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CM 2019 Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. The Decision Making Model (DMM) is formed around what two activities ?
    a) Objective setting and information gathering
    b) Reviewing and gathering
    c) Planning and Resourcing
    d) Deciding and Acting
A

d) Deciding and Acting

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2
Q
  1. What is contained in the first three boxes of the DMM ?
    a) Information on Resources
    b) Information about the task or event
    c) Information about the risk and benefit
    d) All of the above
A

d) All of the above

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3
Q
  1. When carrying out a dynamic risk assessment after you have evaluated the situation, task and persons at risk what is your next step (step two) ?
    a) Assess the chosen systems of work
    b) Select safe systems of work
    c) Introduce additional control measures
    d) Re-assess safe systems of work and additional control measures
A

b) Select safe systems of work

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4
Q
  1. When should you send the message “Firefighter Emergency” ?
    a) Whenever Fire Service personnel or personnel working under the control of LFB are unaccounted for and/or in need of rescue.
    b) When an ADSU is sounded
    c) If a BA crew does not return before whistle
    d) If the incident commander initiates a tactical withdrawal
A

a) Whenever Fire Service personnel or personnel working under the control of LFB are unaccounted for and/or in need of rescue.

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5
Q
  1. What is the attendance for a FF Emergency ?
    a) 2 pumps, FRU, GM
    b) Chief Officer, 3 pumps and operational commander
    c) 6 pumps, 2 FRU, FIU, CU, LAS, PLO, FSO, SAI, 3 SMs, GM, and DAC.
    d) 2 pumps, 2 FRU’s, FIU, CU, 3 SM’s no tag.
A

c) 6 pumps, 2 FRU, FIU, CU, LAS, PLO, FSO, SAI, 3 SMs, GM, and DAC.

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6
Q
  1. What should follow a Fire fighter Emergency, Tactical Withdrawal or Emergency evacuation ?
    a) Performance review of operations
    b) Roll Call
    c) Request for Press Liaison Officer
    d) Request for SAI
A

b) Roll Call

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7
Q
  1. How many floors below a fire should a bridgehead be set up at a high rise incident ?
    a) 3
    b) 1
    c) 4
    d) 2
A

d) 2

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8
Q
  1. What floor should you plug your first jet in at high rise incident ?
    a) 1 below the fire
    b) The same floor as the fire
    c) 2 floors below the fire
    d) 1 floor above the fire
A

a) 1 below the fire

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9
Q
  1. The message “High Rise Procedure Implemented” is sent – what should be in place to allow that to happen ?
    a) Hydrant and DRM twinned, FF Lift secure with FF on radio, at least 1 jet in use, Bridgehead set up in a protected shaft
    b) Hydrant and DRM has been twinned
    c) 2 jets are in use
    d) Bridgehead is set up
A

.a) Hydrant and DRM twinned, FF Lift secure with FF on radio, at least 1 jet in use, Bridgehead set up in a protected shaft

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10
Q
  1. What height should buildings have a dry Rising Main ?
    a) Above 12m
    b) Above 22m
    c) Above 18m
    d) Below 22m
A

.c) Above 18m

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11
Q
  1. Within what time frame should a message be sent form the incident ground ?
    a) Within 10 minutes of arrival
    b) Within 30 minutes of arrival
    c) As soon as practicably possible
    d) Within 20 minutes of arrival
A

.c) As soon as practicably possible

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12
Q
  1. On what messages should a tactical mode be sent ?
    a) All messages
    b) On all messages except coded stops
    c) Only on coded stops
    d) When a Hose reel is used
A

.b) On all messages except coded stops

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13
Q
  1. Under what circumstances should you send a full worded stop ?
    a) When you use one Hose reel
    b) Following a make up – unusual incidents, incidents involving people (except shut in lift, lock outs unless people are injured)
    c) At an AFA when alarm has been re-set for the second time that morning
    d) If breaking in gear has been deployed
A

.b) Following a make up – unusual incidents, incidents involving people (except shut in lift, lock outs unless people are injured)

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14
Q
  1. At a basement fire is stage two BA required ?
    a) No
    b) Always
    c) Stage 2 should be considered at an early opportunity but is not mandatory
    d) None of the above
A

.c) Stage 2 should be considered at an early opportunity but is not mandatory

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15
Q
  1. What is the minimum weight of attack for a basement fire ?
    a) 2 x 45mm jets
    b) 2 x 70mm jets
    c) 1 x HR and 1 jet
    d) 2 x HR
A

