Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

cls > CLS 304 4-6 > Flashcards

CLS 304 4-6 Flashcards

1
Q

four types of renal diseases

A
  • glomerular
  • tubular
  • interstitial
  • vascular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

glomerular

A

most often immune mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

tubular

A

result from toxic or infectious substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

interstitial

A

result from toxic or infectious substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

vascular

A

reduction in renal flow that induces changes in kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what diseases damage glomeruli

A
  • immunologic
  • metabolic
  • hereditary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

secondary glomerular diseases

A

systemic disease that involves other organs but also affect kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

primary glomerular diseases

A
  • specifically affects kidney
  • consist different types of glomerulonephritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

morphologic changes in glomerulus (mostly immune mediated)

A
  • cellular proliferation
  • glomerular basement thickening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cellular proliferation

A
  • increased numbers of endothelial and other cells in glomerular tuft
  • drawn by a local chemotactic response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

glomerular basement thickening

A

includes any process that results in enlargement of basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

clinical features of glomerular disease

A
  • hematuria
  • proteinuria
  • oliguria
  • azotemia
  • edema
  • hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

hematuria

A

red blood cells in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

proteinuria

A

protein in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

oliguria

A

produce small amount of pee less than 400mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

azotemia

A

nitrogen in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

edema

A

fluid build up in the body (causes swelling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hypertension

A

high blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

nephrotic syndrome

A

kidney disorder that causes the body to pass too much protein in your urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

nephritic syndrome

A

inflammation of the glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

symptoms of nephrotic syndrome

A
  • heavy proteinuria
  • hyperlipidemia
  • edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

symptoms of nephritic syndrome

A
  • hematuria
  • oliguria
  • azotemia
  • hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

types of glomerulonephritis

A
  • acute glomerulonephritis
  • rapid glomerulonephritis
  • membranous glomerulonephritis
  • minimal change disease
  • focal segmental glomerulonephritis
  • membranoproliferazive glomerulonephritis
  • immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy
  • chronic glomerulonephritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

acute glomerulonephritis

A

result of strep throat antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

membranous glomerulonephritis

A

found in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

minimal change disease

A

found in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

focal segmental glomerulonephritis

A

found in HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

membranoproliferazive glomerulonephritis

A

interfers with filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy

A

most common cause of glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

chronic glomerulonephritis

A

will take you to renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

name 3 systemic diseases and (secondary) glomerular damage

A
  • systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  • diabetes mellitus
  • amyloidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A
  • autoimmune disorder with immune complex deposits
  • over 50% of patients will develop kidney failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

diabetes mellitus

A

carbohydrate metabolism disorder due to lack of insulin or cellular resistance to insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

amyloidosis

A

group of systemic diseases involving many organ, characterized by deposits of amyloid a pathologic protein substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

acute tubular necrosis

A
  • ischemic ATN (seen in sepsis, shock, trauma)
  • toxic ATN (from exogenous or endogenous nephrotoxins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

tubular dysfunction

A
  • fanconi’s syndrome
  • cystinosis and cystinuria
  • renal glycosuria
  • renal tubular acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

tubulointerstitial disease/infections

A
  • UTI
  • actue pyelonephritis
    -chronic pyelonephritis
  • acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)
    -yeast infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

renal calculi

A
  • aggregates of mineral salts in a matrix of proteins and lipids
  • found in calyces, renal pelvis, ureters, or bladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

factors influence calculi formation

A
  • supersaturation of chemical salts in urine
  • optimal urinary ph
  • urinary stasis
  • treatment depends on type and size of stones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what the #1 reason women go to the doctors

A

UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what does neph mean

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what does ritis mean

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what’s the most common disease in children

A

minimal change disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

acute renal failure (ARF)

A
  • sudden decrease in glomerular filtration rate
  • classified as prerenal, renal, and postrenal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

chronic renal failure (CRF)

A
  • progressive loss of renal function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what’s the difference between acute vs chronic renal failure

A

acute has an abrupt start and can potentially reversible and chronic progresses slowly over at least 3 months and can lead to permanent renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

name 4 types of kidney stones

A
  • calcium based stones
  • struvite stones
  • uric acid stones
  • cystine stones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

amino acid metabolism disorders

A
  • cystinosis and cystinuira
  • maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
  • phenylketonuria (PKU)
  • alkaptonuria
  • tyrosinuria
  • melanuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

metabolic disorders

A
  • diabetes mellitus
  • diabetes insipidus
  • porphyria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

diabetes mellitus

A
  • problems with glucose metabolism
  • one long term side effect is glomerular damage and chronic renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

