger red for?

A

seperates serum with centrifudge after sitting

blood banking/chemistries

172
Q

what do you use a green top for?

A

heparnized tube, can be put on an analyzer faster than red

blood gases, chemistries, ice

173
Q

what do you use a blue top for?

A

citrate (anticoagulant)

coagulation studies

**tube must be completely filled to validate or it throws the concentration off**

174
Q

what do you use a gray top for?

(2)

A

glucose if delay to run is expected and lactate

175
Q

factor 5 leiden mutation

what happens in this? where is the mutation? what is this resistant to? what two things are you at increased risk for and what is the treatment?

A

inherited hypercoagubility, factor 5 mutation

****20 fold increase in the change of clotting WOW****

resistant to breakdown by activated anticoagulant protein C!!

increased risk for DVT and PE!!

TX: indefinite anticoagulation

176
Q

In coagulation disorders, pupura can come with….

A

AGE!!!! NORMAL! because capillaries are more fragile…

this is a big purple bruise

177
Q

what is the goal PT-INR for patient with afib and stroke? what about if mechnical valve?

A

afib and stroke: 2-3

mechanical valve: 2.5-3.5

178
Q

factor assays measure all factors except…

A

13!!!

179
Q

what factors does warfarin act on? what is the antidote?

A

decreases synthesis of vitamin K dependent factors

2, 7, 9, 10, protein C and S

effects BOTH the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways!!

VITAMIN K IS THE ANTIDOTE! (green and leafy)

180
Q

explain what heparin acts on? what is the dangerous side effect that can happen when you give this to a patient?

A

inhibits Xa and thrombin (IIa)

can cause heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) people get low platelets and clot up all the ones they have, but it clogs specifically in the fingers! CAN LOOSE FINGERS!!! acts like extreme allergic reaction

181
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitor

dabigatran

(what does this inhibit? what were the first and second indications for this drug?)

A

directly inhibits IIa (thrombin, duh)

prevents the last stage of coagulation of fibrinogen to fibrin

1st indication: thromboembolism, stroke prevention in non-valvular a fib

2014: DVT/PE prevention and treatment

182
Q

what is the advantage of the newer Xa inhibitor drugs? what is a disadvantage?

fondaparinux

abixaban

A

advantage: don’t need to measure protime!!! easy to dose!!

disadvantage: dosed with faith, have to trust they are working since no protime testing

183
Q

what are four things that can cause a decrease in the number of platelets?

A

autoimmune-lupus

drugs (heparin, quinidine, sufa)

HIV/mono

thrombocytopenic purpuras

184
Q

explains how asiprin works in clotting?

what does it put someona at higher risk for?

A

works on primary hemostasis

inactivates cyclooxygenase so they dont’ produce thromboxane A2

lifetime inhibition for that platelet!!! (5 days)

**higher risk of peptic ulcer disesease because it kills protective layer in the stomach**

185
Q

what two drugs can you give to someone taking asprin to prevent against stomach irriation?

A
  • proton pump inhibitors
  • misoprotosol
186
Q

what are two major concerns when giving a patient asprin?

A
  1. PUD since ruins protective later of stomach

2. REYE SYNDROME!!! encepalopy and hepatotoxicity for kids 4-12 with viral infections (influenza, chicken pox!!)

187
Q

what ar the two most common causes of “thromboembolic disease”?

A

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

pulmonary embolism (PE)

188
Q

when would you suspect a genetic cause for hypercoagubility in patients?

A

if they’re young and have had 2 clots!!

(family history is particullarly important espectially if surgery is plannted)

189
Q

what three components are important for the body to maintain normal hemostasis since they provide natural anticogulant properties?

A

Protein C

Protein S

anti-thrombin III (breaks down excess thrombin)- 50% autosomal dominany inheritance for deficiency

190
Q

fibrinolytic system function

A

breaks down clot after formation

prevents abnormal clotting, keeps the system in check

allows for woud reparation and healing

191
Q

explain what D-DIMER is? what 3 conditions would you expect it to be elevated in?

A

it is a component of fibrin

forms the cross links seen in the clot

elevated when cloth is present

-post op

-DVT/ PE

-DIC

192
Q

what are two gene mutations that can cause point mutations in prothrombic disorders? what genes effected?

A
  1. factor V liden
  2. prothrombin gene mutations G20210A-increases prothrombin by 30%, increases clotting
193
Q

if you have an unexplained PE, what do you NEED to look for? EVERYTIME!!! KNOW THIS!!!