.a) 2 x 45mm jets

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16
Q
  1. True or false. It is acceptable to add water/foam to an oxygen limiting silo ?
    a) True
    b) False
A

b) False

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17
Q
  1. What may occur when water comes into contact with silo contents?
    a) The integrity of the silo will diminish by 1/3
    b) Silo contents may expand and exert pressure on the silo
    c) The low oxygen atmosphere is affected
    d) Steam may cause the silo to erupt
A

b) Silo contents may expand and exert pressure on the silo

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18
Q

Silos may be manufactured from a range of materials. Which of these is not a material typically used?

a) Steel
b) Aluminium
c) Concrete
d) Tin

A

d) Tin

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19
Q
  1. When a silo or its contents are subjected to fire. The extent of the risk will be influenced by what ?
    a) Contents, design and construction
    b) Contents, foundations and tensile limits
    c) Contents, Oxygen limits and Ionisation
    d) Contents, Location and the weather
A

a) Contents, design and construction

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20
Q
  1. The nature of the goods stored within silos may create a toxic, flammable or expolosive atmosphere. Which of the following could be hazardous to us as firefighters ?
    a) Pulse spraying
    b) BA equipment
    c) Opening a hatch or door
    d) Using the Rados survey metre
A

c) Opening a hatch or door

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21
Q
  1. What may cause the contents of a silo to swell and affect its structural stability ?
    a) Contents become wet
    b) Suction piping within the silo
    c) Steel casing of the silo
    d) Contents harden and act in a fluid manner
A

a) Contents become wet

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22
Q
  1. Why can the construction of a silo make access/egress difficult ?
    a) Aluminium construction can become hot and hazardous
    b) Natural light virtually non existent
    c) Flammable limits lowered
    d) Fibreglass construction could shatter
A

b) Natural light virtually non existent

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23
Q
  1. Which Silos have a greater risk of backdraft or explosion ?
    a) Concrete stave silos
    b) Oxygen limiting silos
    c) Tower silo
    d) bunker silo
A

b) Oxygen limiting silos

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24
Q
  1. What is the attendance once the message “Initiate Fire Survival guidance procedure” is sent ?
    a) One PL, one CU and a Station Manager
    b) Command unit
    c) Station manager and a Group manager
    d) 2 pumps and a station manager
A

a) One PL, one CU and a Station Manager

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25
Q
  1. What should the IC ask a crew member to do once a Fire survival call is in operation ?
    a) Lay out more jets
    b) Inform the bridgehead commander
    c) Complete a Control information form and stay on the main frame radio
    d) Make a note on the incident command wallet
A

c) Complete a Control information form and stay on the main frame radio

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26
Q
  1. Is it necessary to repeat back to control the details received regarding a fire survival guidance call ?
    a) Yes
    b) No
A

a) Yes

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27
Q
  1. It is still the responsibility of the IC to send the message “persons reported” once a fire survival guidance call has been received ?
    a) False
    b) True
A

a) False

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28
Q
  1. Small spills of fuel, engine oil, limited to the contents of the vehicles fuel tank and calls to a reported natural gas leak carbon monoxide detector actuating or mercury spill will be considered to be what level of HAZMAT response ?
    a) Level 1
    b) Level 2
    c) Level 3
    d) Level 4
A

a) Level 1

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29
Q
  1. What is the mobilisation to a Level 2 HAZMAT ?
    a) 3 pumps and SM
    b) IRU, CU and Station Manager
    c) FRU, IRU Station Manger and HMEPO
    d) 2 Pumps, FRU, HMEPO and Station Manager
A

d) 2 Pumps, FRU, HMEPO and Station Manager

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30
Q
  1. Once the IC has confirmed the name of a chemical involved in HAZMAT incident what should they use to gain further information on how to deal with it ?
    a) Operational information folder
    b) Hydrant location book
    c) CHEMDATA on the MDT
    d) Await the arrival of the HMEPO
A

c) CHEMDATA on the MDT

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31
Q
  1. What distance is the restricted zone at level one water operations?
    a) 5 metres
    b) 10 metres
    c) 3 metres
    d) 1 metre
A

c) 3 metres

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32
Q
  1. When would level 2 water operations commence?
    a) When fire-fighters enter water to a depth where their PPE is not compromised
    b) When the FRU are in attendance
    c) On the instruction of a station manager water rescue specialist
    d) When fire-fighters enter still or moving water to affect a rescue
A

