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CM Flashcards

1
Q

The amount of amniotic fluid increases in quantity throughout pregnancy, reaching a peak of approximately _ mL during the third trimester, and then gradually decreases prior to delivery.
A. 400 to 800 mL
B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL
C. 1,200 to 1,500 mL
D. 2,000 to 4, 000 mL

A

B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL

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2
Q

A maximum of _ mL of amniotic fluid is collected in sterile syringes.
A. 5 mL
B. 10 mL
C. 20 mL
D. 30 mL

A

D. 30 mL

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3
Q

When severe HDN is present, which of the following tests on the amniotic fluid would the physician not order to determine whether the fetal lungs’are mature enough towithstand a premature delivery?

A. AFP levels
B. Foam stability index
C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
D. Phosphatidy glycerol detection

A

A. AFP levels

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4
Q

In the foam or shake test, amniotic fluid is mixed with:
A. 1% NaOH
B. 3% acetic acid
C. 70% ethanol
D. 95% ethanol

A

D. 95% ethanol

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5
Q

A rapid test for FLM that does not require performance of thin-layer chromatography is:
A. AFP levels
B Amniotic acetylcholinesterase
C. Aminostat-FLM
D. Bilirubin scan

A

C. Aminostat-FLM

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6
Q

The presence of phosphatidyl glycerol in amniotic fluid fetal lung maturity tests must be confirmed when:

A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is present
B. The mother has diabetes
C. Amniotic fluid is contaminated by hemoglobin
D. Neural tube disorder is suspected

A

B. The mother has diabetes

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7
Q

Microviscosity of amniotic fluid is measured by:
A. Thin-layer chromatography
B. Immunologic agglutination
C. Spectrophotometer
D. Fluorescence polarization

A

D. Fluorescence polarization

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8
Q

O.D. 650
A. Acetylcholinesterase
B. Bilirubin
C. Lamellar bodies
D. Oxyhemoglobin

A

C. Lamellar bodies

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9
Q

Amniotic fluid for OD 650:
A. Addition of ethanol
B. Addition of methanol
C. Centrifuged at 2,000 g for 10 minutes
D. Mix the sample by gentle inversion or by placing the test tube on a tube rocker

A

C. Centrifuged at 2,000 g for 10 minutes

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10
Q

Method for counting lamellar bodies:
A. Densitometry
B. Flow cytometry
C. Impedance
D. Radiofrequency

A

C. Impedance

and optical principle

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11
Q

Amniotic fluid for lamellar body count:
A. Addition of ethanol
B. Addition of methanol
C. Centrifuged at 2000 g for 10 minutes
D. Mix the sample by gentle inversion or by placing the test tube on a tube rocker

A

D. Mix the sample by gentle inversion or by placing the test tube on a tube rocker

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12
Q

Bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections produce increased sécretion of water and electrolytes, which override the reabsorptive ability of the large intestine, leading to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these

A

B. Secretory diarrhea

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13
Q

Maldigestion (impaired food digestion)
and malabsorption (impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine) contribute to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these

A

A. Osmotic diarrhea

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14
Q

The BROWN COLOR OF THE FECES results from intestinal oxidation of stercobilinogen to_
A. Bilirubin
B. Blood
C. Urobilinogen
D. Urobilin

A

D. Urobilin

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15
Q

A pale, frothy stool is indicative of which of the following?
A. Barium testing
B. Osmotic diarrhea
C. Steatorrhea
D. Excess carbohydrates

A

C. Steatorrhea

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16
Q

Stool specimens that appear ribbon-like are indicative of which condition?
A. Bile-duct obstruction
B. Colitis
C. Intestinal constriction
D. Malignancy

A

C. Intestinal constriction

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17
Q

The normal composition of feces includes all of the following except:
A. Bacteria
B. Blood
C. Electrolytes
D. Water

A

B. Blood

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18
Q

By far the MOST FREQUENTLY PERFORMED
FECAL ANALYSIS is the detection of:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fats
C. Leukocytes
D. Occult blood (hidden blood)

A

D. Occult blood

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19
Q

Guaiac tests for detecting occult blood rely on the:
A. Reaction of hemoglobin with hydrogen peroxide
B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
C. Reaction of hemoglobin with ortho-toluidine
D. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hydrogen peroxide

A

B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin

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20
Q

Large orange-red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III represent:
A. Cholesterol
B. Fatty acids
C. Neutral fats
D. Soaps

A

C. Neutral fats

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21
Q

Steatorrhea
A. <60 Fat droplets/ hpf
B.> 60 Fat droplets/ hpf
C. <60 Fat droplets/ lpf
D. >60 Fat droplets/ lpf

A

B.> 60 Fat droplets/ hpf

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22
Q

Microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan Ill and glacial acetic acid and then heated will show small orange-red droplets that represent:
A. Fatty acids and soaps
B. Fatty acids and neutral fats
C. Fatty acids, soaps, and neutral fats
D. Soaps