A

metastatic cancer!!!! can cause clots so need to think of this everyime!!!

194
Q

*****what is one really important autoimmune condition that predisposes a person to thromboembolytic disease*****

A

LUPUS! dont’ forget this!!!

195
Q

what is a reasonable amount of time to treat a patient after their first clot?

A

3-6 months

196
Q

***venous thromboembolic disorders should prompt……***

A

thorough work up to rule out hyper-coagulability!!!!

KNOW IT!

197
Q

cancer growth is unregulated, but slows when (2 things)

A
  1. tumors become large
  2. limited in part by blood supply
198
Q

what are oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?

A

oncogenese: tumor growth stimulated by presence of the gene

tumor suppressor genes: prevent malignant growth p53 example

199
Q

what percent of americans are killed by cancer?

A

2 to cardiovascular disease!!!

25%

200
Q

these conditions can cause what type of cancer:

Klinefelders:

Daughters of Des mothers:

Abestos exposure:

Reflux:

A

Klinefelders: male breast cancer

Daughters of Des mothers: vaginal cancer

Abestos exposure: mesothelioma

Reflux: barretts espogeal cancer

201
Q

asbestos exsposure causes what type of cancer???

A

mesothelioma

202
Q

how are tumors staged?

A

TNM

Tumor: size/location

Node: regional spread

Metastasis: distant spread

203
Q

Explain what these tumor markers are associated with??

  1. hCG
  2. CEA
  3. AFP
A

hCG: testicular and ovarian cancer

CEA: bowel, smokers, COPD

AFP: seminomatous testicular cancer

204
Q

what staging do you use to state prostate cancer?

A

GLEASON STAGE!

205
Q

what are the goals of tumor surgery?

A
  1. prevent local invasion
  2. prevent obstruction
  3. reduce tumor burden
206
Q

**what can chemotherapy cause?**

A

vessicants!!! irriation of the iside of the blood vessels

therefore, many need central access!

207
Q

what are 4 chemo side effects?

A

bone marrow toxicity

GI upset

Skin irriation

alopecia

208
Q

what are three chemo drugs and what do they cause for irritation?

**think chemo man!!**

A

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)- cardiac

bleomycin- pulmonary fibrosis!

cisplatin- renal dysfunction/oto toxic

209
Q

what are the side effects of radiation?

A

skin

gi toxicity

scarrin/fibrosis

malignancy potential

210
Q

what is the number 1 cancer?

A

lung cancer in men and women!

95% tobacco association

211
Q

what is the most common lung cancer in a NON smoke?

A

adenocarcinoma (found in periphreal)

212
Q

what are the central lung cancers? (2) and the periphreal lung cancers? which one tends to spread quickly?

A

tumors derived from respiratory epithelium

88% of one of these

central: small cell (tend to spread quickly) and squamous
periphreal: large cell and adenocarcinoma

***non-cell has surgical option for everything, may need to do chemo though contraindicated if FEV1<1L. CANT DO IN SMALL CELL!!!***

213
Q

what drug prevents reoccurance of breast cancer?

A

tomoxifen

214
Q

what are two major risk factors a woman can have for breast cancer?

A
  1. early menarch (before 11) and late menopause

2. nulliparity or first child late (after 25)

215
Q

what are the 3B’s and 2Ls of breast cancer?

A

Bone, brain, breast

lung, liver

this is where breast cancer tends to spread!

216
Q

what test can you do for prostate cancer? what race is it most common in?

A

prostate specific antigen, BUT NOT PERFECT

AFRICAN AMERICA

217
Q

what is the reccomended screening methods for colon cancer? what is the reccomended treatment?

A

colonoscopy 50 and up (can do occult, but not great)

**surgery usually indicated, concerned with obstruction**

then chemo/adjunct chemo

218
Q

what is the most common and most dangerous type of skin cancer? how are skin cancers classified?

A

melanoma

ABCD

A-assymmetry

B-order (scalloped)

C-color

D-diameter (6mm)

219
Q

sentinel lymph node surgeries

what are these?

A

use nuclear technique to identify nodal spread of malignancy

220
Q

adjuvant treatment

what is this?

A

treatment to eliminate non detectable micrometatasis

221
Q

neoadjuvant treatment

what is this? what are the 3 types?

A

treatment before surgery to increase sucess

Breast

esophageal

rectal

222
Q

what is the goal of radiation therapy? how is damage produced? what are the two ways it is fatal by?

A

kill cancer without damage to local tissues

DNA damage due to free radical production

fatal by:

first cell division in mitosis

in hours by inducing apoptosis

in prostate and GYN, use inplantable seeds called BRACHYTHERAPY!!!

223
Q

what are 3 complications of radiation?

A
  1. kills rapidly dividing cells
  2. MYELOSUPPRESSION OF ALL THREE CELL LINES
  3. increases cancer risk!
224
Q

what is the major role of chemotherapy? what are the three states of testing?

A

treating METASTATIC disease

phase 1: test for saftey

phase 2: tests activity against tumor

phase 3: compares with other treatments avaliable

225
Q

when using chemotherapy please describe

complete remission

partial remission

progression

A

complete remission: all malignancy come

partial remission: 50% reduction with no idsease (still scary…..still there and 50% of size! WHOA!!)

progression: 25% growth in size or new lesion

226
Q

what is a common side effect of chimeric?

A

craving cheese is a common side effect

IDK THIS WAS RANDOMLY ON THE POWERPOINT IN A LIST OF DRUGS ANDHE PUT A SMILEY FACE….SO I GUESS ILL INCLUDE IT?

227
Q

*****what is the dose limiting toxicity seen with chemo***

aka, why can’t you give patients MORE?

A

causes myelosuppression

**most common dose limiting toxicity**

10-14 days after dose!! recover 21-28 days

228
Q

what are two major downer about chemo? what do you do about it?

A
  1. often causes nausea and vomit, pretreat with anti-nausea!!
  2. stomatitis
229
Q

***tomoxifen***

what does it do?! what does it bind to? what does it prevent? Cause?

A

treatment AND prevention of breast cancer!!!

woah, it does both by binding estrogen.

`: decreases cardiovascular risk and osteoporosis

negatives: menpause, thromboembolism

230
Q

basal cell carcinoma

what percent of melanoma is this? what does it look like? what 4 treatment options? what 2 preventions?

A

- 80% Basal cell *front pic*

(pearly nodule, telangectasias)

treatment: cut out, cryrosurgery, laser, Moh’s

prevention: fluorouracil, immunomodulators

231
Q

melanoma

what are the 4 main types? where do you find them?

A

superficial spreading

lentigo maligna: sun exposure

acral lentiginous: palms, soles, nails, mucosa

nodular: deep pigmentation and deep invasion

***spreads by lymph and blood**

  • breslow’s thickness: worse if >1mm tick, ulceration, mets*
  • Clarks staging!! 1 (in situ)-5 (fat)*

TX: 2-4 wide excision “chunk of meat”, IFN, dicarbazine, cisplatin, vincristine

232
Q

lung cancer

what is the lung work up here? and what do you do if you see only 1 solitary pulmonary nodule?

A
  1. incidental chest xray

(screening xrays does NOT improve surival in those screend)

2. CT

3. PET (identifies areads of high metabolic activity)

4. look for paraneoplastic syndroms

if solitary pulmonary nodule: follw serially in low risk patients, biopsy considered in higher risk >35, tobacco history

233
Q

small cell lung cancer (SCLC)

what are the two types? what do you worry about with this? what do you treat with? why?

A

spreads quickly, not surgical candidate

two types

  1. limited stage-regional lymph nodes
  2. extensive stage

**worry about mets to brain and BM**

Tx: cisplatin, spreads too quickly so not surgical candidate

234
Q

what age do mammograms begin? at what size do you tyically need a masectomy for breast cancer?

A

begin at age 40

>5cm

235
Q

what is the first line treatment for metastic breast cancer?

A

***use multidrug regimen***

DOC: doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide

236
Q

***what are the two main predictors for esophageal cancer**

A
  1. smokers with alcohol
  2. gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) prominent

***increased risk with hot dogs, smoked foods, helicobacter pylori***

237
Q

what chemo do you want to use for colorectal cancer?

A

5FU with ressection!

238
Q

what is the only thing that substantially impacts survival in pancreatic cancer?

A

complete excision

239
Q

lymphoma vs leukemia

down and dirty

A

LYMPHOMA: CLUSTERS OF BUMPS IN THE LYMPH NODES

LEUKEMIA: IN THE BLOOD, LIQUID TUMOR

240
Q

What are three examples in the powerpoints of Non-hodkins lymphoma?

A

low grade small cell, mantel cell, mucosal associated lymphoma (MALT)

241
Q

what is the purpose of hospice? what settings can this be given in?

A

helps the dying AND their family

  • home
  • inpatient
  • outpatient (hospice housing)

**help with pain control, nausea, constipation, terminal secretions, seizures**

242
Q

what is the most common cause of death in cancer!**

A

infections! bacterial AND fungal

so need to use aggressive broad spectrum antibiotics and fungal coverage

243
Q

**if you get your spleen taken out, like in leukemia, what organisms do you need to be particularly careful of?**

A

ENCAPSULATED ORGANISMS!!!

  1. strep, pneumoniae
  2. H. influenzae
  3. neisseria meningitis
244
Q

neutropenic fever

what is this? what do you need to do STAT? what might you consider doing or putting this patient on?

A

*oncologic emergency*

fever with low WBC

->get on antibiotics<- STAT

may also consider granulocyte stimulating agent (GCSF) filgrastim

245
Q

superior vena cava (SVC)

what happens here and where does it come from? what do you treat?

A

tumor obstructs venous return

**most common cause is small cell lung cancer that has spread**

Tx: protect airway, respiratory treatments

246
Q

pericardial effusion

what is this? what four cancers can this be caused by? what is the #1 sign that you see with this? what are the 3 treatment options?

A

fluid collection around the heart

can be caused by malignancy

*can be in lung, breast, leukemia, lyphoma*

DX: dyspnea, chest pain, Kussmauls sign, jugular venous distension (JVD)

shortness of breath out of proportion to pulmonary edema on chest xray

tx: pericardiocentesis, sclerosing agent, tetracylcine

247
Q

pleural effusion

what happens here? how do you diagnose this? what are the three treatment options for this?

A

intrathoracic fluid collection, dyspnea

DX: thoracentesis (diagnostic/palliative)

TX: sclerosis to prevent recurrance, insert chest tube, instill talc for pleurodesis (painful leads to scarring thus eliminating the space)

248
Q

****hypercalcemia****

what can this indicate? what happens in this? what four things can cause this? whats the treatment?

A

oncologic emergency

most common with people with paraneoplastic syndrome!! presenting finding in new cancer diagnosis

Ca leaches from the bone resulting in high serum levels!! this cause illness!!

  1. lytic bone lesions
  2. humorally mediated (ectopic parathyroid hormone)
  3. osteoclastic activating factor
  4. vitamin D metabolites

treat with IV, pushes CA back into bone

249
Q

syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)

what is this? what things can it secrete? how do you diagnose? what do you treat with (3 things)

A

water retention greater than sodium excretion

**due to tumor produced arginine vasopressin or atrial natriuretic factor**

Dx: low serum sodium, is severe can cause convulsions

TX: treat CA, restrict water, lithium, demeclocycline (inhibits the things produced)

250
Q

what are the symptoms of the cerebral metastasis?

A

50% get headaches

  • worse in the morning
  • better as the day progresses
  • facial neurological deficits
251
Q

the thromboembolic phenomenon common in ________.

A

the thromboembolic phenomenon common in CANCER…..DVT and PE may be the presenting symptom!!!

also migratory venous thrombophlebitis (trousseau’s)

252
Q

what is a paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

a syndrome (a set of signs and symptoms) that is the consequence of cancer in the body but that, unlike mass effect, is not due to the local presence of cancer cells.[1] These phenomena are mediated by humoral factors (by hormones or cytokines) excreted by tumor cells or by an immune response against the tumor.

253
Q

what is the screening method for breast cancer? age?

A

20+

  1. breast self examination 20s
  2. clinical breast examination 20s-30s
  3. mammography 40s
254
Q

what is the screening method for cervical cancer? age?

A

21-30

PAP and HPV DNA TEST

every 3 years

30-65 every 5 years

255
Q

what is the screening for colorectal cancer? age?

A

50 and above

  1. fecal blood test annual
  2. colonoscopy every 10 years
  3. CT colonography, ever 5 years
256
Q

endometrial cancer, when are you concerned about it?

A

in women around the time of menopause, report spotty bleeding

257
Q

lung cancer screening? who qualifies? whats the screening?

A

smokers age 55-74 with 30 pack year smoking history

screen with low dose helical CT

258
Q

prostate cancer screening? who and what two tests?

A

50+

digital rectum examination and prostate antigen specific test