d) When fire-fighters enter still or moving water to affect a rescue

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33
Q
  1. At what stage of operations would the flood response kit (FRK) become involved?
    a) Level 3 plus
    b) Level 3
    c) Only level 3 incidents involving other brigades
    d) On level 3 operations when water is below waist height
A

b) Level 3

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34
Q
  1. When an incident involves moving water, crews equipped with throw lines and spotters should be positioned where?
    a) Crews positioned upstream at a high gradient, spotters downstream on a low gradient
    b) Crews positioned upstream with spotters positioned downstream
    c) Crews positioned downstream with spotters positioned upstream
    d) Crews and spotters positioned downstream
A

c) Crews positioned downstream with spotters positioned upstream

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35
Q
  1. Operations on ice can only be conducted by who?
    a) FRU (SRTs)
    b) Fire-fighters fully competent
    c) FRU and fire-fighters
    d) FRU and fire-fighters under the guidance of a level 3 station manager(water rescue)
A

a) FRU (SRTs)

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36
Q
  1. At incidents involving water who is available to provide advice to the incident commander?
    a) Technical riverway tactical advisor
    b) Technical rescue tactical advisor
    c) Tactical rescue technical advisor
    d) Tactical Radio technical advisor
A

b) Technical rescue tactical advisor

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37
Q
  1. If there is any doubt about the level of water operations what should the IC do?
    a) Commence level 1 and request the attendance of a TRA
    b) Commence level 1 water operations
    c) Escalate to level 2
    d) Escalate to level 3
A

c) Escalate to level 2

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38
Q
  1. What is the minimum PPE for a fire-fighter entering water to affect a rescue?
    a) Leggings, Helmet, Personal Floatation Device & safety line
    b) Tunic and Personal Floatation Device
    c) Full PPE, Personal Floatation Device
    d) Full PPE and a floating safety line
A

c) Full PPE, Personal Floatation Device

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39
Q
  1. When a fire-fighter enters the water to affect a rescue what control measure must be in place?
    a) FRU with full water rescue equipment must be in attendance
    b) Station Manager(water) must be in attendance
    c) Level 3 water operations
    d) A floating safety line supervisor must be in place
A

d) A floating safety line supervisor must be in place

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40
Q
  1. What three elements make up the hierarchy of rescue when conducting rescue under level 1 conditions?
    a) Talk-Reach-Commit
    b) Talk-Reach-Throw
    c) Wait-Reach-Throw
    d) Wait-Throw-Debrief
A

b) Talk-Reach-Throw

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41
Q
  1. Messages sent from water related incidents should indicate what?
    a) Level of resources required and position of spotters
    b) IC and tactical mode
    c) System of work in place and individual call signs of machines in attendance
    d) Level of resources required or systems of work in place
A

d) Level of resources required or systems of work in place

42
Q
  1. What does COMAH stand for ?
    a) Control of Major Accident Hazard
    b) Chemical Operational Major Accident Hazard
    c) Control of Manmade Asbestos Housings
    d) Constant Operational Monitoring of Abnormal Hazards
A

a) Control of Major Accident Hazard

43
Q
  1. What is the considered hazard zone for a natural gas leak at a domestic property ?
    a) 100m
    b) 150m
    c) 50m
    d) 25m
A

d) 25m

44
Q
  1. Can a single BA crew may be committed to ventilate when responding to a domestic carbon monoxide detector actuating ?
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

45
Q
  1. The legal responsibility for dealing with natural gas leaks including carbon monoxide and natural gas safety rests with ?
    a) LAS
    b) MPS
    c) Gas company
    d) LFB
A

c) Gas company

46
Q
  1. How are Carbon Monoxide leaks in a domestic premise dealt with ?
    a) 1 x 45mm on safety setting and pulse into ceiling to isolate gas tap
    b) Evacuate – Isolate – Ventilate
    c) Call the gas company and stand back
    d) Declare a level 2 HAZMAT attendance
A

b) Evacuate – Isolate – Ventilate

47
Q
  1. What is the amount of 90mm Hose carried on a Hose Layer Unit (HLU) ?
    a) 2 Kilometres
    b) 4 Kilometres
    c) 6 Kilometres
    d) 8 Kilometres
A

b) 4 Kilometres

48
Q
  1. What is the minimum crew a HLU driver will need to assist in laying 90mm hose?
    a) 2
    b) 4
    c) 6
    d) No minimum
A

b) 4

49
Q
  1. How many Hose Layer Units are found in the LFB?
    a) 3
    b) 4
    c) 5
    d) 6
A

b) 4

50
Q
  1. When should Hose be connected to the water supply?
    a) Once order for “Water On” has been given
    b) Before the HLU started laying hose
    c) At any time during hose laying
    d) Only after hose laying has been completed
A

a) Once order for “Water On” has been given

51
Q
  1. After hose deployment, what information should be sent to Brigade Control?
    a) HLU Call Sign / “Hose Laying Complete”
    b) Amount of Hose / “Water Relay in use”
    c) HLU Call Sign / Amount of Hose / Number of Pumps in Water Relay
    d) No information need to be sent
A

c) HLU Call Sign / Amount of Hose / Number of Pumps in Water Relay

52
Q
  1. In addition to the HLU driver, what is the minimum number of trained and Non-trained crew required to make-up 90mm hose?
    a) 2/3
    b) 4/2
    c) 2/2
    d) 3/3
A

a) 2/3

53
Q
  1. Up to what voltage will Electrical glove provide adequate protection?
    a) 5000v
    b) 2500v
    c) 4300v
    d) 3300v
A

d) 3300v

54
Q
  1. Whilst waiting for attendance of authorised electrical personnel, fire crews should focus on?
    a) Fighting Fire
    b) Protecting surrounding risks
    c) Carrying out rescues
    d) Siting appliances up-wind
A

b) Protecting surrounding risks

55
Q
  1. The walls and floor surrounding electrical sub-stations will offer how long fire resistance?
    a) 4 hours
    b) 1 hour
    c) 2 hours
    d) 6 hours
A

a) 4 hours

56
Q
  1. When not using hose, ladders and aerial appliances should be sited a minimum of what distance away from overhead power lines?
    a) 3 metres
    b) 6 metres
    c) 10 metres
    d) 15 metres
A

c) 10 metres

57
Q
  1. What is the minimum safe distance crews should be from overhead power lines when operating a hand-held jet?
    a) 5 metres
    b) 30 metres
    c) 10 metres
    d) 20 metres
A

d) 20 metres

58
Q
  1. Attempts to rescue a casualty seen lying on top of an electrical transformer or touching a switch should only be made when?
    a) They call for help
    b) Electrical authority has deemed it safe to do so
    c) There is no evidence of fire
    d) If fire crews are wearing electrical safety gloves
A

b) Electrical authority has deemed it safe to do so

59
Q
  1. Which of the following incidents are FIU’s not on the PDA?
    a) 4 pump fires and above
    b) Explosions
    c) Persons reported
    d) High rise
A

d) High rise

60
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT ?
    You must request a fire investigation unit when:
    a) The fire originated from an electrical appliance.
    b) A possible re-kindling has occurred after a fire previously attended by the brigade.
    c) You are refused entry to an incident for the purpose of fire investigation or need to take samples.
    d) You cannot find the cause for a fire
A

a) The fire originated from an electrical appliance.

61
Q
  1. What is the role of the Railway Incident Officer (RIO) ?
    a) To take overall responsibility for the incident
    b) To advise the IC with regards to track safety
    c) To liaise between the brigade and the rail authorities
    d) To turn off the power to the live rails
A

b) To advise the IC with regards to track safety

62
Q
  1. When is the only time we can go on the track?
    a. When we are being used as a lookout
    b. To save saveable human life
    c. To save saveable animals
    d. To remove debris from oncoming trains
A

b. To save saveable human life

63
Q
  1. When dealing with a fire in a railway arch what is the minimum weight of attack?
    a. Fire extinguisher
    b. 70 mm jet
    c. Hosereel
    d. 45 mm jet
A

.

64
Q
  1. Approx what distance will a train travelling at 79 mph take to stop?
    a. Over two miles
    b. Half a mile
    c. Over a mile
    d. Over three miles
A

.

65
Q
  1. Firefighters must not go within how many metres of Overhead Line Equipment?
    a. 3
    b. 5
    c. 10
    d. 15
A

a. 3

66
Q
  1. Firefighters can go onto the track once a Network Rail representative confirms it is safe to do so.
    a. True
    b. False
A

.

67
Q
  1. Under what exceptional circumstances is it sufficient to only have ONE BA wearer?
    a) Car fire
    b) Rubbish fire
    c) Working a monitor at the head of an aerial appliance
    d) All of the above
A

d) All of the above

68
Q
  1. An ‘A’ test is to be carried out…….?
    a) When the hydraulic test date has expired
    b) On receipt from PEG
    c) When nominated to test a ‘spare’ set
    d) After use during a training exercise
A

c) When nominated to test a ‘spare’ set

69
Q
  1. When must Stage II entry control procedures be implemented?
    a) Confirmed radiation incident
    b) Confirmed basement fire
    c) Confirmed hazardous materials incident
    d) Other agencies being committed in BA
A

d) Other agencies being committed in BA

70
Q
  1. Which additional information is communicated to the ECB every 20 seconds from each ‘logged-on’ BA set?
    a) Time of whistle, time to whistle, cylinder pressure and time elapsed from loss of signal
    b) Time of whistle, time to whistle, cylinder pressure and location of crews
    c) Time to whistle, cylinder pressure, time elapsed from loss of signal and time in
    d) Cylinder pressure, time to whistle, time of whistle and time in
A

a) Time of whistle, time to whistle, cylinder pressure and time elapsed from loss of signal

71
Q
  1. A 200m cordon MUST be implemented if
    a) The cylinder/s involved have been identified as acetylene
    b) The IC suspects the cylinder may be acetylene
    c) The IC cannot determine the contents of the cylinder/s involved
    d) All of the above
A

d) All of the above

72
Q
  1. CAP stands for…
    a) Cylinder Application Process
    b) Cylinder Assessment Process
    c) Cylinder Application Procedure
    d) Cylinder Assessment Procedure
A

b) Cylinder Assessment Process

73
Q
  1. If a cylinder not involved in a fire is found to be leaking, what action should be taken?
    a) The cylinder should be shut down if the cylinder valve is undamaged
    b) The cylinder should not be shut down at any point
    c) The cylinder should be moved to a place of safety
    d) The CAP process should be carried out
A

c) The cylinder should be moved to a place of safety

74
Q
  1. What colour on the shoulder of a compressed gas cylinder denotes that it’s toxic?
    a) Yellow
    b) Orange
    c) Brown
    d) Red
A

a) Yellow

75
Q
  1. Whilst on route to a fire you notice a red warning triangle with a black exclamation mark appear on the MDT – what does it mean ?
    a) CRR information
    b) An O2 cylinder is present
    c) A Yankee Hazard is present
    d) A 7(2)d has been carried out at that premises
A

c) A Yankee Hazard is present

76
Q
  1. Who is responsible for safety of brigade personnel whilst working on roadways?
    a) Police
    b) Incident commander
    c) L.A.S.
    d) Highways Agency Traffic Officer
A

b) Incident commander

77
Q
  1. Who has overall control of an incident on a roadway?
    a) Police
    b) Incident commander
    c) L.A.S.
    d) Highways Agency Traffic Officer
A

a) Police

78
Q
  1. Can fireground radios be used inside a vehicle to transmit messages if the vehicle has confirmed un-activated SRS?
    a) Yes
    b) No
A

b) No

79
Q
  1. FRU’s can be returned from incidents where a “persons trapped” informative message has been sent from the incident.
    a) True
    b) False
A

b) False

80
Q
  1. In an emergency, a FF may for the purposes of rescuing people , or protecting them from harm may
    a) Move or break into a vehicle without the owners consent
    b) Close a highway/stop and regulate traffic
    c) Restrict access of persons to the place concerned
    d) All of the above
A

d) All of the above

81
Q
  1. With an RTC in lane 2 of a 3 lane roadway. What lane closures should apply?
    a) Hard shoulder and lanes 1 and 2
    b) Hard shoulder and lanes 1, 2, and 3
    c) Lanes 1, 2, and 3
    d) Lanes 2 and 3
A

c) Lanes 1, 2, and 3

82
Q
  1. An RTC has occurred on the hard shoulder of a motorway. What lane closures should apply?
    a) Hard shoulder
    b) Hard shoulder and 1 lane
    c) Hard shoulder and lane 1 and2
    d) Lanes 1 and 2
A

b) Hard shoulder and 1 lane

83
Q
  1. What statement is incorrect ?
    a) BA crews can be committed without radio communications
    b) B.A.R.I.E should be used where available
    c) The Entel HX-480/1 is not intrinsically safe
    d) The Entel HX-480/1 can be used as BA communications
A

a) BA crews can be committed without radio communications

84
Q
  1. What channel is used as the initial incident command channel?
    a) Channel 4
    b) Channel 3
    c) Channel 2
    d) Channel1
A

d) Channel1

85
Q
  1. When is channel 4 used at an incident in London?
    a) As an additional command channel
    b) As a FF task channel
    c) As a leaky feeder/base station channel
    d) Not to be used unless directed by the duty radio officer
A

d) Not to be used unless directed by the duty radio officer

86
Q
  1. When channel 2 is to be used at an incident. Who can initiate its use?
    a) Sector commanders
    b) Incident commanders
    c) CU communications operator
    d) Anybody on the fire ground
A

c) CU communications operator

87
Q
  1. When channel 2 is used, what is the minimum rank of a sector commander radio operator?
    a) FF
    b) CM
    c) CM+
    d) WM
A

a) FF

88
Q
  1. Apart from the main scheme radio channel. The CU will monitor all handheld channels in operation at the incident.
    a) True
    b) False
A

.

89
Q
  1. What Digital Tetra radio talkgroups should be used for mobiles “talk through” purposes?
    a) 23 and 24
    b) 22 and 23
    c) 21 and 22
    d) 20 and 21
A

.

90
Q
  1. What is the maximum amount of fireworks (domestic use – in an ISO container) that can be stored in a shop ?
    a) 125KG
    b) 250KG
    c) 100KG
    d) 500KG
A

b) 250KG

91
Q
  1. Whilst on your stations ground you notice a shop selling fireworks that is not on your registered list – what action should you take ?
    a) Liaise with the local fire safety team and place an entry on the operational risk database
    b) email your borough commander
    c) Report the shop to trading standards
    d) Email all watches advising of the shop and issue shop with a closure notice
A

a)Liaise with the local fire safety team and place an entry on the operational risk database

92
Q 
92. In the early stages of an incident you identify that explosive materials are involved – 
       What message should you send ?
a)	Make pumps six, with RVP
b)	Persons reported
c)	Initiate Major Incident Procedure
d)	Explosives confirmed involved
A

d) Explosives confirmed involved

93
Q
  1. What is the hazrds zone for explosives involved in fire of over 2000Kg ?
    a) 250m
    b) 500m
    c) 1 kilometre
    d) 1500m
A

c) 1 kilometre

94
Q
  1. At an incident involving explosives should you consider the use of a HMEPO ?
    a) No
    b) Yes
    c) Maybe
    d) Only if it is a day duty
A

.

95
Q
  1. What is the role of the Operations Commander ?
    a) To liaise with sector commanders
    b) To replace the team leader on a command unit at large incidents
    c) To be in command of the operations side of an incident for the incident commander
    d) To handle press liaison
A

c) To be in command of the operations side of an incident for the incident commander

96
Q
  1. Sector 1 would normally indicate what ?
    a) The main sector or focal sector
    b) The rear of a premise
    c) The sector with the highest ranking sector commander
    d) The first sector that is created
A

a) The main sector or focal sector

97
Q
  1. What is flashover ?
    a) A fire in an oxygen starved compartment
    b) Sudden and sustained transition of a growing fire to a fully developed fire
    c) An explosion in an other compartment away from the fire
    d) A fire that is out on arrival
A

b) Sudden and sustained transition of a growing fire to a fully developed fire

98
Q
  1. What are the signs and symptoms of backdraught ?
    a) Fire gasses being pushed out under doorways or gaps in the compartment
    b) Air being drawn back into the compartment
    c) Smoke blackened windows and no sign of flame
    d) All of the above
A

d) All of the above

99
Q
  1. When approaching a helicopter where should you come from ?
    a) The side
    b) The rear
    c) Any way so long as you wave at the pilot
    d) From the front in view of the pilot
A

d) From the front in view of the pilot

100
Q
  1. Other than being flammable – what other hazards does aviation fuel represent ?
    a) Smells and is difficult to clean
    b) Irritant, Corrosive and toxic
    c) Is damaging to the runway
    d) All of the above
A

d) All of the above

101
Q
  1. Airport fire service will attend incidents up to what distance form their airport ?
    a) 7km
    b) 5.4km
    c) 3.3km
    d) 2km
A

?

CM 2019 (1 decks)

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