diabetes insipidus

A
  • decreased antidiuretic horror (ADH) or nephrons are resistant to ADH
  • results in polyuria
52
Q

porphyria

A
  • hereditary defects of theme synthesis pathway
  • increased porphyrins and porphyrin precursors in blood and urine
53
Q

purpuse of routine urine analysis

A
  • aid in disease diagnosis
  • screen for asymptomatic, congenital, or hereditary diseases
  • monitor disease progression
  • monitor therapy effectiveness or complications
54
Q

why study urine

A
  • urine analysis if a fluid biopsy of kidney
  • noninvasive means to evaluate kidney
  • specimens readily available usually
  • urine is ultra filtrate of plasma
  • can be used to evaluate and monitor body homeostasis and many metabolic diseases
55
Q

specimen types

A
  • first morning
  • random
  • timed
56
Q

first morning specimen

A
  • empty bladder at night before going to bed
  • collect specimen first thing in the morning
  • most concentrate (often preferred specimen)
57
Q

random specimen

A
  • for routine screening
  • can be affected by excess fluid intake or exercise
58
Q

timed specimen

A
  • collections for predetermined length of time
  • collections at a specified time of day
59
Q

types of collection techniques

A
  • routine void
  • midstream (clean catch)
  • catheterized specimens
  • suprapubic aspiration
  • pediatric specimens
60
Q

routine void

A
  • requires no patient prep
  • collected by having patient void into appropriate container
  • patient needs no assistance other than clear directions
  • can be random or first morning specimen
61
Q

midstream (clean catch)

A
  • for bacterial cultures or to prevent vaginal contamination
  • requires cleaning supplies and additional instructions to patient and possibly sterile container
  • requires cleaning and rinsing of loans penis or urethral meatus before collection
  • begin urination into toilet, collect midstream portion in container, finish doing in toilet
62
Q

catheterized specimens

A
  • sterile specimen collected from bladder with a hollow tube (catheter)
  • most common test is bacterial culture
63
Q

suprapubic aspiration

A
  • completely free of contamination for culture and cytology
  • external introduction of needle for aspiration from the bladder
  • possible pediatric specimen
64
Q

pediatric specimens

A
  • soft, clear, plastic bags, with hypoallergenic tape applied to genital area
  • clean catch method with sterile bag can be used
  • bags with tubes to a larger container are available for times specimens
65
Q

24 hours urine specimens

A
  • test for certain chemicals and hormones by collecting all of the urine voided by a patient in a 24 hour period
  • starts in the morning and ends in the morning
  • must throw away the first pee in the 24 hour period
  • if urine ir discarded or improperly collected you must start all over
66
Q

collecting a 24 hour urine

A
  • after the first pee, note the time and the period will end at that time the next day
  • label with name, room #, date, and time of collection
  • must be stored on ice
67
Q

reasons for specimen rejection

A
  • unlabeled or mislabeled specimen
  • mismatch of specimen name or id number with order slip
  • inappropriate collection technique for test order
  • not properly preserved or time delay in receipt of specimen
  • visibly contaminated sample
68
Q

containers and labels

A
  • clean, dry, and made of clear or translucent material with lid to prevent spillage
  • sterile containers required for cultures
  • extra large commercial containers are available for large times collections (24 hour specimen)
  • label placed on container not on lid
69
Q

changes in unpreserved urine happen bc

A
  • alteration of urine solutes to a different form
  • bacterial growth
  • solute precipitation
70
Q

changes in unpreserved urine

A
  • decreased urine clarity and increased odor
  • possible color changes from solute alteration
  • false negative glucose
  • increased nitrite and PH
  • disintegration of formed elements
71
Q

handling and preservation

A
  • proper techniques to preserve integrity of specimen needed if delay if 2 hours or more
72
Q

preservation considerations

A
  • type of collection
  • tests to be preformed
  • time delay before testing
73
Q

what is the most common way to preserve pee

A

refrigeration but should not be used for routine testing if urine will be analyzed within 2 hours

74
Q

preservation of times collections

A
  • 12 and 24 hour times collections require addition of chemical preservative to maintain integrity of analyte to be tested
  • keep on ice or refrigerate during collection period
  • check collection manual to identify necessary preservative
  • deliver specimen to lab immediately after completion of collection period
75
Q

is this fluid urine

A
  • needed in drug screen collections or when collected by needle aspiration
76
Q

how much more is urine creatinine is higher than plasma

A

it is 50 times higher

77
Q

what is higher in urine than in an other body fluids

A

urea, sodium, ad chloride

78
Q

range for urine specific gravity

A

1.002 to 1.0035

79
Q

range of ph in pee

A

5.0 to 8.0

80
Q

urine from a healthy person should not contain

A

protein or glucose

81
Q

kidneys convert _____ ml of filtered plasma

A

170,000mL

82
Q

what is the average daily urine output

A

12000mL

83
Q

urine composition

A
  • 95% water, 5% solutes
  • urea makes up 1/2 pf the dissolved solids
    inorganic chloride, sodium, and potassium
  • urea and creatinine identify a fluid as urine
  • may contain cells, crystals, mucus and bacteria
84
Q