A

C. Fatty acids, soaps, and neutral fats

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23
Q

What is the significance of an APT test that remains pink after addition of sodium hydroxide?
A. Fecal fat is present
B. Fetal hemoglobin is present
C. Fecal trypsin is present
D.Vitamin C is present

A

B. Fetal hemoglobin is present

APT TEST
Reagent: 1% NAOH

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24
Q

Liquefaction of a semen specimen should take place within:
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours

A

A. 1 hour

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25
Q

Sperm motility evaluations are performed:
A. Immediately after the specimen is collected
B. Within 1 hour of collection
C. After 3 hours of incubation
D. At 6-hour intervals for 1 day

A

B. Within 1 hour of collection

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26
Q

The percentage of sperm showing average motility that is considered normal is:
А. 25%
B. 50%
С. 60%
D. 75%

A

B. 50%

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27
Q

Failure of laboratory personnel to document the time a semen sample is collected primarily affects the interpretation of semen:
A. Appearance
B. Volume
C. pH
D. Viscosity

A

D. Viscosity

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28
Q

Location of sperm nucleus:
A. No nucleus
B. Head
C. Neck
D. Tail

A

B. Head

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29
Q

The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to:
A. Penetrate the ovum
B. Protect the nucleus
C. Create energy for tail movement
D. Protect the neckpiece

A

A. Penetrate the ovum

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30
Q

Measurement of a -glucosidase is performed to detect a disorder of the:
A. Seminiferous tubules
B. Epididymis
C. Prostate gland
D. Bulbourethral glands

A

B. Epididymis

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31
Q

Follow-up testing for a low sperm concentration would include testing for:
A. Anti-sperm antibodies
B. Seminal fluid fructose
C. Sperm vitality
D. Prostatic acid phosphatase

A

B. Seminal fluid fructose

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32
Q

Following an abnormal sperm motility test with a normal sperm count, what additional test might be ordered?
A. Fructose level
B. Zinc level
C. MAR test
D. Eosin-nigrosin stain

A

D. Eosin-nigrosin stain

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33
Q

Given the following information, calculate the SPERM CONCENTRATION: dilution, 1:10; sperm counted in 25 RBC SQUARES ON EACH SIDE OF THE HEMOCYTOMETER, 198 and 202; seminal fluid volume is 4 mL.
A. 20 M/mL
B. 20 M/ejaculate
C. 80 M/mL
D. 80 M/ejaculate

A

A. 20 M/mL

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34
Q

When performing a sperm concentration, 60 sperms are counted in the RBC squares on one side of the hemocytometer and 90 sperms are counted in the RBC squares on the other side.
The specimen is diluted 1:20. The:
A. Specimen should be rediluted and counted
B. Sperm count is 75 million/mL
C. Sperm count is greater than 5 million/mL
D. Sperm concentration is abnormal

A

A. Specimen should be rediluted and counted

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35
Q

For POSTVASECTOMY SEMEN ANALYSIS, specimens are routinely tested:
A. Beginning at 1 month postvasectomy and continuing until two consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.
B. Beginning at 2 months postvasectomy and continuing until two consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.
C. Beginning at 2 months postvasectomy and continuing until three consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.
D. Beginning at 3 months postvasectomy and continuing until three consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.

A

B. Beginning at 2 months postvasectomy and continuing until two consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.

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36
Q

Which of the following is most likely to activate the alternative pathway of complement activation?
A. Lipopolysaccharides
B. Glycoproteins
C. Haptens
D. IgG complexed with antigen

A

A. Lipopolysaccharides

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37
Q

The transfusion service is preparing aliquots from a unit of Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced with the aid of a sterile connecting device for a pediatric patient. When checking the weld for one of these aliquots, it is noted that the weld is incomplete and leaking. This unit is then resealed with an acceptable weld.
What will the expiration date of this unit be?
A. 6 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 3 days
D. Original expiration date

A

B. 24hrs

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38
Q

A technologist removed 4 units of blood from the blood bank refrigerator and placed them on the counter. A clerk was waiting to take the units for transfusion. As she checked the paperwork, she noticed that one of the units was leaking onto the counter. What should she do?
A. Issue the unit if the red cells appear normal
B. Reseal the unit
C. Discard the unit
D. Call the medical director and ask for an opinion

A

C. Discard the unit

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39
Q

Traditional example of quality control:
A. Error-free quality
B. Management controlled worker
C. Quality as means to lower cost
D. Quality defined

A

B. Management controlled worker

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40
Q

Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of laboratory services:
A. Laboratory supervisor
B. Laboratory manager or chief MT Laboratory director
D. Administrator

A

A. Laboratory supervisor

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41
Q

In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be:
A. Patients
B. Needlesticks
C. Specimens
D. Biohazardous waste

A

C. Specimens

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42
Q

The best way to break the chain of infection is:
A. Handwashing
B. Personal protective equipment
C. Aerosol prevention
D. Decontamination

A

A. Handwashing

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43
Q

An employee can learn the carcinogenic potential of potassium chloride by consulting the:
A. Chemical hygiene plan
B. Material safety data sheets
C. OSHA standards
D. Urinalysis procedure manual

A

B. Material safety data sheets

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44
Q

Blood vessel that supply blood to the kidney:
A. Renal artery
B. Renal vein
C. Peritubular capillaries
D. None of these

A

A. Renal artery

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45
Q

The only tissue in the body that is hypertonic with respect to normal plasma (i.e., its osmolality is greater than 290 mOsm/kg):
A. Glomerulus
B. Convoluted tubules
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal medulla

A

D. Renal Medulla

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46
Q

Ultrafiltration:
A. Chemical filtration
B. Mechanical filtration
C. Both of these
D. None of these

A

B. Mechanical filtration

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47
Q

Composition of urine:
A. Organic chemicals dissolved in water
B. Inorganic chemicals dissolved in water
C. Organic and inorganic chemicals
D. Organic and inorganic chemicals dissolved in water

A

D. Organic and inorganic chemicals dissolved in water

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48
Q

Which of the following is passively reabsorbed?
A. Amino acids
B. Chloride
C. Glucose
D. Urea

A

D. Urea

Amino acids & Glucose
- active proximal convoluted tubule
Chloride
-Active Ascending loop of henle
Urea
-Passive proximal and ascending

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49
Q

The correct method for labeling urine specimen containers is to:
A. Attach the label to the lid
B. Attach the label to the bottom
C. Attach the label to the container
D. Use only a wax pencil for labeling

A

C. Attach the label to the container

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50
Q

Urine preservative that maintains the pH at about 6.0 and preserves protein and formed elements well without interfering with routine testing except for pH.
A. Boric acid
B. Toluene
C. Formalin
D. Phenol

A

A. Boric acid

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51
Q

Polyuria in adults:
A. Greater than 1.5 L urine/day
B. Greater than 2.0 L urine/day
C. Greater than 2.5 L urine/day
D. Greater than 3.0 L urine/day

A

C. Greater than 2.5 L urine/day

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52
Q

Evaluation of polyuria:
A. Culture
B. Glucose
C. Routine urinalysis
D. Urine osmolality

A

D. Urine osmolality

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53
Q

Urine solute exhibiting diurnal variation:
A. Creatinine
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. 17-hydroxysteroids

A

D. 17-hydroxysteroids

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54
Q

Phenol derivatives found in certain intravenous medications produce _
_urine on oxidation.
A. Amber
B. Yellow
C. Orange
D. Green

A

D. Green

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55
Q

Calibration of centrifuges is customarily performed every _
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Every 3 months (quarterly)

A

D. Every 3 months

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56
Q

Centrifuges are routinely disinfected on
aIbasis.
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Yearly

A

B. Weekly

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57
Q

Let refrigerated urine specimens warm to _
_before testing:
A. Body temperature
B. Room temperature
C. 37 °C
D. 56 °C

A

B. Room temperature

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58
Q

Refrigeration may cause precipitation of amorphous urates and phosphates and other nonpathologic crystals that can obscure other elements in the urine sediment. Warming the specimen to prior to centrifuging may dissolve some of these crystals.
А. 20 °C
в. 37 °C
C. 40 °C
D. 100 °C

A

B. 37 C

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59
Q

Which of the following produces sweet or fruity odor in urine?
A. Bacteria
B. Ketone
C. Methionine
D. Phenylalanine

A

B. Ketone

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60
Q

335
The concentration of myoglobin in the urine must be at least before the red pigmentation can be visualized.
A. 10 mg/dL
B. 15 mg/dL
c. 20 mg/dL
D. 25 mg/dL

A

D. 25mg/dl

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61
Q

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.005 would be considered:
A. Isosthenuric
B. Hyposthenuric
C. Hypersthenuric
D. Not urine

A

B. Hyposthenuric

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62
Q

The reading of distilled water by the refractometer is 1.003. You should:
A. Subtract 1.003 from each specimen reading
B. Add 1.003 to each specimen reading
C. Use a new refractometer
D. Adjust the set screw

A

D. Adjust the set screw

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63
Q

Refractometer results are valid up to specimen with greater than (your answer) should be diluted and remeasured.
A. 1.020
В. 1.030
C. 1.035
D. 1.050

A

C. 1.035

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64
Q

Urine specific gravity by the REAGENT STRIP is 1.020, chemical tests indicate presence of 2 g/dL protein. What is the corrected specific gravity?
A. 1.010
B. 1.012
C. 1.014
D. 1.020

A

D. 1.020

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65
Q

Urine specific gravity by the REFRACTOMETER is 1.020.
The urine temperature is 17 °C. What is the corrected specific gravity?
A. 1.016
в. 1.017
C. 1.019
D. 1.020

A

D. 1.020

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66
Q

Urine specific gravity by the URINOMETER is 1.032. The urine temperature is 26 °C and chemical tests indicate presence of 2g/dl protein. What is the corrected specific gravity?
A. 1.022
в. 1.024
C. 1.026
D. 1.028

A

D. 1.028

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67
Q

The method for determining a urine specific gravity that is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution is:
A. Colorimetric
B. Oscillation densitometry
C. Refractometry
D. Urinometry

A

B. Oscillation densitometry

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68
Q

A urine sample is received in the laboratory with the appropriate custody control form, and a request for drug of abuse screening. Which test result would be cause for rejecting the sample?
A. Temperature after collection 95°F
B. pH 5.0
C. Specific gravity 1.005
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL

A

D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL

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69
Q

When testing for drugs of abuse in urine, which of the following test results indicate dilution and would be cause for rejecting the sample?
A. Temperature upon sample submission 92°F
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
C. pH 5.8; temperature 94°F
D. Specific gravity 1.012, creatinine 25 mg/dL

A

B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL

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70
Q

How should controls be run to ensure the precision and accuracy of the reagent test strips used for the chemical analysis of urine?
A. Positive controls should be run on a daily basis and negative controls when opening a new bottle of test strips.
B. Positive and negative controls should be run when the test strips’ expiration date is passed.
C. Positive and negative controls should be run on a daily basis.
D. Positive controls should be run on a daily basis and negative controls on a weekly basis.

A

C. Positive and negative controls should be run on a daily basis.

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71
Q

All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent strips EXCEPT:
A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle
B. Storing in an opaque bottle
C. Storing at room temperature
D. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip

A

A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle

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72
Q

Which of the following tests is affected LEAST by standing or improperly stored urine?
A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Bilirubin

A

B. Protein

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73
Q

The principle of “protein error of indicators” is based on:
A. Protein changing the pH of the specimen
B. Protein changing the pKa of the specimen
C. Protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator
D. Protein giving up hydrogen to the indicator

A

C. Protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator

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74
Q

Sensitivity of Multistix albumin pad:
A. 5 to 10 mg/dL albumin
B. 10 to 14 mg/dL albumin
C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin
D. 20 to 30 mg/dL albumin

A

C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin

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75
Q

Daily loss of protein in urine normally does not exceed:
A. 30 mg
B. 50 mg
C. 100 mg
D. 150 mg

A

D. 150 mg

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76
Q

Bilirubin combines with 2,6-dichlorobenzene-diazonium-tetrafluoroborate in an acid medium to produce an azodye, with colors ranging from:
A. Green to blue
B. Green to brown
C. Pink to purple
D. Yellow to orange

A

C. Pink to purple

77
Q

The purpose of the special mat supplied with the Ictotest tablets is that:
A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat
B. It contains the dye needed to produce color
C. It removes interfering substances
D. Bilirubin is absorbed into the mat

A

A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat

78
Q

All of the following are contained in the Multistix urine glucose pad, EXCEPT:
A.Glucose oxidase
B. Gluconic acid
C. Peroxidase
D. Potassium iodide

A

B. Gluconic acid

79
Q

False negative glucose pad:
A. Oxidizing agents
B. Detergent
C. Refrigerator temperature
D. None of these

A

C. Refrigerator temperature

80
Q

The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to:
A. Check for high ascorbic acid levels
B. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose
C. Check for newborn galactosuria
D. Confirm a negative glucose reading

A

C. Check for newborn galactosuria

81
Q

False negative urobilinogen reagent strip:
A. Formalin
B. Methyldopa
C. Porphobilinogen
D. Sulfonamides

A

A. Formalin

82
Q

Test for
requires patients on a
diet that contains GREEN VEGETABLES:
A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Ketone
D. Nitrite

A

D. Nitrite

83
Q

Primary test for diagnosing and monitoring bacterial infection:
A. Glucose and ketones
B. Leukocyte esterase
C. Nitrite
D. Culture

A

D. Culture

84
Q

Esterases also are present in which parasite?
A. Enterobius
B Giardia
C. Schistosoma
D. Trichomonas

A

D. Trichomonas

85
Q

When semi-automated urine chemistry analyzers are used, the color that develops on the reaction pads is measured by:
A. Spectrophotometry
B. Reflectance photometry
C. Fluorescence photometry
D. Comparing reaction pads with a color chart

A

B. Reflectance photometry

86
Q

Reflectance photometry uses the principle that light reflection from the test pads in proportion to the intensity of color produced by the concentration of the test substance.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Variable
D. Undetermined

A

B. Decreases

87
Q

Type of microscope used for routine urinalysis:
A. Bright-field microscope
B. Phase contrast microscope
C. Polarizing microscope
D. Interference contrast microscope

A

A. Bright-field microscope

88
Q

It enhances visualization of elements with low refractive indices:
A. Bright-field microscope
B. Dark-field microscope
C. Phase contrast microscope
D. Interference contrast microscope

A

D. Interference contrast microscope

89
Q

Type of microscope that forms HALO of light around an object:
A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field microscope
C. Polarizing microscope
D. Phase-contrast

A

D. Phase-contrast

90
Q

It produces a THREE-DIMENSIONAL MICROSCOPY
IMAGE and layer by- layer imaging of a specimen:
A. Bright-field microscope
B. Phase contrast microscope
C. Polarizing microscope
D. Interference contrast microscope

A

D. Interference contrast microscope

91
Q

Kohler illumination is:
A. Method to ensure optimal contrast and resolution
B. Method to magnify objects
C. An indication of the type of light source in use
D. One method of phase contrast magnification

A

A. Method to ensure optimal contrast and resolution

92
Q

Initial magnification:
A. Condenser
B. Rheostat
C. Ocular
D. Objective

A

D. Objective

93
Q

Further magnification:
A. Condenser
B. Rheostat
c. Ocular
D. Objective

A

c. Ocular

94
Q

Primary components of the lens system:
1. Oletives
3. Coarse adjustment knob
4. Fine adjustment knobs
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

95
Q

Centrifugation for urine microscopic examination:
A. RCF of 100 for 2 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
C. RCF of 500 for 5 minutes
D. RCF of 500 for 10 minutes

A

B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes

96
Q

Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of:
A. 4x
B. 10x
C. 40x
D. 100x

A

B. 10x

97
Q

Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:
A. Prussian blue
B. Toluidine blue
C. Acetic acid
D. Both B and C

A

D. Both B and C

98
Q

When pyuria is detected in a sediment, the slide should be carefully checked for the presence of:
A. RBCs
B. Bacteria
C. Hyaline casts
D. Mucus

A

B. Bacteria

99
Q

Glitter cells in KOVA stain:
A. Violet
B. Light blue
C. Pink
D. Black

A

B. Light blue

100
Q

Hyaline cast in KOVA stain:
A. Dark shade of orange-purple
B. Dark shade of blue-purple
C. Pale pink or pale purple
D. Do not stain

A

C. Pale pink or pale purple

101
Q

Largest cell in urine sediment:
A. Squamous epithelial cells
B. Transitional epithelial cells
C. Renal tubular epithelial cells
D. None of these

A

A. Squamous epithelial cells

102
Q

Largest RTE cells originate from the:
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal collecting tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. None of these

A

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

103
Q

RTE cell from the proximal convoluted tubules:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these

A

A. Columnar or convoluted

104
Q

RTE cell from the distal convoluted tubules:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these

A

C. Round or oval

105
Q

RTE cells from the collecting duct:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these

A

B. Cuboidal

106
Q

Neutrophils lyse rapidly in:
A. Acetic acid
B. Ether
C. Dilute acid urine
D. Dilute alkaline urine

A

D. Dilute alkaline urine

107
Q

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

A

C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

108
Q

Of all the urine sediment elements, — are the MOST DIFFICULT TO RECOGNIZE.
A. Bacteria
B. Epithelial cells
C. RBCS
D. WBCS

A

C. RBCS

109
Q

RBCs in a dilute urine:
A. Crenate
B. Dysmorphic
C. Swell
D. Shrink

A

C. Swell

110
Q

RBC casts are easily detected under low power by their _ color.
A. Blue color
B. Purple color
C. Yellow color
D. Orange-red color

A

D. Orange-red color

111
Q

Following an episode of hemoglobinuria,
RTE cells may contain:

A. Bilirubin
B. Hemosiderin granules
C. Porphobilinogen
D. Myoglobin

A

B. Hemosiderin granules

112
Q

The order of cast degradation is:
A. Cellular > granular > waxy
B. Cellular > hyaline > waxy
C. Hyaline > cellular > waxy
D. Hyaline > granular > waxy

A

A. Cellular > granular > waxy

113
Q

The presence of waxy casts in a microscopic

examination of urine is consistent with a diagnosis of:

A. Strenuous exercise
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Chronic renal failure

A

D. Chronic renal failure

114
Q

Differentiation between cystitis and pyelonephritis is aided by the presence of:
A. WBC casts
B. RBC casts
C. Bacteria
D. Granular cast

A

A. WBC casts

115
Q

Primary urinalysis results:
* Leukocyturia,
* Bacteriuria
* Microscopic hematuria
* Mild proteinuria
* Increased pH

A. Acute interstitial nephritis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Cystitis

A

D. Cystitis

116
Q

Primary urinalysis results:
* Leukocyturia
* Bacteriuria
* WBC casts
* Bacterial casts
* Microscopic hematuria
★ Proteinuria
A. Acute interstitial nephritis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Cystitis

A

B. Acute pyelonephritis

117
Q

Urinalysis results include hematuria, possibly macroscopic, mild to moderate proteinuria, numerous WBCs, and WBC casts without the presence of bacteria:
A. Acute interstitial nephritis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Cystitis

A

A. Acute interstitial nephritis

118
Q

Eosinophils are not normally seen in the urine; therefore, the finding of more than___eosinophils in urine is considered significant:
A. More than 1%
B. More than 2%
C. More than 3%
D. More than 5%

A

A. More than 1%

119
Q

Urinalysis findings include mild proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, and most noticeably the presence of RTE cells and RTE cell casts containing tubular fragments consisting of three or more cell:
A. Acute interstitial nephritis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Cystitis

A

C. Acute tubular necrosis

120
Q

In SEVERE yeast infection:

A. Gram-negative coccobacilli
B. Pear-shaped flagellate with undulating membrane
C. Oval structures that may or may not contain a bud
D. Appear as branched, mycelial form

A

D. Appear as branched, mycelial form

121
Q

The primary component of urinary mucus is:
A. Bence Jones protein
B. Microalbumin
C. Uromodulin
D. Orthostatic protein

A

C. Uromodulin

122
Q

Amorphous urate crystals are soluble in
HEAT and:
A. Acetone
B. Chloroform
C. Dilute alkali
D. Ether

A

C. Dilute alkali

123
Q

The crystal associated with ETHYLENE GLYCOL poisoning has which characteristic appearance:
A. Coffin lid
B. Thorny apple
C. Envelope, pyramidal
D. Dumbbell

A

D. Dumbbell

124
Q

During microscopy, a medical technologist suspects that what he see are calcium oxalate crystals, but the uncommon form. These crystals are soluble with:
A. Acetic acid
B. Dilute HCI
C. Both
D. None

A

B. Dilute HCI

125
Q

Crystals may be precipitated with if ALCOHOL IS ADDED TO THE URINE:
A. Amorphous urate crystals
B. Bilirubin crystals
C. Triple phosphate crystals
D. Tyrosine and leucine crystals

A

D. Tyrosine and leucine crystals

126
Q

Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate?
A. Cystine
B. Tyrosine
C. Leucine
D. Cholesterol

A

A. Cystine

127
Q

Positive for the cyanide nitroprusside test:
A. Uric acid crystals
B. Cystine
C. Tyrosine
D. Leucine

A

B. Cystine

128
Q

Crystals in an amber-colored urine: Crystals appear as clumped needles or granules with the characteristic yellow color.
These crystals are characteristic of:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Hepatic disorders
D. Lipiduria example, nephrotic syndrome

A

C. Hepatic disorders

129
Q

Tests to for bilirubin detection:
A. Chloroform test
B. Esbach’s test
C. Heat and acetic acid test
D. Sulkowitch test

A

A. Chloroform test

130
Q

Calculi formation at pH > 7:
A. Uric acid, cystine, xanthine
B. Calcium oxalate, apatite
C. Triple phosphate, calcium phosphate
D. All of the above

A

C. Triple phosphate, calcium phosphate

131
Q

Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of:
A. Porphyrins
B. Purines
C. Mucopolysaccharides
D. Tryptophan

A

C. Mucopolysaccharides

132
Q

Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide (CTAB) test:
A. Homogentisic acid, transient blue
B. Mucopolysaccharides, blue spot
C. Mucopolysaccharides, white turbidity
D. PKU, blue-green color

A

C. Mucopolysaccharides, white turbidity

133
Q

Positive result in the metachromatic staining procedure for mucopolysaccharides:
A. Black precipitate
B. White turbidity
C. Blue spot
D. Red spot

A

C. Blue spot

134
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when urine is examined with an ultraviolet (Wood’s) lamp?
A. Acute intermittent porphyria
B. Lead poisoning
C. Erythropoietic porphyria
D. Porphyria cutanea tarda

A

B. Lead poisoning

135
Q

In automated microscopy, the DNA within the cells is stained by an orange dye:
A. Phenathridine
B. Carbocyanine
C. Both of these
D. None of these

A

A. Phenathridine

136
Q

Elevated compound(s) in congenital erythropoietic porphyria:

A. Protoporphyrin
B. ALA, porphobilinogen
C. ALA, protoporphyrin
D. Uropophyrin, coproporphyrin

A

D. Uropophyrin, coproporphyrin

137
Q

In automated microscopy, the nuclear membranes, mitochondria and negatively charged cell membranes are stained by the green dye:
A. Phenathridine
B. Carbocyanine
C. Both of these
D. None of these

A

B. Carbocyanine

138
Q

Which of the following fluids is not an ultrafiltrate of plasma?
A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
B. Peritoneal fluid
C. Pleural fluid
D. Synovial fluid

A

A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

139
Q

CSF is routinely collected by lumbar puncture

between the:

A. First, second or third lumbar vertebrae
B. First, second or fourth lumbar vertebrae
C. Second, third or fourth lumbar vertebrae
D. Third, fourth, or fifth lumbar vertebrae

A

D. Third, fourth, or fifth lumbar vertebrae

140
Q

CSF is collected from intervertebral
space between: [Turgeon]

A. T4 and T5
B. L2 and L3
C. L3 and L4
D. L4 and L5

A

D. L4 and L5

141
Q

What department is the CSF tube labeled 3 routinely sent to?
A. Hematology
B. Chemistry
C. Microbiology
D. Serology

A

A. Hematology

142
Q

The CSF tube that should be kept at room temperature is:
A. Tube 1
B. Tube 2
C. Tube 3
D. Tube 4

A

B. Tube 2

143
Q

Fourth CSF tube may be drawn for:
A. Cell counts
B. Chemical tests
C. Chemistry and cell counts
D. Microbiology or additional serologic tests

A

D. Microbiology or additional serologic tests

144
Q

If only a small amount of CSF is obtained, which is the most important procedure to perform first?

A. Cell count
B. Chemistries
C. Immunology
D. Microbiology

A

D. Microbiology

145
Q

CSF cell count should be performed:
A. Immediately
B. Within 5 minutes
C. Within 30 minutes
D. Within 1 hour

A

A. Immediately

146
Q

The cell count on a CSF specimen should be performed within _
_ of collection. [Turgeon]
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 2 hours
D. 12 hours
E. 24 hours

A

B. 1 hour

147
Q

A CSF total cell count is diluted with:
A. Distilled water
B. Normal saline
C. Acetic acid
D. Methylene blue

A

B. Normal saline

148
Q

A CSF WBC count is diluted with:
A. Distilled water
B. Normal saline
C.Acetic acid
D. Methylene blue

A

C.Acetic acid 3%

149
Q

The reference range for CSF protein is:
A. 6 to 8 g/dL
B. 15 to 45 g/dL
C. 6 to 8 mg/dL
D. 15 to 45 mg/dL

A

D. 15 to 45 mg/dL

150
Q

Major protein in CSF:
A. Albumin
B. Prealbumin
C. Transferrin
D. IgG

A

A. Albumin

151
Q

Second most prevalent protein in CSF:
A. Albumin
B. Prealbumin
C. Transferrin
D. IgG

A

B. Prealbumin

152
Q

Major beta globulin in CSF:
A. Albumin
B. Prealbumin
C. Transferrin
D. IgG

A

C. Transferrin

153
Q

CSF gamma-globulin is primarily:
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

A

C. IgG

154
Q

Following a head injury, which protein will identify the presence of CSF leakage through the nose?
A. Transthyretin
B. Myelin basic protein
C. Tau protein
D. C-reactive protein

A

C. Tau protein

155
Q

To assess the PERMEABILITY OF THE BLOOD/BRAIN BARRIER in CSF:
A. Albumin
B. IgG
C. Transferrin
D. Prealbumin

A

A. Albumin

156
Q

For an accurate evaluation of CSF glucose, a blood glucose test must be run for comparison. The blood glucose should be drawn about __ spinal tap to
allow time for equilibration between the blood and fluid.
A. 2 hour after spinal tap
B. 2 hours before spinal tap
C. 8 hours after spinal tap
D. 8 hours before spinal tap

A

B. 2 hours before spinal tap

157
Q

CSF test frequently requested for patients with coma of unknown origin:

A. Glucose
B. Glutamine
C. Lactate
D. Protein

A

B. Glutamine

158
Q

Given the following information, calculate the TOTAL CSF CELL COUNT, hazy CSF, diluted
1:20; cells counted in 2
WBC SQUARES ON EACH SIDE OF THE
HEMOCYTOMETER, 28
and 32.
A. 1,500/pL
в. 3,000/L
C. 3,200/pL
D. 30,000/pL

A

в. 3,000/uL

159
Q

Compute for the WBC count in patient’s CSF. Dilution 1:20, counted in 4 corner squares Given are the number of WBCs in each square:
Square 1: 40
Square 2: 43
Square 3: 43
Square 4: 44
A. 2, 125 WBCs/cu.mm.
B. 4, 250 WBCs/cu.mm.
C. 8, 500 WBCs/cu.mm.
D. 17,000 WBCs/cu.mm.

A

C. 8, 500 WBCs/cu.mm.

160
Q

Eosinophils may be increased in CSF in fungal infections primarily with:

A. Candida albicans
B. Coccidioides immitis
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Histoplasma capsulatum

A

B. Coccidioides immitis

161
Q

An increase in the amount of serous fluid is called a/an:
A. Exudate
B Transudate
C. Effusion
D. Malignancy

A

C. Effusion

162
Q

The MOST RELIABLE DIFFERENTIATION OF TRANSUDATE AND EXUDATE is usually obtained by:
A. Rivalta’s test
B. Determining the WBC count
C. Determining the fluid: blood ratios for protein and LDH
D. Determining the pleural fluid: serum cholesterol ratio

A

C. Determining the fluid: blood ratios for protein and LDH

163
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of an exudate effusion?
A. Leukocyte count >1000/uL
B. Clear appearance
C. Protein concentration <3.0 g/dL
D. Absence of fibrinogen

A

A. Leukocyte count >1000/uL

164
Q

The recommended test for determining whether

PERITONEAL FLUID is a transudate or an exudate is the:

A. Fluid: serum albumin ratio
B. Serum: ascites albumin gradient
C. Fluid: serum lactic dehydrogenase ratio
D. Absolute neutrophil count

A

B. Serum: ascites albumin gradient

165
Q

Black pleural fluid:
A. Aspergillus infection
B. Chylous effusion
C. Hemothorax
D. Rupture of amoebic liver abscess

A

A. Aspergillus infection

166
Q

Brown pleural fluid:
A. Aspergillus infection
B. Chylous effusion
C. Hemothorax
D. Rupture of amoebic liver abscess

A

D. Rupture of amoebic liver abscess

167
Q

These cells are increased in effusions resulting from PANCREATITIS:
A. Plasma cells
B. Lymphocytes
C. Mesothelial cells
D. Neutrophils

A

D. Neutrophils

168
Q

Presence of plasma cells but noticeable lack of mesothelial cells in pleural fluid is associated with:
A. Autoimmune disorders
B. Viral infections
C. Malignancy
D. Tuberculosis

A

D. Tuberculosis

169
Q

The pleural fluid hematocrit is MORE THAN 50% of the whole blood hematocrit:
A. Hemorrhagic effusion
B. Hemothorax
C. Both of these
D. None of these

A

B. Hemothorax

170
Q

Which of the following best represents a (hemothorax?
A. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 15
B. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 10
C. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 10
D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

A

D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

171
Q

The glucose level of normal pleural fluid, transudates, and most exudates _ serum levels.
A. Above serum levels
B. Below serum levels
C. Same as serum levels
D. Variable

A

C. Same as serum levels

172
Q

Normal synovial fluid does not clot; however, fluid from a diseased joint may contain fibrinogen and will clot.
Therefore, fluid is often collected in a syringe that has been moistened with:
A. EDTA
B. SPS
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride

A

C. Heparin

173
Q

Required tube for synovial fluid glucose analysis:
A. Powdered EDTA
B. Liquid EDTA
C. Sodium heparin
D. Sodium fluoride

A

D. Sodium fluoride

174
Q

Synovial fluid is typically collected using sterile needle and syringe and then transferred to collection tubes for testing. Which of the following anticoagulants would be appropriate to use for the aliquot sent for manual cell count and crystal evaluation?
A. Liquid EDTA
B. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Lithium heparin

A

A. Liquid EDTA

175
Q

Normal synovial fluid will be able to form.
cm STRING.
A. 1 to,2 cm
B. 2 to 3 cm
C. 3 to 4 cm
D. 4 to 6 cm

A

D. 4 to 6 cm

176
Q

Hyaluronate polymerization can be measured using a ROPES, or MUCIN CLOT TEST. When added to a solution of 2% to 5% acetic acid, normal synovial fluid forms:
A. No clot
B. Friable clot
C. Soft clot
D. Solid clot surrounded by clear fluid

A

D. Solid clot surrounded by clear fluid

177
Q

Before testing, very viscous synovial fluid should be treated with:

A. Normal saline
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Distilled water
D. Hypotonic saline

A

B. Hyaluronidase

178
Q

When diluting a synovial fluid WBC count, all of the following are acceptable except:
A. Acetic acid
B. Isotonic saline
C. Hypotonic saline
D. Saline with saponin

A

A. Acetic acid

179
Q

Synovial fluid WBC count of
800/uL:
A. Non-inflammatory
B. Immunologic
C. Crystal-induced
D. Septic
E. Hemorrhagic

A

A. Non-inflammatory

180
Q

Fragments of degenerating proliferative synovial cells or microinfarcted synovium:
A. Ragocytes
B. Reiter cells
C. Rice bodies
D. Ochronotic shards

A

C. Rice bodies

181
Q

PEPPER-LIKE PARTICLES are pieces of pigmented cartilage that has eroded and broken loose into the fluid.
A. Reiter cells
B. Ragocytes
C. Rice bodies
D. Ochronotic shards

A

D. Ochronotic shards

182
Q

Synovial fluid crystals that occur as a result of purine metabolism or chemotherapy for leukemia are:
A. Monosodium urate
B. Cholesterol
C. Calcium pyrophosphate
D. Apatite

A

A. Monosodium urate

183
Q

Normal synovial fluid glucose values are based on the blood glucose level, SIMULTANEOUS blood and synovial fluid samples should be obtained, preferably after the patient has fasted for _ hours to allow equilibration between the two fluid.
A. 6 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 10 hours
D. 12 hours

A

B. 8 hours

184
Q

Normal synovial fluid glucose should:
A. Same as blood glucose value
B. More than 5 mg/dL lower than the blood value
C. More than 10 mg/dL lower than the blood value
D. Not be more than 10 mg/dL lower than the blood value

A

D. Not be more than 10 mg/dL lower than the blood value

185
Q

Normal synovial fluid protein:

A. Less than 10 g/dL of protein
B. More than 10 g/dL of protein
C. Less than 3 g/dL of protein
D. More than 3 g/dL of protein

A

C. Less than 3 g/dL of protein

186
Q

The uric acid concentration in synovial fluid _ to that in blood plasma.
is _
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Equivalent
D. Variable

A

C. Equivalent

187
Q

What is the primary cause of the normal increase in amniotic fluid as a pregnancy progresses?

A. Fetal cell metabolism
B. Fetal swallowing
C. Fetal urine
D. Transfer of water across the placenta

A

C. Fetal urine

188
Q

Portion of the amniotic fluid arises from all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Fetal urine
B. Fetal respiratory tract
C. Amniotic membrane
D. Umbilical cord
E. Bone marrow

A

E. Bone marrow

189
Q

Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), amniocentesis may be indicated at:
A. 1 to 14 weeks
B. 15 to 18 weeks
C. 20 to 42 weeks
D. Any of these

A

B. 15 to 18 weeks

Suma (5 decks)

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