urine volume

A
  • based on body state of hydration
  • amount of solutes excreted increases as water required to excrete them increases
85
Q

normal volume of pee

A

600 to 1800mL/day

86
Q

isothenuria

A

the inaptly of kidneys to change specific gravity or plasma ultra filtrate

87
Q

normal color is yellow due to ______

A

urochrome

88
Q

urochrome is

A

a lipid soluble pigment in plasma excreted in urine

89
Q

dark yellow pee =

A

concentrated urine

90
Q

pale yellow pee =

A

dilute urine

91
Q

substances that change urine color

A
  • blood or myoglobin
  • bilirubin
  • porphyrins
  • melanin
  • indican
  • homogentisic acid
  • ingested substances (meds, dyes,vitamins,pigmented foods)
92
Q

what happens when normal pee is shaken

A

white foam will be produces and rapidly dissipates

93
Q

what does stable white foam mean

A

large amounts of albumin is in the urine

94
Q

yellow foam is caused by

A

increased bilirubin

95
Q

causes of cloudiness

A
  • contamination from skin or vaginal secretion, bacterial growth, or fecal material
  • precipitation of dissolved solutes, X-ray , congrats media
  • RBCs, WBCs, epithelial, clots, bacteria, casts
96
Q

how does urine on standing become ordorous

A

due to bacterial conversion of urea to amonia

97
Q

ketones produce what type of odor

A

sweet or fruity smell

98
Q

amino acid produces what type of odor

A

produced very odd orders

99
Q

can ingesting certain foods or drugs change the odor of pee (true or false)

A

true

100
Q

what is a big indicator for concentration of pee

A

color

101
Q

what is the formula for specific gravity

A

SG=density of urine/density of equal volume or pure water

102
Q

what is specific gravity

A
  • and expression of concentration in terms of density
  • mass of solutes present per volume of solution
103
Q

what is osmolality

A
  • the concentration of a solution expressed in terms of soles of solute particles per kilogram of water
104
Q

normal urine vales in osmolality is _____

A

275 to 900 mOsm/kg

105
Q

normal serum values in osmolality is _____

A

275 to 300 mOsm/kg

106
Q

principal uses of osmolality

A
  • evaluate renal concentrating ability of kidneys
  • monitor renal disease
  • monitor fluid and electrolyte balance
  • differentially diagnose cause of polyuria
107
Q

what is the most common method for chemical testing

A

reagent strips

108
Q

what type of result is made based on color change for reagent strips

A

qualitative results

109
Q

reasons to use tablet/liquid tests

A
  • confirm results obtained by reagent strip testing
    alternative method for highly pigmented urine
  • some test are more sensitive than strip test such as (ictotest tablets for bilirubin)
  • test specificity differs from strip method (sulfosalicylic acid test)
    -acetotest to confirm ketones
110
Q

hemoglobinuria

A

free hemoglobin in urine

111
Q

What conditions may large
number of WBC in urine
indicate?

A

UTI, kidney stones, a pelvic tumor

112
Q

nitrate reducing bacteria in urine can form______

A

nitrite

113
Q

if there’s purine protein its often the first sign of what?

A

kidney disease

114
Q

the strip test is most sensitive to _____

A

albumin

115
Q

both diabetes and high blood pressure can cause _____

A

damage to the kidneys which leads to proteinuria

116
Q

routine test strips are unable to detect what

A

albumin tha tis <1 to 2 mg

117
Q

what test is most often used in patients with diabetes

A

micro albumin and is used to screen for signs of early kidney damage

118
Q

what is not seen in normal urine

A

glucose

119
Q

what will appear if plasma level in urine is over the regular level

A

glucose will appear at levels of 160 to 180 mg/dL

120
Q

reducing substances can detect what

A
  • sugars (except sucrose)
  • ascorbic acid
  • cysteine
121
Q

ketones breakdown products from large amounts of fatty acids such as

A
  • acetoacetate
  • acetone
  • Bhydroxybutyrate
122
Q

what bilirubin is water soluble and found in urine

A

direct (conjugated) bilirubin

123
Q

what does bilirubin do to urine

A

it turns pee into a dark yellow or brown

124
Q

what bilirubin is NOT water soluble

A

indirect bilirubin

125
Q

urobilinogen

A
  • is a product of bilirubin that forms in the intestines
126
Q
A

cls (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions